Previous Year Question Papers · Uttrakhand Judicial Service Examination, 2011

Uttrakhand Judicial Service Examination, 2011

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PART-I

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

1. Which Amendment added Fundamental Duties in the Constitution of India?

(A) 42nd Amendment

(B) 44th Amendment

(D) 49th Amendment

2. The Ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States is

(A) President of India

(B) Speaker of Lok Sabha

(D) None of the above

3. Stockholm Conference on ‘Human Environment was held in the year

(A) 1973 (B) 1972

4. In India ‘Law Day’ is celebrated every year on

(A) 5th April (B) 26th November

5. Which one of the following organizations is directly related to the Child Welfare?

(A) UNESCO (B) UNICEF

6. The Theory of ‘Social Engineering’ was propounded by

(A) Austin (B) Ivor Jennings

7. ’ A Secular State

(A) promotes Religions

(B) demotes Religions

(D) remains neutral to Religions

8. What is the minimum reservations prescribed by the Constitution for Women in Panchayati?

(A) 50 per cent (B) 30 per cent

9. Which country is not a permanent member of United Nations’ Security Council?

(A) USA (B) Russia

10. In which year “Copenhagen Summit Conference” on climate change was held?

(A) 2008 (B) 2010

11. Which Article of the Charter of the United Nations permitted Right to Self defense ?

(A) Article 2 (B) Article 51

12. Which of the following is not a basic feature of the Indian Constitution?

(A) Preamble

(B) Fundamental Rights

(D) Judicial Review

13. Which of the following States in India is having a Legislative Council ?

(A) Punjab (B) Madhya Pradesh

14. Who has been appointed as Chairperson of National Women Commission recently?

(A) Krishna Teerath

(B) Chandresh Kumari

(D) Ambika Soni

15. Which Fundamental Rights was declared by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as -heart and soul’ of the Constitution?

(A) Right to Freedom

(B) Right to Constitutional Remedies under Article 32

(D) Right to Equality

16. In which year biggest Arms Reduction Pact between U.S. and Russia was signed?

(A) 2007 (B) 2008.

