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Arbitration And Conciliation Act, 1996 MCQs SET-3
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1. According to Section 20(3), the arbitral tribunal may meet at any place for:
a. Consultation among its members
b. Hearing witnesses, experts or parties
c. Inspection of documents, goods or other property
d. All of the above
2. The power of tribunal to meet at any place under Section 20(3) applies:
a. Only when parties agree
b. Unless otherwise agreed by the parties
c. Only when court orders
d. Only after award
3. Section 21 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 deals with:
a. Termination of arbitration
b. Commencement of arbitral proceedings
c. Jurisdiction of arbitral tribunal
d. Arbitration agreement
4. According to Section 21, arbitral proceedings commence:
a. When arbitration agreement is signed
b. When tribunal is constituted
c. When a request to refer the dispute to arbitration is received by the respondent
d. When statement of claim is filed
5. The rule regarding commencement of arbitral proceedings under Section 21 applies:
a. In every case without exception
b. Unless otherwise agreed by the parties
c. Only when tribunal decides
d. Only when court orders
6. Under Section 21, the crucial event for commencement of arbitral proceedings is:
a. Sending the request for arbitration
b. Receipt of the request for arbitration by the respondent
c. Filing of arbitration petition
d. Appointment of arbitrator
7. Section 22 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 deals with:
a. Place of arbitration
b. Language of arbitral proceedings
c. Jurisdiction of tribunal
d. Appointment of arbitrators
8. According to Section 22(1), the parties are free to agree upon:
a. Place of arbitration
b. Language or languages to be used in arbitral proceedings
c. Court jurisdiction
d. Arbitration fees
9. The principle reflected in Section 22(1) regarding language of arbitration is:
a. Judicial control
b. Party autonomy
c. Government regulation
d. Tribunal supremacy
10. Under Section 22(2), if parties fail to agree on the language of arbitration:
a. Court determines the language
b. Government determines the language
c. Arbitral tribunal determines the language
d. Arbitration proceedings terminate
11. According to Section 22(3), the agreed or determined language applies to:
a. Written statements of parties
b. Hearings
c. Arbitral awards and tribunal communications
d. All of the above
12. Section 22(3) states that the language determined shall apply unless:
a. Tribunal decides otherwise
b. Parties specify otherwise
c. Court directs otherwise
d. Government orders otherwise
13. Under Section 22(4), the arbitral tribunal may order that documentary evidence be accompanied by:
a. Notarized copy
b. Certified affidavit
c. Translation into the agreed or determined language
d. Government certification
14. The authority empowered to require translation of documentary evidence under Section 22(4) is:
a. Court
b. Arbitral tribunal
c. Government authority
d. Arbitration council
15. Section 23 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 deals with:
a. Jurisdiction of arbitral tribunal
b. Statements of claim and defence
c. Interim measures
d. Arbitration agreement
16. According to Section 23(1), the claimant shall state:
a. Facts supporting his claim
b. Points at issue
c. Relief or remedy sought
d. All of the above
17. The time for submitting statements of claim and defence under Section 23(1) shall be:
a. Fixed by the court
b. Agreed by the parties or determined by the arbitral tribunal
c. Fixed by the government
d. Fixed by arbitration council
18. Under Section 23(1), the respondent shall:
a. Admit the claim
b. State his defence in respect of the particulars mentioned by the claimant
c. File appeal
d. Terminate arbitration
19. Section 23(1) allows parties to:
a. Modify arbitration agreement
b. Agree on the required elements of claim and defence statements
c. Appoint arbitrators
d. Decide jurisdiction
20. According to Section 23(2), parties may submit:
a. Documents they consider relevant
b. Reference to documents or other evidence
c. Both A and B
d. Only oral evidence
21. Section 23(2) allows parties to:
a. Submit documents along with statements
b. Refer to documents to be submitted later
c. Both A and B
d. Only submit documents after award
22. Under Section 23(2A), the respondent may:
a. File counterclaim
b. Plead set-off
c. Both A and B
d. Only challenge jurisdiction
23. According to Section 23(2A), the arbitral tribunal shall adjudicate counterclaim or set-off if:
a. Tribunal agrees
b. It falls within scope of arbitration agreement
c. Court approves
d. Parties request jointly
24. A counterclaim submitted under Section 23(2A) must:
a. Be filed before court
b. Fall within scope of arbitration agreement
c. Be approved by arbitrator
