Previous Year Question Papers · Uttarakhand Judicial Service (Junior) Exam., 2012

Uttarakhand Judicial Service (Junior) Exam., 2012

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Part I

General Knowledge

1. Judicial Review of the 9th Schedule of the Constitution has been made permissible by which of the following case decided by the Supreme Court?

(A) Keshvanand Bharti v. State of Kerala

(B) M. Nagraj v. Union of India

(D) I.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu

2. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution relates to creation of All India Judicial Service in India common to Union and the States?

(A) Article 312 (B) Article 312A

3. Which one of the following Indian political leaders was awarded by the ‘International Jurists Award, 2012’?

(A) Sushma Swaraj

(B) Lain Prasad Yadav

(D) Mulayam Singh Yadav

4. Which one of the following Acts was recently passed by the Parliament?

(A) The Sexual Offences Act

(B) The Domestic Violence Act

(D) The Right to Information Act

5. The action required to carry out the decision of the Security Council for the maintenance of international peace and security shall be taken by which of the following?

(A) All the members of the United Nations or some of them as the Security Council may determine.

(B) All the members of the Security Council.

(D) All of the above

6. Where is the seat (headquarter) of International Court of Justice?

(A) New York (B) The Hague

7. Who wrote “The Limits of Jurisprudence Defined”?

(A) Bentham (B) Allen

8. An empowered committee constituted on Mullaperiyar Dam headed by which of the following?

(A) Justice Arijit Pasayat

(B) Former Chief Justice A.S. Anand

(D) Justice P.K. Bala Subramanyam

9. Tick the correct citation of Nagraj v. Union of India:

(A) AIR 2006 SC 71

(B) AIR 2008 SC 71

(D) None of the above

10. Who is Chairman of Law Commission of India Whose tenure ended on 31st August 2012?

(A) Justice A.R. Lakshman

(B) Justice J.S. Verma

(D) None of the above

11. Supreme Court Rules, 1966 have been framed under which of the following Articles of the Constitution?

(A) Article 146 (B) Article 143

12. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

High Courts

(A) Chattisgarh

(B) Rajasthan

(D) Kerala

Seat

— Bilaspur

— Jaipur

— Cutttak

— Emakulam

13. Which of the following is/are not within the jurisdiction of Right to Information Act?

(1) The Supreme Court of India

(2) Rajiv Gandhi Foundation

(3) President of India

Choose the correct answer:

(A) All of the above

(B) Only(l)

(D) Only (3)

14. Bar Council of India is a statutory body constituted under which of the following?

(A) The Supreme Court Rules, 1966

(B) The Constitution of India

(D) Union Ministry of Law & Justice

15. Amita Paul appointed as President’s Secretary belongs to which of the following cadres?

(A) Indian Administrative Service

(B) Indian Information Service

(D) Indian Foreign Service

16. Which of the following Committee related to revamping of the Motor Vehicles Act?

(A) The Mashelekar Committee

(B) The Naresh Chandra Committee

(D) None of the above

17. Which of the following is “State” within the definition of Article 12 of the Constitution?

(A) National Book Trust

(B) State Council of Educational Research and Training (SCERT)

(D) Institute of Constitutional & Parliamentarian Studies

18. “Judges not only discover law but they also make law.” Who among the following was supporter of this view?

(A) Gray (B) Diecy

19. Which of the following is not principal organ of the United Nations?

(A) The International Court of Justice

(B) The Secretariat

(D) The International Monetary Fund

20. Consider the following and choose the correct answer given below:

(1) Tonga

(2) Vatican City

(3) East Timur

(4) Montenegro

(A) All are Members of the U.N.

(B) Only (1) and (2) are Members of the U.N.

(D) Only (1), (2) and (3) are Members of the U.N.

21. “The Initiative of Five” is associated with which of the following?

(A) NAM (Non-Aligned Movement) ,

(B) BRIC (Brazil, Russia, India and China)'

(D) League of Nations

22. Who among the following has been sentenced by United Nation backed War Crimes Court for war crimes against humanity?

(A) Charles Taylor (B) Fasih Mohemood

23. “Catch up” rule established by the Supreme Court of India relates to which of the following Article of the Constitution?

