Previous Year Question Papers · U.P. Judicial Service (jr. Division) (Pre) Exam., 2012

U.P. Judicial Service (jr. Division) (Pre) Exam., 2012

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GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

1. National Counter Terrorism Centre (NCTC) proposal has been accused of arming an Intelligence Agency with

(A) Police Powers

(B) Intelligence gathering power

(D) Power of preparing threat perceptions

2. Which is the first country to withdraw itself from “Kyoto Protocol Treaty” in December, 2011?

(A) Russia (B) India

3. ‘Growth with Justice’ was major objective of which of the following Five Year Plans of India?

(A) 1st Five Year Plan

(B) 5th Five Year Plan

(D) 11th Five Year Plan

4. As per figures of Census 2011, the sex-ratio of children in the age-group of 0-6 years in India is

(A) 912 (B) 913

5. ‘Sarva Siksha Abhiyan’ covers

(A) All children in age group 3-10

(B) All children in age group 4-8

(D) All children in age group 6-14

6. Which of the following is not considered a money market instrument?

(A) Treasury Bills

(B) Commercial Paper

(D) Repurchase Agreement

7. Which is the only State in India to have the Common Civil Code?

(A) Jammu and Kashmir

(B) Goa

(D) Nagaland

8. The 1st ‘Magnet Bomb Terror’ attack in India happened in

(A) Mumbai (B) Ajmer

9. Which of the following tribes were in news for ‘Human Safar is’? Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. Munda . 2. Bonda

3. Jarwa 4. Raji

Code:

(A) 1 and 4 (B) 3 and 4

10. The Policy of Special Economic Zone (SEZ) in India was implemented with effect from

(A) November 1998 (B) December 1999

11. The Commonwealth Association for Public Administration and Management (CAPAM) was formed in 1994 and hold its Conference biennially. Which is the venue for its Conference in 2012?

(A) Ottawa (B) New Delhi

12. With which following neighbouring country India shares the longest boundary?

(A) Bangladesh (B) Pakistan

13. On the 125th Birth Anniversary of Srinivasan Ramanujam, which year has been declared as ‘National Mathematics Year’ by the Government of India?

(A) 2010 (B) 2011

14. What are “teaswer loans” extended by Banks?

(A) Loans where fixed rate of interest is charged by Banks

(B) Loans where floating rate of interest is charged by Banks

(D) Loans wherein rate of interest in the initial stages is more and it goes down subsequently

15. What are Indra I and Indra II?

(A) Missiles of Indian Army

(B) Radars of Indian Army

(D) Boats of Indian Navy

16. As per the ‘Educational Development Index’ (February 2011) the four top most States of India are:

(A) Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Punjab, Delhi

(B) Kerala, Delhi, Haryana, Punjab

(D) Kerala, Tamil Nadu, West Bengal, Karnataka

17. ‘Pink Revolution’is related to

(A) Cotton (B) Onion

18. “Brent Crude Oil” is frequently in the news in the context of global oil prices. What does this term imply?

(1) It is a major classification of crude oil.

(2) It is sourced from North Sea.

(3) It does not contain sulphur.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(A) Only 2

(B) Only (1) and (2)

(D) All the three

19. Which one of the following States is not included among Seven Sisters of India?

(A) Meghalay

(B) Arunachal Pradesh

(D) Sikkim

20. Among the following who are eligible to benefit from NNREGA?

(A) Adult members of any household

(B) Adult members of only the Scheduled Caste/Scheduled Tribes household

(D) Adult members of household of al backward communities

21. At which one of the following cities, Lalit Kala Academy does not have its regional centre?

(A) Cuttak (B) Kolkata

22. The First Session of All India Trade Union Congress was held in 1920. Who presided over this Session?

(A) S.A. Dange

(B) Lala Lajpat Rai

(D) V.P. Wadia

23. Which river is known as ‘Padma’ in Bangladesh?

(A) Brahmputra (B) Ganga

24. The Silicon Valley is located in

(A) Scotland (B) California

25. The largest Uranium reserve has been found in

(A) Canada (B) Australia

26. “El Nino” associated with the formation of the South-West Monsoon of India is

(A) a periodic warm air mass

(B) an abnormally warm ocean current

(D) a periodic low pressure centre

27. Which of the following statements regarding red soils of India is/are correct?

(1) The colour of the soil is red due to ferric oxide

(2) Red soils are rich in lime, humus and potash

(3) They are porous and have friable structure.