d. Be notarised
25. Section 24 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 deals with:
a. Statements of claim and defence
b. Hearings and written proceedings
c. Jurisdiction of arbitral tribunal
d. Arbitration agreement
26. According to Section 24(1), the arbitral tribunal shall decide whether:
a. Arbitration should continue
b. Oral hearings should be held or proceedings should be based on documents
c. Arbitration agreement is valid
d. Court should intervene
27. The power of the arbitral tribunal to decide whether to hold oral hearings under Section 24(1) operates:
a. Absolutely
b. Unless otherwise agreed by the parties
c. Only with court approval
d. Only with government approval
28. According to the first proviso to Section 24(1), the arbitral tribunal shall hold oral hearings:
a. Only if tribunal decides
b. If requested by a party, unless parties agreed that no oral hearing shall be held
c. Only after evidence is submitted
d. Only after award
29. Under the second proviso to Section 24(1), the arbitral tribunal should, as far as possible, conduct oral hearings:
a. Weekly
b. Monthly
c. On a day-to-day basis
d. At intervals decided by parties
30. According to Section 24(1), adjournments during arbitration proceedings:
a. May be granted freely
b. Shall not be granted unless sufficient cause is shown
c. Are mandatory
d. Are prohibited entirely
31. If a party seeks adjournment without sufficient cause under Section 24(1), the arbitral tribunal may impose:
a. Penalty only
b. Costs including exemplary costs
c. Suspension of proceedings
d. Termination of arbitration
32. According to Section 24(2), parties must receive:
a. Immediate notice of hearing
b. Sufficient advance notice of any hearing
c. Notice only after hearing
d. Notice only through court
33. Section 24(2) also requires advance notice of tribunal meetings for:
a. Settlement discussions
b. Inspection of documents, goods or other property
c. Appointment of arbitrators
d. Filing appeal
34. Under Section 24(3), any statement or document submitted by one party to the tribunal shall be:
a. Kept confidential
b. Communicated to the other party
c. Submitted to court
d. Reviewed by government
35. According to Section 24(3), any expert report relied upon by the arbitral tribunal must be:
a. Kept confidential
b. Communicated to the parties
c. Submitted only to claimant
d. Approved by court
36. Section 24(3) ensures which principle in arbitration proceedings?
a. Confidentiality
b. Equality and transparency between parties
c. Government supervision
d. Judicial supremacy
37. Section 25 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 deals with:
a. Appointment of arbitrators
b. Default of a party
c. Place of arbitration
d. Jurisdiction of arbitral tribunal
38. Section 25 applies where a party defaults:
a. After the award
b. Without showing sufficient cause
c. With court permission
d. Only during hearings
39. Under Section 25(a), if the claimant fails to communicate his statement of claim under Section 23(1), the arbitral tribunal shall:
a. Continue proceedings
b. Terminate the proceedings
c. Refer the matter to court
d. Impose costs
40. The termination of proceedings under Section 25(a) occurs when:
a. Respondent files defence late
b. Claimant fails to submit statement of claim without sufficient cause
c. Tribunal delays proceedings
d. Arbitration agreement becomes invalid
41. According to Section 25(b), if the respondent fails to communicate his statement of defence:
a. Proceedings terminate
b. Proceedings continue
c. Arbitration agreement becomes void
d. Tribunal dissolves
42. Under Section 25(b), failure of the respondent to submit defence shall:
a. Be treated as admission of claimant’s allegations
b. Automatically terminate proceedings
c. Not be treated as admission of claimant’s allegations
d. Result in court intervention
43. Section 25(b) further provides that the tribunal may:
a. Dismiss the claim
b. Treat the respondent’s right to file defence as forfeited
c. Refer dispute to court
d. Restart proceedings
44. According to Section 25(c), if a party fails to appear at an oral hearing:
a. Arbitration must stop
b. Tribunal must refer matter to court
c. Tribunal may continue proceedings
d. Arbitration agreement becomes void
45. Under Section 25(c), if a party fails to produce documentary evidence:
a. Tribunal must terminate proceedings
b. Tribunal may continue proceedings and decide on available evidence
c. Court must decide dispute
d. Evidence must be rejected
46. Section 25(c) empowers the tribunal to make an arbitral award:
a. Only after both parties appear
b. On the evidence before it
c. Only after court approval
d. Only after respondent files defence
47. Section 26 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 deals with:
a. Expert appointed by arbitral tribunal
b. Appointment of arbitrators
c. Interim measures
d. Arbitration agreement