17. Constitutional Status to Pahchayati Raj System was given by

(A) 24th Amendment

(B) 25th Amendment

(D) 73rd Amendment

18. National and State Disaster Management Authority is constituted under .

(A) Cabinet Decision

(B) Planning Commission Decision

(D) Natural Calamities Management Act, 2005

19. The National Judicial Academy is located at

(A) New Delhi (B) Hyderabad

20. The Planning Commission of India is a

(A) Statutory Body

(B) Advisory Body

(D) Autonomous Body

21. In which case the Supreme Court of India laid down that evidence can be recorded by Video Conferencing?

(A) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India

(B) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India

(D) Kartar Singh v. State of Punjab

22. The Right to Information Act was enacted in

(A) 2002 (B) 2005

23. Right to speedy trial is

(A) Constitutional Right

(B) Fundamental Right

(D) Directive Principle of the State Policy

24. Public Holidays are declared under

(A) Constitution of India

(B) Right to Information Act

(D) Indian Contract Act

25. The official language of the Union of India shall be Hindi in Devnagari script is mentioned in

(A) Article 341

(B) Article 342

(1) (D) Article 344

26. Who was the first President of Constituent Assembly of India?

(A) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

(B) Dr. K. N. Katju

(D) C. Rajagopalachari

27. Who is the author of the book ‘Mudrarakshas’?

(A) Kalidas

(B) Vishakadutta

(D) Jaydev

28. Which of the following is tallest building in the world?

(A) Effiel Tower

(B) Burj Khalifa

(D) Qutub Minar

29. On which issue Srikrishna Committee recently submitted its Report?

(A) Telangana issue

(B) Tax Reforms

(D) Naxal issue

30. The Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir came into force on

(A) 26th January, 1954

(B) 26th January, 1957

(D) 26th January, 1959

31. The Institution of ‘Ombudsman’ first started in

(A) Germany 1800

(B) Sweden in 1809

(D) India in 1950

32. How many Schedules are there in the Constitution of India?

(A) 9 (B) 10

33. In which year Mayor’s Courts were introduced in three Presidency Towns in India?

(A) 1726 (B) 1772

34. The 16th SAARC Summit 2016 was held at

(A) Maidive (B) Pakistan

35. Who is said to be the originator of the doctrine of separation of powers?

(A) Dicey (B) Montesqueue

36. Which provision of the Constitution of India deals with National Commission for Scheduled Castes?

(A) Article 338 (B) ‘Article 338A

37. ‘World Investment Report’ is an annual publication of

(A) IMF (B) Work Bank

38. Chapter-ll of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 shall not be deemed to effect any rule of '

(A) Christian Law (B) Muslim Law

39. By which Amendment Article 21 -A is added in the Constitution of India?

(A) 84th Amendment, 2001

(B) 85th Amendment, 2001

(D) 87th Amendment, 2003

40. Which type of euthanasia is permitted by the Supreme Court in ‘Aruna Shanbaug v. Union of India’, AIR 2011 SC 1290?

(A) Active euthanasia

(B) Passive euthanasia

(D) Non-voluntary euthanasia

41. Under International law the obligation of neutral country is

(A) Abstention (B) Prevention

42. Who is the Secretary General of United Nations?

(A) Ban ki Moon (B) Kofi Annan

43. In which city of Japan radiation leakage occurred due to massive earthquake?

(A) Tokyo (B) Fukushima

44. Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution of India?

(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(B) Dr. Bhim Rao Ambedkar

(D) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru

45. How many States are permanent members of United Nations’ Security Council?

(A) 10 (B) 7

46. Who said: “International law is the vanishing point of Jurisprudence”?

(A) Austin (B) Holland

47. In which year Indian Parliament passed Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act?

(A) 2009 (B) 2005

48. After how many years India won Cricket World Cup in 2011?

(A) After 20 years

(B) After 25 years

(D) After 30 years

49. In which year Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act was enacted by Parliament of India?

(A) 2009 (B) 2005

50. The concept of Directive Principles of State Policy is borrowed from

(A) Germany (B) France

PART-II

LAW

51. Which order of the Civil Procedure Code provides for a “Representative Suit”?

(A) Order I, Rule 1

(B) Order II, Rule !

(D) Order IV, Rule 1

52. Order XXXIX, Rule 2 of the Civil Procedure Code deals with

(A) Attachment before judgement

(B) Temporary Injunction

(D) Appointment of Receiver

53. Which Section of the Civil Procedure Code prohibits arrest and detention of women in execution of decree for money?

(A) Section 55 (B) Section 56

54. Which one is not correctly matched?

(A) Institution of Suit: Order IV

(B) Judgement and Decree: Order XX

(D) Issue of Commissions: Order XXI

55. Under which Section/Order of the Civil Procedure Code a Provision is made to provide “free legal services to indigent persons”?

(A) Section 151

(B) Section 115

(D) Order XXXIX, Rule 2

56. As provided in Section 79 of the Code of Civil Procedure a suit by the Central Government must be filed in the name of

(A) The President of India

(B) Attorney General of India

(D) Union of India

57. Which Section of the Code of Civil Procedure provisions for Right to lodge a ‘Caveat’?

(A) Section 148 (B) Section 148-A

58. Which Section of the Civil Procedure Code grant exemption to Members of Legislatures from arrest and detention under civil process?