(A) Article 14 (B) Article 16(4)

24. Which Of the following pair is not correctly matched?

(A) Declaration of Atlantic Charter 1941

(B) Moscow Declaration 1943

(D) Kellog-Briand Pact 1938

25. The short title of' our Constitution is the ‘Constitution of India’. Under which of the following Articles of the Constitution it has been mentioned?

(A) Article 394 (B) Article 394A

26. Name of the first Chief Justice of Supreme Court of India was

(A) Justice H.L.J. Kania

(B) Justice Patanjali Shastri

(D) Justice A.N. Ray

27. The first Constituent Assembly's Meeting held on 9.12.46 was presided over by

(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(B) Shri S.N. Sinha

(D) None of the above

28. ‘Public Interest Litigation’ is filed in

(A) Subordinate Courts

(B) High Courts or Supreme Court

(D) Central Administrative Tribunal

29. “Right to Education” as Fundamental Right was added in the Constitution by which of the following Constitutional Amendment?

(A) 42nd (B) 44th

30. The Reserve Bank of India was established in which of the following years?

(A) 1930 (B) 1934

31. The Supreme Court of India issued directive in July 2012 to protect which of the following wild animal?

(A) Tiger (B) Lion

32. Which one of the following is correct in respect of Justice Saumitra Sen, former Judge of Calcutta High Court?

(A) He was removed through impeachment.

(B) He resigned before impeachment motion started.

(D) He resigned after impeachment motion was withdrawn.

33. The number of Articles and Schedules in original Indian Constitution was

(A) 395 Articles and 8 Schedules

(B) 394 Articles and 9 Schedules

(D) 395 Articles and 7 Schedules

34. The concept of Public Interest Litigation originated in which of the following countries?

(A) Australia (B) USA

35. Which of the following Amendments of the Constitution made in mandatory for the President to accept the advice given by Council of Ministers?

(A) 39th Amendment

(B) 42nd Amendment

(D) 44th Amendment

36. The President of India may be removed from his office on which of the following grounds?

(A) Proved misbehaviour

(B) Incapacity

(D) All of the above

37. In law ‘whistle blower’ means

(A) A person who blows whistle to make a game over.

(B) A person who gives an information about corruption.

(D) None of tire above.

38. In which case it was laid down that the “amendment in the Constitution is exercise of legislative functions of the Parliament”?

(A) Shankari Prasad v. Union of India

(B) Golak Nath v. State of Punjab

(D) Keshvanand Bharti v. State of Kerala

39. Which was the Constitution of India enacted?

(A) 15th August, 1947

(B) 26th January, 1950

(D) 2nd October, 1947

40. Which of the following became the first lady advocate of Indian origin appointed as legal advisor of the Queen of England?

(A) P. Menon

(B) R. Anthony

(D) None of the above

41. Which of the following Article of the Constitution declares the Supreme Court shall be a Court of Record?

(A) Article 127 (B) Article 129

42. The Uttarakhand Police Act was enacted in which of the following year?

(A) 2009 (B) 2008

43. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(A) The Sale of Goods Act 1927

(B) The Arbitration 7 Conciliation Act 1996

(D) The Right to Information Act 2005

44. In which of the following case compensation was first time awarded for violation of Fundamental Rights?

(A) Sunil Batra v. Delhi Administration

(B) Rudal Sah v. State of Bihar '

(D) None of the above

45. By which of the following Constitutional Amendment Clause (4B) was added to Article 16 of the Constitution?

(A) 80th (B) 82nd

46. The President of India shall be elected by

(A) members of electoral college.

(B) the elected member of both Houses of Parliament.

(D) None of the above

47. Where any information sought under the Right to Information Act concerns the life or liberty of a person, the same shall be provided within the receipt of the request

(A) 24 hours (B) 72 hours

48. In which of the following case the Supreme Court held that Article 16(4A) providing for reservation in promotions is a enabling provision?

(A) Keshvanand Bharti v. State of Kerala

(B) M. Nagraj v. Union of India

(D) T.M. Pai Foundation v. State of Karnataka

49. ‘Diarchy’ was established in India by which of the following?