48. According to Section 26(1), the arbitral tribunal may appoint:
a. Judges
b. One or more experts
c. Government officers
d. Arbitrators
49. The expert appointed under Section 26(1)(a) shall report to:
a. The court
b. The arbitral tribunal
c. The government
d. Arbitration council
50. The expert appointed under Section 26 is required to report on:
a. Legal questions only
b. Specific issues determined by the arbitral tribunal
c. Entire arbitration dispute
d. Procedural issues only
51. The power of the arbitral tribunal to appoint an expert under Section 26 applies:
a. Absolutely
b. Unless otherwise agreed by the parties
c. Only with court approval
d. Only with government approval
52. According to Section 26(1)(b), the tribunal may require a party to:
a. Withdraw the claim
b. Provide relevant information to the expert
c. Produce documents, goods or property for inspection
d. Both B and C
53. The inspection under Section 26(1)(b) may include access to:
a. Documents
b. Goods
c. Other property relevant to dispute
d. All of the above
54. According to Section 26(2), after submitting his report the expert may:
a. Withdraw from proceedings
b. Participate in an oral hearing
c. Decide the dispute
d. Replace arbitrator
55. During the oral hearing under Section 26(2), parties may:
a. Cross-examine the expert
b. Put questions to the expert
c. Present their own expert witnesses
d. All of the above
56. According to Section 26(3), the expert shall allow parties to examine:
a. His personal records
b. Documents, goods or property used for preparing the report
c. Tribunal records
d. Government records
57. The documents or materials examined by parties under Section 26(3) are those:
a. Supplied by the tribunal
b. Provided to the expert to prepare his report
c. Submitted to court
d. Collected independently by parties
58. Section 27 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 deals with:
a. Appointment of arbitrators
b. Court assistance in taking evidence
c. Arbitration agreement
d. Interim measures
59. Under Section 27(1), an application to the Court for assistance in taking evidence may be made by:
a. Only the arbitral tribunal
b. Only a party
c. The arbitral tribunal or a party with approval of the arbitral tribunal
d. The government
60. If a party wishes to apply to the Court under Section 27(1), it must obtain:
a. Consent of the other party
b. Approval of the arbitral tribunal
c. Approval of the government
d. Permission of the High Court
61. According to Section 27(2), the application for court assistance must specify:
a. Names and addresses of parties and arbitrators
b. Nature of the claim and relief sought
c. Evidence to be obtained
d. All of the above
62. Under Section 27(2)(c), the evidence to be obtained may include:
a. Witness testimony
b. Expert witness testimony
c. Documents or property for inspection
d. All of the above
63. Section 27(2)(c)(i) requires the application to mention:
a. Name and address of witness or expert witness
b. Subject matter of testimony
c. Both A and B
d. Only witness address
64. According to Section 27(2)(c)(ii), the application may describe:
a. Arbitration award
b. Documents to be produced or property to be inspected
c. Arbitrator’s qualifications
d. Tribunal jurisdiction
65. Under Section 27(3), the Court may execute the request for evidence:
a. Only through government agencies
b. Within its competence and according to its rules on taking evidence
c. Only after arbitration award
d. Only with consent of both parties
66. According to Section 27(3), the Court may order that evidence be provided:
a. To the claimant
b. Directly to the arbitral tribunal
c. To the High Court
d. To the arbitration council
67. Under Section 27(4), while assisting in evidence collection, the Court may issue:
a. Administrative orders
b. The same processes to witnesses as in suits before it
c. Government orders
d. Arbitration awards
68. According to Section 27(5), persons failing to attend or refusing to give evidence may be subject to:
a. Arbitration penalty only
b. Disadvantages, penalties and punishments similar to those in suits before the Court
c. Termination of arbitration
d. Automatic arrest
69. Section 27(5) also applies to persons guilty of:
a. Fraud in arbitration
b. Contempt of arbitral tribunal during proceedings
c. Breach of contract
d. Non-payment of arbitration fees
70. Under Section 27(6), the term “processes” includes:
a. Summonses for examination of witnesses
b. Commissions for examination of witnesses
c. Summonses to produce documents
d. All of the above
71. Section 28 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 deals with:
a. Jurisdiction of arbitral tribunal
b. Rules applicable to substance of dispute
c. Appointment of arbitrators
d. Interim measures
72. Section 28 applies when:
a. Arbitration agreement exists
b. Place of arbitration is situated in India