(A) Section 80 (B) Section 134

59. A mortgage by deposit of title deeds is called

(A) Anomalous Mortgage

(B) English Mortgage

(D) Usufructuary Mortgage

60. Which is not covered by the term ‘Transfer of Property’?

(A) Gift

(B) Exchange

(D) Lease

61. The Transfer of Property Act was enacted in the year

(A) 1883 (B) 1882

62. In which Section of Transfer of Property Act ‘Onerous gift’ is provided?

(A) Section 127 (B) Section 126

63. Under Transfer of Property Act gift of future property is

(A) Valid (B) Voidable

64. Under which Section of Transfer of Property Act ‘Fraudulent Transfer’ is defined?

(A) Section 21 (B) Section 35

65. By which of the following means, transfer of actionable claim may be made?

(A) By Oral Agreement

(B) By Registered Instrument

(D) By a registered instrument attested by two witnesses

66. Bellamy v. Sabine Case is related with which doctrine?

(A) Doctrine of Perpetuity

(B) Doctrine of Election

(D) Part-Performance

67. Which of the following interest is not transferable?

(A) Vested Interest

(B) Spes Successionsis

(D) Interest of Lessee

68. An universal donee is liable to the creditors of the donor, the liability of the donee is

(A) Personal

(B) To the extent of value of gifted property in hand

(D) Limited to reasonable extent

69. Which of the following Sections of T.P. Act contains exceptions to the Maxim “Nemodat quod non-habets”?

(A) Section 41 and 42

(B) Section 41 and. 44

(D) None of the above

70. Which Section was amended by the Transfer of Property (Amendment) Act 2002?

(A) Section 100 (B) Section 106

71. Prabodh Kumar Das v. Dantamara Tea Co. Ltd. case is related with the following doctrine:

(A) Doctrine of Election

(B) Doctrine of Lis Pendens

(D) Doctrine of Priority

72. How many witnesses are required for attesting an instrument under Transfer of Property Act?

(A) 3 (B) 4

73. Whether partition of property can be called as transfer of property?

(A) Yes (B) No

74. Section 14 of the Transfer of Property Act deals with

(A) Rule against perpetuity

(B) Doctrine of Election

(D) Transfer for the benefit of unborn person

75. In which Section of the Transfer of Property Act the provisions regarding rights and liabilities of lessor and lessee are provided?

(A) 107 (B) 108

76. ‘A’ transfer his property to ‘B’ for life and thereafter to his unborn son for life. In this case transfer of property to the unborn son is

(A) Valid (B) Illegal

77. Which one of the following is not an essential element of a Mortgage as defined under Section 58(a) of TP A?

(A) There must be transfer of interest

(B) There must be promise to transfer of interest

(D) The purpose of transfer must be to ensure payment of a debt

78. ‘A’ transfers his property to ‘B’ by mortgage with the condition that for ten years ‘B’ will take the mortgage money from the income of the property and thereafter ‘A’ shall redeem the property by making the payment of remaining amount. This mortgage is

(A) Mortgage by conditional sale

(B) Anomalous mortgage

(D) English mortgage

79. In Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 the Provision of ‘Divorce by Mutual Consent’ was added by an

(A) Amendment in 1964

(B) Amendment in 1976

(D) Amendment in 1980

80. The child born of void and voidable marriage under Hindu Law is

(A) Legitimate (B) Illegitimate

81. The Provision for ‘maintenance pendente lite’ in Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 is given in

(A) Section 22 (B) Section 25

82. Concealment of pre-marriage pregnancy by the respondent can make marriage

(A) Voidable (B) Void

83. A person who dies without making a will is known as “Intestate”. This has been defined under Hindu Succession Act in

(A) Section 3(c) (B) Section 3(g)

84. The constitutional validity of Section 9 of Hindu Marriage Act for the first time came for consideration in the cash of

(A) Harvinder Kaur v.Harminder Singh

(B) Babooram v. Sushila

(D) Saroj Rani v. Sudarshan Kumar

85. What is the effect of Judicial Separation on material relation under Hindu Marriage Act?

(A) Marital relations come to an end

(B) Marital relations is suspended

(D) Marriage becomes voidable

86. Under Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 the right to ‘Permanent Alimony’ is avilable

(A) to the husband only

(B) to the wife only

(D) to the dependents only

87. The case relating to ‘Constructive desertion’ is

(A) Sunil Kumar v. Swarnalata

(B) Bipin Chandra v. Prabhavati

(D) Jyotish Chandra v. Meera

88. Under Hindu Marriage Act, Hindu includes

(A) Buddhist (B) Sikh

89. Which Section of Hindu Marriage Act define ‘Spinda Relationship’?

(A) Section 2(a) (B) Section 2(b)