(A) The Indian Council Act, 1909

(B) The Government of India Act, 1935

(D) None of the above

50. Which of the following statements is not correct?

(A) Judgement of a High Court is not binding on other High Courts.

(B) Judgement of a High Court is binding on all courts within its jurisdiction.

(D) Judgement of the Double Bench is binding on Singh Bench.

Part II

Law

51. In which of the following case the Supreme Court held that Section 125 of the CrPC applicable to all irrespective of their religion?

(A) Mohd. Tajuddin v. Qamruddin Begum

(B) Teja Singh v. Chhatto

(D) Mst. Zohra Khattoan v. Mohd. Ibrahim

52. Which one of the following is not a suit of civil nature?

(A) Suits relating to right of worship

(B) Suits relating to partnership

(D) Suits relating to political questions

53. ‘A’ residing in Mumbai publishes statements defamatory against ‘B’ in Delhi. Where can ‘B’ file a suit for compensation against ‘A’?

(A) Only at Delhi

(B) Only at Mumbai

(D) Where 'B' himself resides

54. A plaint can be rejected under

(A) Order VII Rule 10 CPC

(B) Order VII Rule 10A CPC

(D) All of the above

55. Pleadings must be signed

(A) by the party only '

(B) by the pleader only

(D) by the pleader and successor of the pleader

56. Courts of small causes, under Section 3 of CPC is subordinate to which of the following?

(A) High Court only

(B) District Court only

(D) Both (a) and (b)

57. Constructive res-judicata is contained in which of the following?

(A) Explanation III to Section 11

(B) Explanation IV to Section 11

(D) Explanation VIII to Section 11

58. The provision of inter-pleader suit is given in Section

(A) 88 CPC (B) 89 CPC

59. ‘Set-off’ can be claimed

(A) in any suit

(B) in a recovery of money suit

(D) in both (a) and (b)

60. Judgement and decree have been dealt in which of the following order in CPC?

(A) Under Order XX

(B) Under Order XIX

(D) Under Order XXI

61. Notice under Section 80 of CPC, when it relates to Railways, has to be served on which of the following?

(A) Minister of Railways

(B) Secretary of Railway Ministry

(D) Prime Minister of India

62. Where the local limits of jurisdiction of Courts are uncertain, the place of institution of suit shall be decided according to the provisions of

(A) Section 16 of CPC

(B) Section 17 of CPC

(D) Section 19 of CPC

63. Who amongst the following is not “a public officer” within the meaning of Section 2(17) of CPC?

(A) A Judge

(B) Sarpanch of a Gram Panchayat

(D) None of the above

64. In which of the following Sections of the CPC provisions for suits relating to public charities is found?

(A) Sections 90-91

(B) Sections 92-93

(D) Sections 96-100

65. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched under C'P'C ?

(a) Section 2(5) - Foreign Court

(b) Section 2(6) - Foreigq judgement

(d) Section 2(10) - Mesne Profit

66. Section 25 of the CPC provides for which of the following?

(A) Power of the Supreme Court to transfer suits

(B) Power of the High Courts to transfer suits

(D) Power of Commissioner to transfer suits

67. Section 152 of the CPC empowers the Court to amend judgement, decrees, or orders in respect of

(A) Clerical or arithmetical mistakes only

(B) Accidental slips or omissions only

(D) None of the above

68. Which one of the following Orders and Rules under the CPC provide that in every case of the examination-in-chief of a witness shall be on affidavit?

(A) Order 18 Rule 4(1)

(B) Order 18 Rule 3

(D) Order 18 Rule 1

69. Which of the following Sections of the CPC provide grounds for second appeal?

(A) Section 96 (B) Section 100

70. Which one of the following Sections of the CPC provides exemption of certain women from personal appearance in the court?