Find your answer from the given code:

(A) (l only)

(B) ('2) and (3) only

(D) All the three

28. Delhi-Lahore Bus-Service is known as

(A) Sada-a' Aman

(B) Sada-a-Sarhad

(D) Sadbhawna Express

29. The International Women Day is celebrated on

(A) 8th March (B) 10th March

30. The Centre for Cultural Resources and Training set up by Government of India with headquarters at New Delhi does not have a regional centre at

(A) Guwahati (B) Bhopal

31. Of which country the ‘Associated Press’ is the main agency?

(A) England (B) France

32. ‘Mossad’ is the Intelligence Organisation of which country?

(A) Egypt (B) Iran

33. Which one of the following sites is not in the World Heritage List of UNESCO

(A) Champaner-Pavgarh Archaeological Park '

(B) Chhatrapati Shivaji Railway Terminus

(D) Valley of Flowers

34. Arrange the following countries in descending order as regards destination of labour outflows from India as per figures of 2010:

(1) Kuwait (2) Oman

(3) UAE (4) Saudi Arabia

Select your answer from given code:

Code:

(A) 4,3,1,2 (B) 4, 2,1,3

35. Who invented the world-wide-web (www)?

(A) Steve Jobs

(B) Bill Gates

(D) Tim Berner Lee

36. SIMBEX is an annual joint maritime bilateral exercise conducted between

(A) India and Singapore

(B) India and China

(D) India and Thailand

37. Indian Railways earn maximum revenue from

(A) Passenger fares

(B) Freight

(D) Fines from ticketless travellers

38. Monetary Policy in India is formulated and implemented by

(A) Government of India

(B) Reserve Bank of India

(D) FICCI

39. Small Scale Industries are suited to Indian economic environment, because

(A) they lead to decentralization of economic activities

(B) they make use of local resources

(D) All the above

40. Compilation of National Income is done by

(A) Finance Commission

(B) Planning Commission

(D) Central Statistical Organisation

41. Reserve Bank of India follows which system for the issue of currency?

(A) Minimum Reserve System

(B) Proportionate Reserve System

(D) None of the above

42. Which reason among the following explains the low growth rate of real National Income as compared to Monetary National Income?

(A) Population is increasing

(B) Inequalities are growing

(D) Export are lesser than imports

43. By December 31, 2010, which among the following countries had the largest Foreign Exchange Reserve?

(A) France (B) Germany

44. The SEBI imposed a restriction on the money flow in the equity through “P-Notes”. What is the full form of “P-Notes”?

(A) Permanent Notes

(B) Purchase Notes

(D) Participatory Notes

45. Which sector contributes the highest share in Gross Domestic Savings in India?

(A) Household Sector

(B) Public Sector

(D) Private Corporate Sector

46. The rationale of Public Distribution System (PDS) is

(A) to control prices

(B) to reduce fluctuation in prices

(D) All of the above

47. Which of the following controls credit creation by the Commercial Banks in India?

(A) Ministry of Finance

(B) Reserve Bank of India

(D) State Bank of India

48. The Government of India earns maximum revenue from

(A) Income-tax

(B) Union Excise Duty

(D) Corporation Tax

49. Which among the following is not included in the development expenditure of Central Government?

(A) Defence Expenditure

(B) Expenditure on Economic Services

(D) Grants to States

50. Which among the following States has the maximum production of coffee in India?

(A) Maharashtra (B) Karnataka

51. Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojna aims at

(A) Meeting rural needs like education, health, housing, roads, water etc.