90. In which Section of Hindu Marriage Act grounds of Divorce are provided?

(A) Section 11 (B) Section 13

91. Section 3(c) of the Hindu Succession Act defines

(A) Agnate (B) Cognate

92. ‘Divorce by Mutual Consent’~~has-been-- provided in

(A) Section 13(1A) (B) Section 13A

93. The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 contains the minimum period of desertion for filing a suit for judicial separation is

(A) 3 years (B) 5 years

94. A Hindu male of 30 years adopts a female child of 15 years of age. The adoption is

(A) valid (B) voidable

95. Section 23 and 24 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 has been omitted by Amendment Act in

(A) 1999 (B) 2004

96. In which Section of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 ‘bigamy’ is prohibited?

(A) Section 15 (B) Section 17

97. The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 came into force on

(A) 26th January, 1955

(B) 15th August, 1955

(D) 30th January, 1955

98. Dastane v. Dastane is a case on

(A) Adoption (B) Manage

99. Under Muslim Law the right of ‘Shufaa’ is firstly available to

(A) Shafi-i-Jar (B) Shafi-i-Khalil

100. Which one of the following is not a source of Muslim Law?

(A) Quran (B) Sunnat

101. Which one of the following is not the right of a wife on non-payment of Dower?

(A) Refusal to cohabit

(B) Right to dower as debt

(D) Right to increase or decease dower

102. Which one of the following is not a mode of —Talaq?

(A) Refusal of Maintenance

(B) Talaq-ul-Sunnat

(D) Ila

103. In case of Divorce, the period of iddat is

(A) Four months

(B) Three lunar months

(D) None of the above

104. ‘Muta’ form of marriage is recognized in

(A) Hanafi School

(B) Ithna Asharia School

(D) Ismilia School

105. The Rule of ‘Rateable Abatement’ applies in

(A) Wasiyat (B) Hiba

106. Divorce by Mutual Consent in Muslim Law is known as

(A) Lian (B) Faskh

107. Principle of ‘Musha’ is recognized by

(A) Shia Law (B) Hanafi Law

108. Bequest of ‘Life Interest’ in Muslim law is

(A) Valid

(B) Void

,(D) None of the above

109. ‘Doctrine of Cypres’ is related with

(A) Marriage (B) Mehar

110. Hiba of future property in Muslim Law is

(A) Invalid

(B) Valid

(D) None of the above

111. A Sunni Muslim marries a Kitabya girl, the' marriage is

(A) Void (B) Valid

112. Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act came into force in

(A) 1933 (B) 1937

113. Shariat Act, 1937 came into operation on

(A) 7th January, 1937 (B) 7th July, 1937

(Q 7th June, 1937 (D) 7th October, 1937

114. Marriage in Islam is a

(A) Contract

(B) Sacrament

(D) Neither contract nor sacrament

115. Which of the following Is not an essential of a valid Hiba (gift)?

(A) The Declaration (Ijab)

(B) The Acceptance (Qubul)

(D) Writing and Registration

116. Bohara Community follows which School of Muslim law?

(A) Hanafi School (B) Maliki School

117. Under Muslim law, a will may be made of

(A) one fourth of property

(B) one third of property

(D) entire property

118. Dower (Mehar) absolutely belongs to

(A) The wife

(B) Wife's father

(D) Partly to wife and partly to wife's parents

119. Under which one of the following Sections of the Indian Penal Code, the word ‘offence’ has been defined?

(A) Section 39 (B) Section 40

120. Under which Section of Indian Penal Code, the word ‘Extortion’ is defined?

(A) Section 383 (B) Section 387

121. What is the minimum imprisonment prescribed for use of deadly weapons In dacoity under Indian Penal Code?

(A) 10 years (B) 7 years

122. Which Section of Indian Penal Code defines ‘cruelty’?

(A) Section 304-B (B) Section 356

123. Which Section of Indian Penal Code provides for punishment for attempt to commit suicide?

(A) Section 306 (B) Section 307

124. In which Section of Indian Penal Code the words ‘Good faith’ has not been used?

(A) Section 90 (B) Section 89

125. Which Section of Indian Penal Code contains doctrine of transferred malice?

(A) Section 299 (B) Section 300

126. In which case the Supreme Court of India has said that the time has come when Section 309 of the IPC should be deleted by Parliament?