(A) Section 133 (B) Section 135

71. Which of the following Orders and Rules of the CPC provide for “Framing of issues”

(A) Order XIII Rule 1 (B) Order XIV Rule 1

72. The Civil Procedure Code, 1908 extends to the whole India except

(A) the State of Jammu & Kashmir

(B) the State of Nagaland and Tribal Areas

(D) None of the above

73. A Caveat lodged under Section 148A of CPC will remain in force from the date it was lodged for

(A) 15 days (B) 30 days

74. A decree may be executed under Section 38 of CPC by which of the following Courts?

(A) High Court

(B) District Court

(D) All of the above

75. The Court may at any stage of the proceedings allow either party to alter or amend his pleadings under which of the following of the CPC?

(A) Order VI Rule 14 (B) Order VI Rule 15

76. Which one of the following modes of settlement of disputes outside the Court has been provided in Section 89 of CPC?

(A) Arbitration (B) Conciliation

77. Under Section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act

(A) Motive is relevant

(B) Preparation is relevant

(D) All of the above are relevant

78. In the Indian Evidence Act previous conviction of a person is relevant under which of the following Sections?

(A) Section 14 Explanation 1

(B) Section 14 Explanation II

(D) Section 16

79. Admissions bind the maker in so far as it relates to

(A) facts

(B) question of law

(D) neither (a) nor (b)

80. Facts of which judicial notice has to be taken by the Court are stated under which of following Sections of the Indian Evidence Act?

(A) Section 56 (B) Sections 57

81. Section 105 of Evidence Act is intended to apply to which of the following?

(A) Criminal trials

(B) Civil suit

(D) Neither (A) nor (B)

82. Section 121 of Indian Evidence Act provides for privileges in respect of which of following?

(A) Husband and wife

(B) Judges and Magistrate

(D) Official Communications

83. Section 154 of the Indian Evidence Act deals with which of the following?

(A) Compellable witness

(B) Interested witness

(D) Accomplice

84. The evidence unearthed by the sniffer dog falls under

(A) oral evidence

(B) documentary evidence

(D) scientific evidence

85. By which Amendment, Section 114A was inserted in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?

(A) Criminal Laws (Amendment) Act, 1986

(B) Criminal Laws (Amendment) Act, 1984

(D) None of the above

86. ‘A’ gives ‘B’ a receipt for money paid by ‘B’ to ‘A’. Oral evidence is offered of the payment. What is the status of evidence under Section 91 of the Indian Evidence Act?

(A) It is admissible

(B) It is not admissible

(D) It is secondary evidence

87. Birth during subsistence of marriage is a conclusive proof of legitimacy. This provision is found which following Sections of the Indian Evidence Act?

(A) Section 110 (B) Section 112

88. Section 114 of the Indian Evidence Act provides which of the following?

(A) The Court may ask questions to parties

(B) The Court may stop proceedings.

(D) The Court may call upon extra proof

89. What is the nature of a statement given in NARCO Test?

(A) It is not an evidence.

(B) It is a scientific evidence.

(D) It is a circumstantial evidence.

90. Under which Section of Evidence Act the provision as to who could be a witness may found?

(A) Section 116

(B) Section 118

(D) Section 120

91. Law of Evidence is

(A) lex tallienis

(B) lex loci solutionis

(D) lex situs

92. Which of the following Courts passed the judgement of the leading case of Pakala Narain Swami v. King Emperor?

(A) Bombay High Court

(B) Privy Council

(D) Supreme Court of India

93. Under which of the following Sections of the Indian Evidence Act, opinion as to digital signature has been considered to be relevant?

(A) Section 47A (B) Section 113B

94. Identification of the accused person is related to which of the following Sections of the Indian Evidence Act?

(A) Section 6 (B) Section 9

95. Chapter XXA of IPC is related to which of the following?

(A) Offences relating to marriage

(B) Curelty by husband or relatives of husband

(D) Defamation

96. Pallvinder Kaur v. State of Punjab is related to which of the following?

(A) Leading Question

(B) Secondary Evidence

(D) Admission

97. The case of R.M. Malkani v. State of Maharashtra is related to which of the following?

(A) Relevancy of facts forming part of same transaction

(B) Documentary evidence

(D) Accomplice

98. Which of the following case is not related to estoppel?

(A) Sri Krishna v. Kurukshetra University

(B) Shiv Shyam v. State of U.P.