c. Tribunal is constituted
d. Court intervenes
73. Under Section 28(1)(a), in arbitration other than international commercial arbitration, the arbitral tribunal shall decide the dispute in accordance with:
a. Foreign law
b. Substantive law in force in India
c. Contract law chosen by tribunal
d. Equity principles only
74. Section 28(1)(a) applies to:
a. International commercial arbitration
b. Domestic arbitration
c. Institutional arbitration
d. Foreign awards
75. Under Section 28(1)(b)(i), in international commercial arbitration, the arbitral tribunal shall decide disputes according to:
a. Indian law only
b. Rules of law designated by the parties
c. Tribunal’s discretion
d. Government rules
76. According to Section 28(1)(b)(ii), when parties designate the law of a country, it refers to:
a. Conflict of laws rules of that country
b. Procedural law of that country
c. Substantive law of that country
d. Constitutional law of that country
77. Section 28(1)(b)(ii) clarifies that designation of law of a country shall not refer to:
a. Substantive law
b. Conflict of laws rules
c. Arbitration law
d. Contract law
78. According to Section 28(1)(b)(iii), if parties fail to designate applicable law in international commercial arbitration:
a. Court decides the law
b. Tribunal applies rules of law it considers appropriate
c. Indian law automatically applies
d. Arbitration terminates
79. Section 28(2) allows the arbitral tribunal to decide the dispute based on equity (ex aequo et bono or amiable compositeur):
a. In every case
b. Only if parties expressly authorise it
c. Only with court approval
d. Only in domestic arbitration
80. The term “ex aequo et bono” means:
a. Decision based strictly on law
b. Decision based on equity and fairness
c. Decision based on government policy
d. Decision based on procedural law
81. According to Section 28(3), while making an award, the arbitral tribunal shall take into account:
a. Terms of the contract
b. Trade usages applicable to the transaction
c. Both A and B
d. Only tribunal discretion
82. Section 28(3) ensures that arbitration awards respect:
a. Government policies
b. Contractual obligations and trade practices
c. Only procedural fairness
d. Only tribunal discretion
83. Section 29 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 deals with:
a. Appointment of arbitrators
b. Decision making by panel of arbitrators
c. Jurisdiction of arbitral tribunal
d. Arbitration agreement
84. Section 29 applies where:
a. Arbitration is conducted by a sole arbitrator
b. There is more than one arbitrator in the arbitral tribunal
c. Court appoints arbitrators
d. Arbitration agreement is invalid
85. According to Section 29(1), decisions of the arbitral tribunal shall be made by:
a. Presiding arbitrator alone
b. Unanimous decision of all arbitrators
c. Majority of all members of the tribunal
d. Decision of court
86. The rule of majority decision under Section 29(1) applies:
a. Absolutely
b. Unless otherwise agreed by the parties
c. Only when tribunal decides
d. Only with court approval
87. In a tribunal consisting of three arbitrators, a valid decision under Section 29(1) requires:
a. Unanimous decision
b. Majority decision
c. Presiding arbitrator’s decision only
d. Court approval
88. According to Section 29(2), questions of procedure may be decided by:
a. Any arbitrator
b. Presiding arbitrator
c. Court
d. Government authority
89. The presiding arbitrator may decide procedural questions under Section 29(2):
a. Without permission
b. If authorised by parties or all members of tribunal
c. Only with court approval
d. Only in domestic arbitration
90. Procedural questions under Section 29(2) may include:
a. Scheduling of hearings
b. Procedural directions
c. Conduct of proceedings
d. All of the above
91. Section 29A of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 deals with:
a. Appointment of arbitrators
b. Time limit for arbitral award
c. Jurisdiction of tribunal
d. Enforcement of award
92. Under Section 29A(1), in matters other than international commercial arbitration, the arbitral award shall be made within:
a. Six months
b. Nine months
c. Twelve months
d. Eighteen months
93. The period of twelve months under Section 29A(1) is calculated from:
a. Constitution of arbitral tribunal
b. Date of arbitration agreement
c. Completion of pleadings under Section 23(4)
d. Filing of claim petition
94. According to the proviso to Section 29A(1), in international commercial arbitration the award shall be made:
a. Within twelve months compulsorily
b. Within eighteen months
c. As expeditiously as possible with an endeavour to complete within twelve months
d. Within six months
95. Under Section 29A(2), if the award is made within six months from the date the tribunal enters upon reference:
a. Tribunal must refund fees
b. Tribunal is entitled to additional fees as agreed by parties
c. Tribunal is removed