(A) Aruna Ramchandra Shanbaug v. Union of India

(B) Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab

(D) None of the above

127. In which Section of Indian Penal Code “Unlawful Assembly” has been defined?

(A) Section 141 (B) Section 142

128. Under which Section of IPC a hangman who hangs criminals in pursuant to the order of Judge under IPC Is exempted from criminal liability?

(A) Section 76

(B) Section 77

(D) None of the above

129. ‘A’ meets ‘B’ on National Highway, shows him a pistol and demands B’s purse. ‘B’ in consequence surrenders his purse. Which one of the following offences was committed by ‘A’?

(A) Theft (B) Robbery

130. Under IPC punishment for the offence of importing girls from any country outside India or from the State of Jammu and Kashmir is upto 10 years if the age of the girl is under

(A) 14 years (B) 16 years

131. Which Section of the Indian Penal Code with the defence of involuntary intoxication?

(A) Section 84 (B) Section 85

132. The Right of Private Defence of body extends to causing deaths if there is

(A) apprehension of death

(B) apprehension of grievous hurt

(D) All the above

133. Under which Section of the Indian Penal Code, committing theft of a computer from a shop is punishable?

(A) Section 379 (B) Section 380

134. State of A.P. v. R. Punnayya case deals with distinction between which of following Sections of Indian Penal Code?

(A) Section 501 and 502

(B) Sections 299 and 300

(D) Sections 305 and 306

135. In which case the court made a clear distinction between ‘common intention’ and ‘similar intention’?

(A) Barendra Kumar Ghosh v. King Emperor

(B) Mahboob Shah v. King Emperor

(D) Rishi Deo Pandey v. State of U.P.

136. ‘Assault’ under Section 351 of Indian Penal Code can be caused by

(A) gestures only

(B) preparation only

(D) gestures or any preparation

137. Under which Section of Indian Penal Code Right to Private Defence of Property extends' , to causing death?

(A) Section 103 (B) Section 102

138. Under which Section of Indian Penal Code ^dishonest misappropriation of property has been defined?

(A) Section 403 (B) Section 405

139. Which Sections of Indian Penal Code provides for the offences relating to the Army, Navy and Air Force?

(A) Sections 171-A to 171-1

(B) Sections 124 to 129

(D) Sections 165 to 171

140. The expression “unsoundness of .. .nd

(A) is not defined in IPC

(B) is defined in IPC

(D) is not general exception in IPC

141. The offence of ‘abetment’ is constituted by

(A) aiding

(B) conspiring

(D) All the above

142. Which one of the following writers has observed that “Man’s ignorance of law cannot be excused because he is bound to know it”?

(A) Austin

(B) Bailey

(D) None of the above

143. Death penalty cannot be done away with from Indian society. Life imprisonment is a rule and death penalty is an exception. Therefore, the apex court pronounced its judgement that it can be awarded only in “rarest of rare cases”. The name of the case is

(A) Hardayal v. State of U.P.

(B) State of U.P. v. Parasnath

(D) Sri Bhagwan v. State of Rajasthan

144. Under Section 167 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 the maximum period of police custody of an arrested person is

(A) 90 days (B) 60 days

145. Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass a

(A) sentence of imprisonment not exceeding 7 years

(B) sentence for life imprisonment

(D) sentence of imprisonment exceeding 7 years

146. Under which Section of Criminal Procedure Code compensation is paid to groundlessly arrested persons?

(A) Section 357 (B) Section 358

147. The accused has indefeasible right to bail when investigation is not completed within

(A) 15 days (B) 30 days

148. In which case Supreme Court of India directed the High Courts to exercise jurisdiction under Section 482 of Code of Criminal Procedure?