(D) Union of India v. Mokshi Builders

99. Which one of the following is a continuing offence?

(A) Abduction

(B) Rape

(D) Kidnapping

100. Which of the following case lays down the principles relating to the defence of unsoundness of mind?

(A) Rv. Prince

(B) Me Naghten case

(D) Mahbood Shah v. Emperor

101. In which of the following offences mens rea is not as essential element?

(A) Assault

(B) Bigamy

(D) Criminal conspiracy

102. Section 73 of I.P.C. provides for the maximum limit of solitary confinement to be

(A) one year

(B) two years

(D) six months

103. ‘A’ says— ‘Z’ is an honest man, he never stole ‘B’s watch; intending to cause to be believed that ‘Z’ did steal B’s watch. ‘A’ is liable for

(A) No offence (B) Breach of trust

104. The right to private defence is available to which of the following?

(A) Harm to body

(B) Harm to movable property

(D) All of the above

105. Culpable homicide is not murder, if it is committed under

(A) Grave and sudden provocation

(B) Self intoxication

(D) None of the above

106. ‘A’ is the seventeen years old daughter of ‘B’. ‘C’ without consent of ‘B’ takes ‘A’ for a tour of South India. ‘C’ has committed the offence of

(A) Kidnapping

(B) Abduction

(D) Wrongful restraint

107. ‘A’ introduces water into the ice-house belonging to ‘B’ and thus causes the ice to melt intending wrongful loss to ‘B’. ‘A’ has committed offence of

(A) Extortion (B) Cheating

108. Which of the following is not an offence?

(A) Suicide

(B) Attempt to commit suicide

(D) Attempt to murder

109. Nothing is an offence which is done by a child if he is at the time of commission of the offence

(A) under seven years of age

(B) between seven and twelve years of age

(D) all of the above

110. Which one of the following is not an illustration of grievous hurt?

(A) Emasculation

(B) Dislocation of bone

(D) Hurt which causes the sufferer in severe bodily pain for the period of 15 days

111. Which one of the following case is related to the defence on the ground of intoxication?

(A) A v. Director of Public Prosecution

(B) Director of Public Prosecution v. Beart

(D) Veed Menezes v. Yusuf Khan

112. Which of the following is not correct in respect to the definition of theft?

(A) Removal of movable property of another

(B) Out of ownership of that person

(D) With intent to take away that property

113. Which of the following does not constitute an offence of Affray?

(A) Five or more persons

(B) by fighting

(D) disturb the public peace

114. Which offence is defined in Section 124A of the IRC?

(A) Waging war against the State

(B) Conspiracy to wage such war

(D) Sedition

115. ‘A’ a school teacher with a view to maintain discipline punishes an 11 year old student with simple punishment.

(A) 'A' can take defence under Section 89 of the lPC

(B) 'A' is guilty of simple hurt

(D) A is guilty of using criminal force

116. Section 498A was enacted

(A) to meet the cases of child marriage

(B) to meet the cases of dowry deaths

(D) all the above

117. Which of the following Section of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 provides as to registration of marriage?

(A) Section 13A (B) Section 8

118. Which one of the following Sections of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 provides conditions of marriage?

(A) Section 2 (B) Section 3

119. According to Manu, which of the following are the sources from which knowledge of Hindu Law is to be derived?

(A) Shruti (B) Smriti

120. What is the consequence when the age of a Hindu girl at her time of marriage under Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 is less than 18 years?

(A) The marriage is valid but punishable

(B) The marriage is void

(D) The marriage is illegal

121. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

(A) Cruelty Yamunabai v. Anant Rao (1988)

(B) Descertion Sobha Rani v. Madhukar Reddy (1988)

(D) Divorce on Sarla Mudgal v. Ground of Union of India (1955) Conversion

122. ‘X’ a Hindu aged 28 years marries ‘Y’ aged 25 years according to Hindu rites. It turns out that at the time of marriage ‘Y’ was pregnant by someone other than ‘X’. The marriage between ‘X’ and ‘Y’ is

(A) illegal

(B) void

(D) not a marriage at all under Hindu Marriage Act

123. A marriage between a Hindu boy aged 23 years and a Hindu girl aged 19 years, both of the same gotra, is

(A) voidable (B) void

124. Under which of the following Section of the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956 a Hindu is bound to maintain his or her aged or infirm parents?