(B) Alleviating poverty through micro-enterprises

(D) Strengthening the Panchayat Raj System to rural areas

52. Recently foundation stone of a new Rail Coach Factory has been laid at

(A) Saharsa (B) Amritsar

53. Which one of the following is the objective of National Food Security Mission?

(A) To increase production of rice

(B) To increase production of wheat

(D) All the above

54. Which of the Indian Five Year Plans ensured higher growth rate as compared with the targeted growth rate?

(A) 2nd Five Year Plan

(B) 4th Five Year Plan

(D) 5th Five Year Plan

55. The present Trade Policy (2009-14) of the Government of India aims to achievement annual export growth rate of

(A) 14 percent (B) 15 percent

56. The correct sequence in descending order of leading producers of Petroleum in the Middle East is:

(A) Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia

(B) Saudi Arabia, Iran, Iraq, Kuwait

(D) Saudi Arabia, Iran, Kuwait, Iraq

57. In December 2011, the meeting of Commerce Ministers of World Trade Organisation was held in:

(A) Geneva (B) London

58. Garuda 2010 is a military exercise involving the air forces of

(A) India and Russia

(B) India and USA

(D) India and France

59. These days American Army is testing ‘Pilotless Helicopter’ for to & for transportation of military goods in Afghanistan. Which is this very important Helicopter?

(A) K. Max Helicopter

(B) Laser Helicopter

(D) Rotor Helicopter

60. ‘Kalinga Award’ is given by UNESCO for contribution in the field of:

(A) Literature (B) Sports

61. In December 2011 Annual Defence Dialouge was held between India and

(A) Bangladesh (B) China

62. Which of the following countries emerged in 2011 as top donors to Indian N.G.Os?

(A) Luxembourg and Holland

(B) Brazil and USA

(D) UK and USA

63. Sri Lanka a Moll with India for rebuilding a port which was heavily attacked by LTTE. Which one of the following was not the main point of this Moll?

(A) The port is situated near Colombo

(B) The port to be rebuilt is Kankesanthuruai

(D) It will give fillip to economic activities in the northern part of Sri Lanka

64. The winner of Australian Open 2012 (Men’s Singles) was

(A) Andi Murray

(B) Novak Djokovic

(D) Roger Federer

65. In which city Iran has recently started its 1st Atomic Power Plant with some help from Russia?

(A) Bushehr (B) Shiraj

66. FIFA Men’s World players of the Year Award was given in January 2012 to

(A) Christiano Ronaldo

(B) Lionel Messi-

(D) Wayne Rooney

67. Which of the following Commissions Companies of Indian origin signed a pact for obtaining oil-blocks in Libya?

(A) Reliance Petroleum

(B) Oil India Ltd.

(D) BPCL

68. ISRO stands for

(A) Indian Steel Research Organisation

(B) International Ship Research Organisation

(D) None of the above

69. Regarding ‘Carbon Credits’ which one of the following is not correct?

(A) Carbon Credit system was ratified in conjunction with the Kyoto Protocol

(B) Carbon Credits are awarded to countries or groups that have reduced greenhouse gases below their’ emission quota

(D) The goal of carbon credit system is to limit the increase of carbon dioxide emission

70. Match the Science and Technology Centres with their locations:

.A. Indo-Russian Research Centre in Advanced Corriputing 1. New Delhi

B. Internatinal Advanced Centre . for Powder Metallurgy 2. Moscow.

C. Indo-Uzbek Centre for Medical Applications of low level Laswers 3. Hyderabad Select your answer from given code:

Codes:

A B C

(A) 1 2 3

(B) 2 3 1

(D) 3 1 2

71. World Consumer Rights Day is observed on

(A) April 15 (B) March 15

72. Australia 1st Woman Prime Minister Julia Gillard belongs to

(A) Liberal Party of Australia

(B) National Party of Australia

(D) Australian Greens

73. Who amongst the following has won the prestigious ‘Man Booker International Award’ for the year 2011 ?

(A) Alice Munro (B) Chinua Achele

74. Match the following autonomous Scientific Research Institutions with their locations

(a) Agarkar Research Institute 1. Mumbai

(b) Indian Association for Cultivation of Sciences 2. Pune

(d) Indian Institute of Geomagnetism 4. Kolkata

Select your answer from given code:

Code:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 2 4 1 3

(B) 1 2 3 4

(D) 4 3 2 1

75. In the context of Nuclear Waste Management, match the facilities with the centres:

(a) Vitrification Technology Centre 1. Tarapur

(b) Immobilisation of Wate in Cement Matrix Centre 2. Trombay

Choose your answer from given code:

(a) (b) (c)

(A) 2 3 1

(B) 2 1 3

(D) 3 2 1

76. Amnesty International is a world wide organisation dealing with

(A) War Crimes

(B) International Disputes

(D) None of the above

77. According to the Survey conducted by Economic Intelligence Unit, the world’s most expensive city is

(A) Geneva (B) Osaka

78. The 1st Permanent Research Station established in South Polar Region (Antarctica) by India is

(A) Maitri

(B) Dakshin.Gangotri

(D) Bharti

79. Which one of the following countries is not a member of ASEAN?

(A) Myanmar (B) India

80. Palestine was accepted as a full-fledged member of UNESCO in the year

(A) 2007 (B) 2009

81. Which Indian born Astrophycist got Nobel Prize in 1983 on his birthday?

(A) C.V. Raman

(B) P.K. Ayengar

(D) Harsh K. Gupta

82. The Indian Deep Space Antenna System for Moon Mission Chandrayaan-I has been installed at

(A) Gauribadanur

(B) Satlana,

(D) Byalalu

83. Consider the following statements about sub-sonic cruise missile NIRBHAYA proposed to be included in the Indian Forces and state which one is not correct.

(A) The maximum speed of NIRBHAYA is 0.65 Mach

(B) It is being developed by DRDO of India with the assistance of Russia

(D) It is capable of flying at the height of a tree and is known as "tree top missile"

84. The ozone layer restricts

(A) Visible light

(B) Infra-red radiation

(D) Ultraviolet radiation

85. DNA Finger Printing Centre in India is located at

(A) New Delhi (B) Bangaluru

86. Pendulum Clocks go slow during summer because

(A) days in summer are longer

(B) friction in the coil

(D) weight of the pendulum changes

87. The 1st Computer University of India is

(A) Jawarlal Nehru Computer University

(B) Indira Gandhi Computer University .

(D) Rajiv Gandhi Computer University

88. ‘PERT’ is a technique used for which one of the following?

(A) Electric Power Transmission

(B) Project Management

(D) Internet

89. “Alma” is the world’s biggest telescope and it one of the greatest achievements of 21st Century. It is expected to give surprise to the scientific world by probing deep mysteries of the space. It is installed in

(A) Chile (B) Japan

/\C) Yugoslavia (D) South Africa

90. Of the two bulbs in a house one glows brighter than the other. Which of the two has a larger resistance?

(A) Bright bulb

(B) Dim bulb

(D) The brightness does not depend on resistance

91. An artificial satellite orbiting around the earth does not fall down. This is so because the attraction of the Earth

(A) does not exist at such a distance

(B) is neutralized by the attraction of Moon

(D) provides the necessary acceleration for its motion

92. Chemical used to preserve food material is

(A) Caustic Soda

(B) Sodium Benzoate

(D) Sodium bi-carbonate

93. Which one of the following is not biodegradable?

(A) Woollen mat

(B) Silver foil

(D) Jute basket

94. Name the world famous space scientist who despite being paralysed for nearly three decades took a zero-gravity flight in 2007

(A) Stephen Hawking

(B) Jerry Shay

(D) Mohamed Elbaradel..

95. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List I List II

(a) 'Mammography 1. Rectum

(b) Angiography 2. Uterus

(d) Ultrasonography 4. Blood Vessels

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 3 2 1 4 .

(B) 4. 3 2 1

(D) 2 1 4 3

96. Depletion of ozone layer in stratosphere enhances the risk of

(A) Global warming

(B) Acid rain

(D) Brain damage

97. Which bio-metric indices are used in making AADHAR card of a person?

(A) Face and finger-prints

(B) Eye & ear

(D) Face and pupil

98. Which gas is used as a coolant in cold storages?

(A) Nitrogen .

(B) Carbon dioxide

(D) Chlorofluorocarbon

99. The 1st Satellite of India sent into space was

(A) Aryabhatta (B) Rohini

100. The remote control of a television uses

(A) Infra-redrays

(B) Ultra-violet rays

(D) None of these

101. Haripura Session (1938) of Indian National Congress was presided over by

(A) Subhash Chandra Bose

(B) Sarat Chandra Bose

(D) Rajendra Prasad

102. In which of the following Sessions of Muslim League, had M.A. Jinnah established Two Nations Theory?

(A) Amritsar Session, 1919

(B) Allahabad Session, 1930

(D) Lahore Session, 1940

103. Who amongst the following was not a member of the Royal Commission on the Public Services in India, 1912?

(A) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

(B) Gopal Krishna Gokhale

(D) Abdur Rahim

104. The Santhal Rebellion of 1855-56 resulted in the creation of Santhal Pargana for the Tribes as a separate geographical entity. Who were the leaders associated with the rebellion?

(A) Sidhu and Chakara

(B) Sidhu and Kanu

(D) Dora and Chakara

105. Which region of India was ruled by Sultan Zainul Abidin?

(A) Kashmir (B) Assam

106. Lala Lajpat Rai was fatally injured during a demonstration against

(A) Rowlact Act

(B) Jalhanwala Bagh Massacre

(D) Simon Commission

107. Which Viceroy of India was murdered by a convict Andaman Nicobar Islands while he was on tour?

(A) Lord Ripppn (B) Lord Curzon

108. Who among the following were prominent women revolutionaries during India’s Freedom Movement?

1. Shanti Ghosh

2. Sunita Chaudhary

3. Bina Das

4. Kalpana Dutt (Joshi)

(A) l and 4 (B) 2 and 3

109. The biggest board of Gupta Gold Coins was found from

(A) Basti (B) Harayana

110. Who among the following European Travellers visited India during the reign of Jahangir and left valuable account of his reign?

1. William Hawkins

2. William Finch

3. Francisco Palsaert

Indicate your answer from the code given below:.

(A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2

111. The 1st exclusively Hindi language newspaper ‘Udant Martand’ was published from Kanpur in 1826. Is editor was

(A) Pandit Sadal Misra

(B) Pandit Jugal Kishore Shukla

(D) Mahavir Prasad Dwivedi

112. Who encouraged the practice of ladies accompanying their husbands to the battlefield?

(A) Madho Rao (B) Raghunath Rao

113. The 1st newspaper published from India was

(A) The Bengal Gazette

(B) The Calcutta Gazette

(D) The India Gazette

114. Who amongst the following made the greatest contribution to improve the condition of windows and promote female education in Maharashtra?

(A) Jyotiba Phule

(B) D.K. Karve

(D) Behramji Malabari

115. What was the reason for Mahatma Gandhi to organize a Satyagraha on behalf of peasants of Kheda?

(1) The administration did not suspend the Land Revenue collection in spite of a drought

(2) The administration proposed to introduce permanent settlement in Gujarat.