d. Arbitration terminates
96. The additional fee under Section 29A(2) is:
a. Fixed by the court
b. Fixed by government
c. Agreed by the parties
d. Determined by arbitration council
97. According to Section 29A(3), the parties may extend the period for making the award by:
a. Three months
b. Six months
c. Nine months
d. Twelve months
98. Extension under Section 29A(3) requires:
a. Court approval
b. Consent of parties
c. Tribunal approval
d. Government approval
99. If the award is not made within the specified or extended period under Section 29A, the mandate of the arbitrator:
a. Automatically continues
b. Terminates unless the Court extends the time
c. Transfers to court
d. Becomes permanent
100. According to Section 29A(4), the Court may extend the period:
a. Only before expiry
b. Only after expiry
c. Either before or after expiry of the time limit
d. Only on government direction
101. If the delay is attributable to the arbitral tribunal, the Court may:
a. Remove arbitrator immediately
b. Reduce arbitrator’s fees
c. Terminate arbitration
d. Cancel arbitration agreement
102. The reduction of arbitrator’s fees under Section 29A(4) may be up to:
a. 2% per month of delay
b. 3% per month of delay
c. 5% per month of delay
d. 10% per month of delay
103. Before reducing the arbitrator’s fees under Section 29A(4), the arbitrator must be:
a. Removed
b. Heard
c. Suspended
d. Penalised
104. According to Section 29A(4), when an application for extension is pending:
a. Arbitration proceedings terminate
b. Arbitrator’s mandate continues until disposal of application
c. Tribunal must stop proceedings
d. Court automatically appoints new arbitrator
105. Under Section 29A(5), extension of time by Court shall be granted:
a. Automatically
b. Only for sufficient cause
c. Only with government approval
d. Only after award
106. According to Section 29A(6), while extending the time, the Court may:
a. Terminate arbitration agreement
b. Substitute one or all arbitrators
c. Cancel proceedings
d. Decide the dispute itself
107. If arbitrators are substituted under Section 29A(6), the proceedings shall:
a. Start afresh
b. Continue from the stage already reached
c. Restart pleadings
d. Require new evidence
108. Under Section 29A(7), the reconstituted arbitral tribunal shall be deemed:
a. A new tribunal
b. In continuation of the previously appointed tribunal
c. A court tribunal
d. A government tribunal
109. Section 29A(8) empowers the Court to impose:
a. Administrative penalties
b. Actual or exemplary costs on parties
c. Criminal penalties
d. Arbitration suspension
110. According to Section 29A(9), an application for extension shall be disposed of:
a. Within 30 days
b. Within 45 days
c. Within 60 days from service of notice
d. Within 90 days
111. The amendment to Section 29A discussed here applies to:
a. All States of India
b. Only Union Territory of Delhi
c. Union Territories of Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh
d. Only Jammu & Kashmir
112. Under the J&K and Ladakh amendment to Section 29A(1), the arbitral award must be made within:
a. Six months
b. Nine months
c. Twelve months
d. Eighteen months
113. Under the amended Section 29A(1) for J&K and Ladakh, the twelve-month period begins from:
a. Completion of pleadings
b. Constitution of arbitral tribunal
c. Date the arbitral tribunal enters upon the reference
d. Filing of statement of claim
114. According to the explanation to the amended Section 29A(1), the arbitral tribunal is deemed to have entered upon the reference when:
a. Arbitration agreement is signed
b. Arbitrator accepts appointment orally
c. Arbitrator or all arbitrators receive written notice of their appointment
d. Tribunal issues first procedural order
115. Under the amended Section 29A(1), the concept of “entering upon reference” is linked with:
a. Filing of pleadings
b. Receipt of written notice of appointment by arbitrator(s)
c. Court order appointing arbitrator
d. First hearing of arbitration
116. The J&K and Ladakh amendment changes the starting point of the time limit from:
a. Tribunal constitution to completion of pleadings
b. Completion of pleadings to entering upon reference
c. Filing of claim to tribunal constitution
d. Award date to hearing date
117. According to the amendment, which provisos of Section 29A(4) are omitted?
a. First proviso
b. First and second provisos
c. Second and third provisos
d. All provisos
118. The omission of the second and third provisos in Section 29A(4) means that provisions relating to:
a. Fee reduction of arbitrators and hearing opportunity
b. Extension of time by court
c. Party consent for extension
d. Substitution of arbitrators
119. The amendment to Section 29A for J&K and Ladakh was introduced through:
a. Arbitration Amendment Act, 2019
b. Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation (Adaptation of Central Laws) Order, 2020