(A) State of Haryana v. Bhajan Lal

(B) Adalat Prasad v. Navin Jindal

(D) Dhananjay Chatterjee v. State of West Bengal

149. In which case Supreme Court held that only a legally wedded wife can claim maintenance under Section 125 of Criminal Procedure Code?

(A) Savitaben Somabhai Bhatia v. State of Gujarat

(B) S.K. Butt v. State of U.P.

(D) Janak Singh v. State of U.P.

150. Which Section of Cr.P.C. deals with case diary?

(A) Section 169 (B) Section 171

151. Which Section of Cr.P.C. provides that no court shall alter the judgement after it has been signed?

(A) Section 360 (B) Section 361

152. Under which Section of Cr. P.C. addition or alteration of charge has been provided?

(A) Section 214 (B) Section 215

153. Under which Section of Cr.P.C. a search warrant is issued?

(A) Section 92 (B) Section 93

154. Section 164 of Cr.P.C. provides about which of the following?

(A) Recording of confession and statement

(B) Examination of witnesses by police

(D) Investigation procedure

155.. In which Section of the Cr.P.C. it is provided that a male child below the age of 15 years cannot be called at police station?

(A) Section 160(1) (B) Section 161(2)

156. Under which Section of Cr.P.C. cognizable offence has been defined?

(A) Section 2(a) (B) Section 2(c)

157. Under which Section of Cr.P.C. investigating officer record the statement of witnesses?

(A) Section 160 (B) Section 162

158. Monthly amount of Maintenance under Section 125 of Cr.P.C. is

(A) Rs. 500 (B) Rs. 1,000

159. Who is authorised to appoint Public Prosecutor for a District?

(A) High Court

(B) State Government

(D) District Magistrate

160. Which court will grant the anticipatory bail under Section 438 of Cr.P.C.?

(A) High Court

(B) Session Court

(D) Judicial Magistrate First Class

161. Which Section of Cr.P.C. authorizes the Public Prosecutor to withdraw the prosecution?

(A) Section 304 (B) Section 313

162. Under which Sections of Cr.P.C. Provision regarding ‘summary trial’ is given?

(A) Sections 360-365

(B) Sections 260-265

(D) Section 180-190

163. Classification of Bailable and Non-bailable offences in Cr.P.C. is provided under

(A) First Schedule of Cr.P.C.

(B) Second Schedule of Cr.P.C.

(D) Section 321 of Cr.P.C.

164. In which Section of the Indian Evidence Act ‘Presumption as to Dowry Death’ is provided?

(A) Section 111-A (B) Section 113-A

165. Which one of the following is not a case on Estoppel?

(A) Palvinder Kaur v. State of Punjab

(B) Pickard v. Seers

(D) Sarat Chand Dev v. Gopal Chand Laha

166. Which Section of the Indian Evidence Act lays down the rule that in certain circumstances admission can be provided by or on behalf of the person making it?

(A) Section 18 (B) Section 19

167. Who can make an admission under Indian Evidence Act?

(A) Witness to a Proceeding

(B) A Party to Proceeding

(D) The Court

168. Under Evidence Act photo of a building is

(A) a primary evidence

(B) a secondary evidence

(D) None of the above

169. Which of the following is the best evidence?

(A) Documentary evidence

(B) Direct evidence

(D) Circumstantial evidence

170. Under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act, a judge is empowered to ask any question relevant or irrelevant to a witness or a party to a suit?

(A) Section 164 (B) Section 165

171. In which of the following cases constitutionality of Section 73 of the Evidence Act was challenged for violation of Article 20(3) of the Constitution?

(A) State of Bombay v. Kathikalu

(B) Rattan Singh v. Himachal Pradesh

(D) None of the above

172. Which one of the following is not a case on ‘Dying Declaration’?

(A) Rattan Gaud v. State of Bihar

(B) Panibenv. State of Gujarat

(D) Kaushal Rao v. State of Maharashtra

173. In which Section of the Indian Evidence Act the words “to form part of the same transition” are provided?

(A) Section 5 (B) Section 6

174. Under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act the words “facts not otherwise relevant, because relevant” are provided?