Which of the above statement is/are correct? Choose your answer with the help of given code:

Code:

(A) (1)only

(B) (2) only

(D) None of these statements

116. Which One of the following socio-religious movements raised the slogan “India is for Indians”?

(A) Arya Samaj

(B) Brahmo Samaj

(D) Satya Shodhak Samaj

117. When was the ‘Sangeet Natak Academy’ established in independent India?

(A) 1950 (B) 1951

118. Who among the following was the 1st India to clear the Indian Civil Services (ICS) examination?

(A) Rabindra Nath Tagore

(B) Subhash Chandra Bose

(D) Satyendra Nath Tagore

119. With reference to the Indian Freedom struggle, which of the following was/were recommended by the Nehru Report 1928?

(1) Dominion status for India in the first stage

(2) Reservation of seats for minorities

(3) Provision for Fundamental Rights for the people of India in the Constitution. Select your answer from given code:

Code:

(A) Only (1) (B) (2) and (3) only

120. Ishwar Chandra Vidhyasagar was closely associated with which of the following women reforms?

(A) Sati Pratha

(B) Female Education

(D) Infanticide

121. The Asteroid Belt is found between which of the following?

(A) Earth and Mars

(B) Jupiter and Saturn

(D) Saturn and Uranus

122. Which one of the following is the largest satellite in Solar System?

(A) Ganymede (B) Titan

123. Match List I and II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List I List II

(Industry) (Places)

(a) Paper 1. Ambala Mukul

(b) Cement 2. Bhilai

(d) Minral Oil Refinery 4. Lakheri

Code:

(a)(b)(c)(d)

(A) 2 4 3 1

(B) 3 4 2 1

(D) 2 3 1 4

124. Which one of the following statements is not correct about Indian Ocean?

(A) It covers 20% of water of earth surface

(B) It touches three Continents

(D) It is delineated by 20° Meridian to Atlantic Ocean

125. The World’s highest “Rail Bridge” under construction in the State of Jammu & Kashmir will be on which of the following rivers?

(A) Chenab (B) Jhelum

126. The largest producer of Silver in India is

(A) Karnataka

(B) Andhra Pradesh

(D) Bihar

127. Which one of the following-rivers does not originate in India?

(A) Sutlej (B) Ravi

128. “Dhupgarh” is the highest peak of

(A) Vindhyan Range

(B) Satpura Range

(D) Sahyadris

129. Which one of the following is not imported in India?

(A) Cotton (B) Iron Ore

130. Which of the following crops is not of Indian origin?

(A) Sugarcane (B) Maize

131. Which one of the following is not a Parliamentary Committee?

(A) Committee on Public Accounts

(B) Committee on Public Undertakings

(D) Demand for Grants Committee

132. What is the correct chronological order in which the following States of the Indian Union were created or granted full statehood?

1. Andhra Pradesh 2. Nagaland

3. Maharashtra 4. Haryana

Find your answer from given code:

Code:

(A) 1,3, 2,4 (B) 1,3, 4, 2

133. Members of State Election Commission are appointed by

(A) President of India

(B) Home Minister of India

(D) Governor of the State

134. Who can legislate on the subjects which are not included in any lists of subjects given in the Indian Constitution?

(A) Supreme Court

(B) Union Parliament

(D) Regional Councils

135: Which one of the following legislation has to be passed by both Houses of Parliament separately with special majority?

(A) Ordinary Bill

(B) Money Bill

(D) Constitutional Amendment Bill

136. Which part of the Indian Constitution declares the ideal of Welfare State?

(A) Fundamental Rights

(B) Fundamental Duties

(D) Directive Principles of State Policy

137. Under the Provisions of Article 200 of the Constitution of India, the Governor of a State may

(1) withhold his assent to a Bill passed by the State Legislature

(2) reserve the Bill passed by the State Legislature, for consideration of the President

(3) return the Bill other than the Money Bill for reconsideration of the Legislature Select the

correct answer using the given code:

Code:

(A) (l)only

(B) (l), (2) and (3)