(A) Section 19 (B) Section 20

125. Which one of the following Sections of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956 defines “dependants”?

(A) Section 24 (B) Section 23

126. Which one of the following Acts has fixed the minimum age of marriage of boys and girls?

(A) The Child Marriage Restraint Act

(B) The Hindu Marriage Act

(D) All of the above

127. Which one of the following Sections of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 provides that every proceeding under the Act shall be conducted in camera?

(A) Section 21C (B) Section 23

128. Who is not a guardian according to Section 4 of the Hindu Minority and Guardian Act?

(A) Natural Guardian

(B) Testamentary Guardian

(D) A person empowered to act as guardian under any enactment relating to any court of ward

129. Adultery by a Hindu husband is

(A) ground of divorce only

(B) not a ground of divorce only

(D) ground of divorce and judicial separation both

130. Which one of the following Section of Hindu marriage Act relates to divorce?

(A) Section 10 (B) Section 12

131. A married woman can adopt a child

(A) with the consent of her husband

(B) without the consent of her husband

(D) none of the above

132. A petition to restitution of conjugal rights may be filed by the aggrieved party to the

(A) High Court only

(B) Family Court only

(D) Family and District Court both

133. A girl or boy of 15 years of age may validly be taken into adoption

(A) by operation of law

(B) by contract between the parties

(D) if the custom or usage applicable to the parties or permit

134. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

(A) Real Brother and "Class 1" heir Sister

(B) Father's widow "Class I" heir

(D) Father "Class II" heir

135. Which Section of Hindu Marriage Act provides for divorce by mutual consent?

(A) Section 13 (B) Section 13B

136. Which Section of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 provides for maintenance pendent elite and expenses of proceedings?

(A) Section 24 (B) Section 25

137. Who has observed “Muslim Marriage is both a civil contract and a religious sacrament”?

(A) AmirAli

(B) Dr. Jang

(D) Justice Mahmood

138. Which one of the following is correct in respect of marrying a fifth wife while the four wives are alive?

(A) Void under Shia Law

(B) Void in Shia and Sunni Law both

(D) Valid in Sunni Law

139. What is the effect of a Muslim marriage where the age of the bride is below the age of puberty but consent was given by the guardian?

(A) The marriage is voidable

(B) The marriage is void

(D) The marriage is unlawful

140. Which one of the following is not a secondary source of Muslim Law?

(A) Custom

(B) Judicial decisions

(D) Justice, Equity and Good Conscience

141. Mutta marriage is allowed in which one of the following Schools of Muslim Law?

(A) Hanafi (B) Ithna Ashari

142. A prompt dower is payable

(A) at the time of marriage itself

(B) on a fixed date .

(D) partly at the time of marriage and partly at a fixed date

143. Which of the following is a requisite for a valid marriage under Muslim Law?

(A) Consanguinity

(B) Affinity

(D) Fosterage.