c. Civil Procedure Code Amendment
d. Commercial Courts Act
120. Section 29B of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 deals with:
a. Time limit for arbitral award
b. Fast track arbitration procedure
c. Appointment of arbitrators
d. Court assistance in evidence
121. According to Section 29B(1), parties may agree to resolve their dispute through fast track procedure:
a. Only after arbitration award
b. At any stage either before or at the time of appointment of arbitral tribunal
c. Only after court order
d. Only after tribunal constitution
122. The agreement to adopt fast track procedure under Section 29B must be:
a. Oral
b. Implied
c. In writing
d. Notarized
123. According to Section 29B(2), the parties may agree that the arbitral tribunal shall consist of:
a. Three arbitrators
b. Five arbitrators
c. A sole arbitrator
d. Two arbitrators
124. Under Section 29B(2), the sole arbitrator in fast track procedure shall be:
a. Appointed by court
b. Chosen by the parties
c. Appointed by government
d. Appointed by arbitration council
125. According to Section 29B(3)(a), the arbitral tribunal shall decide the dispute:
a. Only after oral hearing
b. On the basis of written pleadings, documents and submissions
c. Only through witness examination
d. Only after court direction
126. Under Section 29B(3)(a), normally the fast track arbitration shall proceed:
a. With compulsory oral hearings
b. Without any oral hearing
c. With daily hearings
d. With court supervision
127. According to Section 29B(3)(b), the arbitral tribunal may:
a. Reject pleadings
b. Call for further information or clarification from the parties
c. Replace arbitrators
d. Terminate proceedings
128. Under Section 29B(3)(c), oral hearing may be held:
a. Only if all parties request
b. If the tribunal considers it necessary for clarification
c. Both A and B
d. Only by court order
129. According to Section 29B(3)(d), the tribunal may dispense with:
a. Arbitration agreement
b. Technical formalities during oral hearing
c. Evidence submission
d. Award writing
130. Under Section 29B(4), the arbitral award shall be made within:
a. Three months
b. Six months
c. Nine months
d. Twelve months
131. The six-month period under Section 29B(4) begins from:
a. Constitution of tribunal
b. Filing of statement of claim
c. Date the arbitral tribunal enters upon the reference
d. Arbitration agreement date
132. If the award is not made within the period specified in Section 29B(4):
a. Arbitration terminates
b. Section 29A provisions for extension apply
c. Court decides dispute
d. Arbitration agreement becomes void
133. Specifically, Section 29B(5) applies which provisions when the award is delayed?
a. Section 29A(1)-(2)
b. Section 29A(3)-(9)
c. Section 29A(5)-(9)
d. Section 29A(1)-(9)
134. According to Section 29B(6), the fees payable to the arbitrator shall be:
a. Fixed by the court
b. Fixed by government
c. Agreed between the arbitrator and the parties
d. Determined by arbitration council
135. Section 30 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 deals with:
a. Settlement of disputes during arbitration
b. Appointment of arbitrators
c. Enforcement of arbitral award
d. Jurisdiction of tribunal
136. According to Section 30(1), it is:
a. Prohibited for arbitral tribunal to encourage settlement