(D) (2) and (3) only

138. Eligibility for re-election of the President is provided under

(A) Article56 (B) Articles 57

139. Indian Science Congress 2012 was held in

(A) Vishakhapatnam

(B) Chennai

(D) Kolkata

140. With reference to the conduct of Government business in the Parliament, the term “Closure” refers to

(A) suspension of debate at the termination of a day's sitting of the Parliament

(B) the termination of a Parliamentary Session

(D) a rule of legislative procedure under which further debate on a motion can be halted

141. Name the Constitutional Amendment reducing voting age of voter from 21 years to 18 years

(A) 59th Amendment

(B) 60th Amendment

(D) 62nd Amendment

142. Who of the following represented Congress at the 2nd Round Table Conference?

(A) Sardar Patel

(B) C.R.Das

(D) Mahatama Gandhi

143. Which one of the-following pairs is not properly matched?

(A) 42nd Constitution — Fundamental Amendment Duties

(B) 52nd Constitution — Anti-Defection Amendment Law

(D) 84th Constitution— Centre-State Amendment relations

144. Which of the following condition/conditions must be fulfilled by the NRIs to be eligible to vote in elections in India?

(1) They must be physically present in-their place of origin to exercise their franchise

(2) NRIs whether they have acquired the Citizenship of another country or not are eligible to vote

(3) Eligible NRIs have to register by filling Form 6A with Electoral Registration Office.

Select the correct answer from the given code:

Code: I

(A) (1), (2) and (3)

(B) (1) and (3) only .

(D) Only (3)

145. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution the adjudication of disputes relating to water of inter-State rivers or rivers-valleys is done?

(A) Article 260 (B) Article 261

146. The campaign for widow-remarriage in Maharashtra was led by

(A) Vishnu Parasuram Pandit

(B) B.M.Malabari

(D) Dadabhai Naoroji

147. Part IX of the Indian Constitution regarding Panchayats was included in the Constitution in pursuance to which Article concerning Directive Principles of State Policy?

(A) Article 39 (B) Article 40

148. ‘All India Harijan Sangh’ was founded in 1932 by

(A) Annie Besant

(B) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

(D) Jawahar Lal Nehru

149. Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts has three Regional Centres in India. From the following, find out which one of the cities does not have a Regional Centre

(A) Bangaluru (B) Udaipur

150. ‘Third Anglo-Martha War’ took place during the period of which Governor General?

(A) Lord Carnwallis

(B) Lord Wellesley

(D) Lord Hastings

LAW

1. Deemed Decree implies

(A) final judgement of the Court

(B) final order of the Court

(D) last para of the judgement till decree is prepared

2. “In the matter of Kidnapping and Rape, the evidence given by prosecutrix being, illiterate and rustic young woman, some contradictions and omission are natural as her recollection, memory, observance and narration of chain of events”.

It was held by the Supreme Court in

(A) Manoj Yadav v. Pushpa

(B) State of U.P. v. Chhoteylal

(D) Lakhan Lal v. State of Bihar

3. Which one of the following is not actionable claim?

(A) A claim for mesne profit

(B) A claim for arrears of rent

(D) A claim for return of earnest money

4. On Proclamation of Emergency under Article 352, the President has power to suspend the Fundamental Rights except the rights secured by

(A) Articles 19 and 20

(B) Articles 20 and 21

(D) Articles 19, 20 and 21

5. The concept of Austin’s Sovereignty is influenced by the ideologies of which of the following person?

(A) Hobbs (B) Locke

6. The State is the synthesis of family and civil society. It is the unity of the universal principle of family and the particular principle of civil society.