144. Which one of the following is not a ground of divorce under the Special Marriage Act?

(A) Conversion

(B) Curelty

(D) Desertion

145. Muslim jurisprudence is known as

(A) Fiqah

(B) Qiyas

(D) Hadith

146. After divorce a Muslim woman can re-marry

(A) immediately after divorce

(B) has to wait till the period of iddat is over

(D) none of the above

147. Under Muslim Law, which one of the following is entitled for maintenance?

(A) A girl who lives separate from her father

(B) Son's widow from her father-in-law

(D) A validly married Muslim girl who has attained puberty

148. Which one of the following is not a ground for determining a Meher-e-MisI?

(A) Age of a lady

(B) Charming beauty

(D) Before marriage, lady was a beloved girl friend

149. Who cannot be appointed as “Mutawalli” of a wakf?

(A) Waqif

(B) Waqif's son

(D) A non-Muslim where religious acts are to be performed

150. Which one of the following conditions is not essential for a valid gift (Hiba) under Muslim Law?

(A) Registration

(B) Acceptance

(D) Declaration

151. A “dower debt” is

(A) a secured debt

(B) an actionable claim

(D) a mere right to sue

152. Govind Dayal v. Inayatullah (1885) — All 775 (FB) is a leading case on which of the following?

(A) Wakf (B) Pre-emption

153. Under Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939 the option of puberty is available to

(A) the husband only

(B) the wife only

(D) both the husband and wife with prior approval of the guardian

154. Where the wife is not pregnant, the period of iddat in case of death of husband is

(A) three months

(B) three months and ten days

(D) there is no iddat period in such cases

155. A marriage with a woman undergoing iddat is

(A), illegal

(B) irregular

(D) voidable

156. Under Muslim Law insanity is a ground for

(A) getting the marriage as voidable

(B) judicial separation

(D) all of the above

157 ‘A’ sells a house to ‘B’ directing ‘B’ that he cannot reside in it but can use it only as a godown or shop.

(A) valid (B) void

158. Which one of the following Sections defines “transfer of property”?

(A) Section2 (B) Sections

159. Where a decree provides for a future decree, it is not actionable claim. It was decided in which of the following case?

(A) Govindarajulu v. Ranga Rao

(B) Jugulkishore Saraf v. Raw Cotton Co. Ltd.

(D) None of.the above

160. Which one of the following is not related to Transfer of Property Act?

(A) Gift

(B) Exchange of money

(D) Lease of immovable property

161. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(A) Contingent interest Section 21

(B) Direction for Section 17 accumulation

(D) Priority of rights Section 48 created by transfer

162. Generally, a lease of immovable property for agricultural purposes shall be a lease from

(A) year to year

(B) month to month

(D) None of the above

163. Which of the following Section/Sections deals/ deal with accession to mortgaged property?

(A) Section 63

(B) Section 70

(D) Section 63A

164. A gift comprising both existing and future property is

(A) valid

(B) void

(D) valid for existing property and void for future property

165. Doctrine of holding out shall not be applied

(A) during Lis Pendens

(B) without consideration

(D) all of the above

166. A lease can be made

(A) for a certain period only

(B) for perpetuity only

(D) (A) and (B) both

167. Which of the following gift is not governed by Transfer of Property Act?

(A) Onerous gift

(B) Mortis causa gift

(D) Gift to disqualified person

168. How many exceptions are mentioned under Section 6 of Transfer of Property Act?

(A) 11 (B) 9

169. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(A) Immovable property Section 70

(B) Charges Section 100

(D) Morgaged Debt Section 134

170. Under which of the following Sections of Transfer of Property Act provisions regarding English mortgage is found?

(A) Section 58(b) (B) Section 58(c)

171. Which of the following is a case involving Section 41 of Transfer of Property Act?

(A) Suraj-Ratan Thirani v. Azamabad Tea Co.

(B) Belamy v. Sabine

(D) Tulkv. Moxay

172. Which of the following case decided by the Privy Council relates to ‘fraudulent transfer’?

(A) Musahar Sahu v. Hakim Lal

(B) Middleton v. Pollock

(D) All of the above

173. Which one of the following case is the latest case on Section 6(a) of TP Act?

(A) Gulam Abbas v. KayyumAli

(B) Sheshammal v. Hassan Khan

(D) Kochuni v. Kunju Pillai

174. Which one of the following is correct In respect of a gift under Transfer of Property Act?

(A) There cannot be a gift of moveable property.

(B) Only immovable property can be given in gift.

(D) If the donee dies before acceptance, the gift is void.

175. Where possession of mortgaged property is not delivered to the mortgagee, it is called

(A) Simple mortgage

(B) Usufructuary mortgage

(D) Mortgage by conditional sale

176. Which of the following Sections of the Transfer of Property Act provides for subrogation?

(A) Section 90 (B) Section 92

177. Under which Section of the Criminal Procedure Code, the term “Offence” has been defined?

(A) Section 40 (B) Section 2(n)

178. First Information Report is not a substantive evidence, it can be during trial for the following:

(A) Only to corroborate the evidence of the informant

(B) Only to contradict the evidence of the informant

(D) For neither (a) nor (b)

179. A proclaimed person whose property has been attached can claim the property or the sale proceeds on appearance within

(A) 6 months of attachment

(B) 2 years of attachment

(D) 1 year of attachment

180. A declaration of forfeiture under Section 95 of CrPC can be set aside by

(A) Magistrate issuing search warrant

(B) Chief Judicial Magistrate

(D) the High Court

181. Point out most accurate response: Under Section 125(4) of CrPC, who among the following cannot claim maintenance?

(A) Only a wife living in adultery.