(A) Section 9 (B) Section 11

175. A, is accused of receiving stolen goods knowing them to be stolen. The above is the illustration of

(A) Section 8 of the Evidence Act

(B) Section 12 of the Evidence Act

(D) Section 13 of the Evidence Act

176. Which one in the following is not an exception to the ‘Rule of hearsay’?

(A) Dying Declaration

(B) Res Gestae

(D) Confession

177. The form of Dying Declaration is

(A) immaterial

(B) material

(D) must be orally spoken only

178. The question is, whether ‘A’ committed a crime at Lucknow on certain day. The fact that, on that day ‘A’ was at Delhi, is a relevant fact under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act?

(A) Section 9

(B) Section 10

(D) Section 12

179. A ‘Dying Declaration' to be admissible under Indian Evidence Act must be made before

(A) Magistrate

(B) Police Officer

(D) Magistrate,, Police Officer, Doctor or Private person

180. Under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act, D.N.A. test can admitted in Evidence?

(A) Section 47 (B) Section 45

181. Which Section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with ‘Hostile witness’?

(A) Section 134 (B) Section 154

182. Which one of the following is provided under Section 133 of the Indian Evidence Act?

(A) Acceptance of an Evidence

(B) Rejection of an Evidence

(D) Evidence of an accomplice

183. Under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act bad character of an accused is not relevant?

(A) Section 54 (B) Section 52

184. Under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act ‘Admission’ is defined?

(A) Section 17 (B) Section 18

185. Which of the following is not a public document under the Indian Evidence Act?

(A) Judgement of the Court

(B) Arrest Warrant

(D) Affidavit

186. Under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act provision relating to “Examination-in- Chief” is provided?

(A) Section 138 (B) Section 137

187. Under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act admissibility of Evidence shall be decided by the Judge?

(A) Section 132 (B) Section 136

188. Which one of the following terms has not been defined by the Indian Evidence Act under Section 3?

(A) Court (B) Document

189. In which Section of the Civil Procedure Code term ‘Mesne Profits’ has been defined?

(A) Section 2(4) (B) Section 2(8)

190. The Provisions of Civil Procedure Code

(A) Specifically apply to Writ Petitions

(B) Do not spiecifically apply to Writ Petitions

(D) Never apply to Writ Petitions

191. Order VII, Rule 10 of Civil Procedure Code provide for

(A) Return of Plaint

(B) Rejection of Plaint

(D) Both (A) and (B) above

192. Objection as to place of suing shall be allowed in the court of first instance, is the essence of

(A) Section 21A (B) Section 20

193. Under which Section of the Code of Civil Procedure “Inherent powers of the Court” has been provided?

(A) Section 151 (B) Section 141

194. Under which Section of the Civil Procedure Code “Pecuniary Jurisdiction” of the Court has been provided?

(A) Section 3 (B) Section 4

195. In which Section of the Civil Procedure Code provision relating to “Suit of a Civil nature” has been provided?

(A) Section 8 (B) Section 9

196. Under which Section of Code of Civil Procedure provisions relating to “Principle of Res Judicata” has been provided?

(A) Section 11 (B) Section 10

197. Under which Order of Civil Procedure Code Provision relating to “Appointment of Receivers” has been provided?

(A) Order XL, Rule 1

(B) Order XXI, Rule 1

(D) Order XX, Rule 1

198. Which of the following properties are liable to attachment and sale in execution of a decree under Section 60 of the Civil Procedure Code?

(A) Bank Notes, Cheques and Bill of Exchange

(B) Cooking vessels, Beds & Wearing apparels

(D) Stipends and Gratuity

199. Under the Code of Civil Procedure “pleadings” means

(A) Plaint only

(B) Written statement only

(D) Plaint and Written Statement

200. Under Section 104 of the Code of Civil Procedure an appeal can be preferred against

(A) an order under Section 91 to refuse permission to institute suit

(B) an order under Section 95 for compensation

(D) All of the above