b. Incompatible with arbitration agreement to settle disputes
c. Not incompatible with arbitration agreement for tribunal to encourage settlement
d. Mandatory for tribunal to terminate proceedings
137. Under Section 30(1), the arbitral tribunal may encourage settlement using:
a. Mediation
b. Conciliation
c. Other procedures
d. All of the above
138. Under Section 30(2), if the parties settle the dispute during arbitration:
a. Arbitration agreement becomes void
b. Tribunal must terminate proceedings
c. Court decides settlement
d. Tribunal must issue award immediately
139. According to Section 30(2), the tribunal may record the settlement:
a. As a civil decree
b. As an arbitral award on agreed terms
c. As a mediation report
d. As a procedural order
140. The arbitral tribunal will record settlement as an arbitral award only if:
a. Court directs
b. Parties request and tribunal does not object
c. Government approves
d. Arbitration council directs
141. Section 30(3) states that an arbitral award on agreed terms shall be made in accordance with:
a. Section 29A
b. Section 31
c. Section 34
d. Section 36
142. An arbitral award on agreed terms must state that it is:
a. A settlement agreement
b. A civil decree
c. An arbitral award
d. A mediation report
143. According to Section 30(4), an arbitral award on agreed terms has:
a. Lesser legal effect than other awards
b. Same status and effect as any other arbitral award
c. Only contractual effect
d. Only procedural effect
144. Section 31 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 deals with:
a. Enforcement of arbitral award
b. Form and contents of arbitral award
c. Jurisdiction of tribunal
d. Arbitration agreement
145. According to Section 31(1), an arbitral award shall be:
a. Oral
b. Written
c. Electronic only
d. Verbal with transcript
146. Under Section 31(1), an arbitral award must be signed by:
a. The presiding arbitrator only
b. The members of the arbitral tribunal
c. The parties
d. The court
147. According to Section 31(2), in a tribunal with multiple arbitrators, the award may be signed by:
a. All arbitrators only
b. Presiding arbitrator only
c. Majority of the members of the tribunal
d. Court-appointed arbitrator
148. Under Section 31(2), if a signature of any arbitrator is omitted:
a. The award becomes invalid
b. Reason for omission must be stated
c. Court approval is required
d. Arbitration must restart
149. According to Section 31(3), the arbitral award shall state:
a. Procedural history only
b. Reasons on which the award is based
c. Court jurisdiction
d. Arbitration agreement validity
150. Reasons for an arbitral award need not be given if:
a. Tribunal decides so
b. Parties agree that no reasons are required
c. Government directs
d. Court approves
151. Reasons are also not required where the award is:
a. Interim award
b. Ex parte award
c. Award on agreed terms under Section 30
d. Award in international arbitration
152. According to Section 31(4), the arbitral award shall state:
a. Date of award
b. Place of arbitration
c. Both A and B
d. Only tribunal name
153. Under Section 31(4), the arbitral award is deemed to have been made at:
a. Place where tribunal sits
b. Place of arbitration determined under Section 20
c. Place where contract was signed
d. Court location
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