(B) Only a wife living separately by mutual consent.

(D) Neither (A) nor (B) is correct

182. Jurisdiction to grant anticipatory bail under Section 438 CrPC vests with

(A) the Court of Magistrate

(B) only the Court of Session

(D) both the Court of Session and the High Court

183. Under Section 313 of the CrPC, the statement of the accused has to be taken by the Court

(A) on Oath

(B) not on Oath

(D) either on Oath or without Oath as per discretion depending, on whether the case is summons trial or warrant trial

184. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?

(A) Reference to Section395 High Court

(B) High Court's Section 401 power or revision

(D) Appeals from Section 374 conviction

185. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(A) Conditional order for removal of nuisance Section 133

(B) Security for keeping the peace on conviction Section 106

(D) Power to issue order in urgent cases of nuisance Section 144

186. The provision relating to health and safety of arrested person have been prescribed under which of the following Sections of the CrPC, 1973?

(A) Section 50A

(B) Section 53A

(D) Section 60A

187. Under Section 167 of the CrPC the Magistrate can authorize detention for a total period of 90 days during investigation in cases of offences punishable

(A) with death

(B) with imprisonment for life

(D) all the above

188. Section 197 of CrPC provides protection from prosecution to which of the following?

(A) Private individuals

(B) Employees of Public Sector Undertaking

(D) None of the above

189. Under Section 439 of CrPC jurisdiction to cancel the bail vests with

(A) the Court of Session

(B) the High Court

(D) only (A) and (B) of the above

190. Minimum number of judge(s) of High Court are required to sing a confirmation of sentence of death

(A) one (B) two

191. Section 25 of the CrPC makes provision for the appointment of

(A) Public Prosecutor

(B) Assistant Public Prosecutor

(D) Government representative

192. What does the expression “transit remand” denote?

(A) It is a transfer of prisoner from one Jail to another

(B) It is a transfer of criminal case from One Court to another

(D) It is taking out of the accused from Court to Prison.

193. An Executive Magistrate can order to execute a bond as security for good behaviour from suspected person for a period not exceeding

(A) one year

(B) six months

(D) one month

194. Which one of the following offences a Chief Judicial Magistrate cannot try in a summary way?

(A) Theft, where the value of property does not exceed two thousand rupees.

(B) Theft, where the value of the property stolen exceeds three thousand rupees.

(D) Offences under Sections 454 and 456 of the Indian Penal Code.

195. No member of the Armed Forces of the Union shall be arrested for anything done in the discharge of his official duties except after attaining the consent of

(A) the Defence Minister

(B) the Finance Minister

(D) the Central Government

196. Under which Section of the CrPC a Magistrate has the power to enquire into the cause of death?

(A) Section 176

(B) Section 179

(D) Section 76

197. “Delay in examining witnesses by investing officer does not ipso facto make prosecution version suspect. Investigating officer should be categorically questioned in aspect of delayed examination.” was held in which of the following cases?

(A) State of U.P. v. Satish

(B) Megha Singh v. State of Haryana

(D) Balakrishna v. State of Orissa

198. Which of the following is not an essential element of First Information Report?

(A) It is an information given to the police officer.

(B) Information must relate to a cognizable offence.

(D) Information may relate to any offence whether cognizable or non-cognizable.

199. In which of the following Sections of the CrPC the term “investigation” has been defined?

(A) Section 2(h)

(B) Section 2(g)

(D) None of the above

200. “When the confession of the accused person is not recorded in the manner provided in Section 164 of the CrPC oral evidence of the Magistrate is not admissible to prove that the confession was So made” was held in

(A) State of U.P. v. Singhara Singh

(B) State of Rajasthan v. Rahman

(D) Dhanajay Reddy v. State of Karnataka