The above philosophy is of

(A) Hegel (B) Rosco Pound

7. Which of the following theories relating to legal rights has been propounded by lnering?

(A) Will Theory

(B) Concession Theory

(D) Interest Theory

8. Which of the following are correct combinations?

1. Bentham and Natural law

2. Austin and Positivism

3. Rosco Pound and Sociological School of Jurisprudence

4. Henry Maine and Philosophical School of Jurisprudence

Select the correct answer using the code , given below:

(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only

9. Which one of the following is not a mode of acquisition of possession?

(A) Taking

(B) Delivery

(D) Acquisition

10. “Custom is to society what law is to the State”. It has been said by

(A) Dias (B) Salmond

11. Which of the following is not a Specialized Agency of the United Nations?

(A) Universal Postal Union

(B) United Nations Children's Fund

(D) International Finance Corporation

12. The powers and functions of United Nations are divided among how many principal organs?

(A) 5 (B) 4

13. The real power of appointment of the UN Secretary General lies with

(A) The Security Council

(B) The General Assembly

(D) The five Permanent Members of the Security Council

14. Who was the Indian candidate for the post of Secretary General of the United Nations?

(A) Soli Sorabjee

(B) N.R. Narayana Murthy

(D) Shashi Tharoor

15. International law also develops through State practices. It is known as

(A) International Treaty.

(B) International Comity

(D) International Morality

16. Rule of State Succession was first incorporated from the Roman law by

(A) Bentham (B) Kelsen

17. “To preserve one’s life is generally speaking a duty, but it may be the highest duty to sacrifice it.” This observation was made in Queen v. Dudley and Stephens by

(A) Lord Denman

(B) Lord Coleridge

(D) Justice Pollock

18. Which one of the following is not an illustration of criminal force?

(A) A spits over B

(B) A removes the veil of a lady B causing annoyance to her

(D) A pours boiling water in the bucket from which B was bathing

19. Which of the following is an offence against body, property, and reputation and feelings under Indian Penal Code 1860? The offence of

(A) kidnapping (B) abduction

20. Assault in order to outrage the modesty of a woman is punishable

(A) Under Section 363 Indian Penal Code

(B) Under Section 509 Indian Penal Code

(D) Under Section 354 Indian Penal Code

21. “Law is not universal in nature, like language, it varies with people and ages.

This proposition follows from the theory of

(A) Social utilitarianism

(B) Volksgeist

(D) Social Engineering

22. “Judges not only discover law but also they made law.” This view is supported by

(A) Gray (B) Dicey

23. Dealing with the sources of law who amongst the following was said that, “The Courts fuel — life into the dead words of statute”?

(A) Holland (B) Gray

24. The period of limitation within which defendants shall submit his written statement is

(A) 30 days from service of summons

(B) 40 days from service of summons

(D) 120 days from service of summons

25. Judgement under Section 2(9) of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 means

(A) a decree

(B) dismissal of appeal summarily

(D) All the above

26. Section 115 of the Civil Procedure Code provides provision for the following:

(A) Reference

(B) Review

(D) Appear to the Supreme Court

27. “No right of action is conferred on a transfer in possession under an unregistered contract of sale.” Which Section of Transfer of Property Act 1882 contains this Principle?

(A) Section 35 (B) Section 41

28. The amendment of the Transfer of Property Act 1882, in the year 2002 amended the provision of

(A) Section 100 (B) Section 106

29. Which property cannot be transferred?

(A) A public office

(B) A mere chance to succeed

(D) All of the above

30. The power of Judicial Review in India is possessed by

.(A) Supreme Court alone

(B) By High Courts

(D) None of the Courts

31. Rajya Sabha can withhold Money Bill for a period of

(A) 14 days (B) 5 months

32. Reservation of seats in educational institutions in favour of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes is governed by

(A) Article 15(4) of the Constitution

(B) Article 16(4) of the Constitution

(D) Article 14 of the Constitution

33. “Loya Jirga” is the term used for Tribal Council which will have a decisive role in farming new Constitution of which country?

(A) Angola (B) Iran

34. Which country became independent in the year 2002 after 450 years of Portuguese rule, followed by a quarter-century of Indoensian occupation?

(A) East-Timor (B) Nauru

35. Terrorist, “Bali Bombings” in which 202 people were killed and several injured were done in which country?

(A) Australia

(B) Indonesia

(D) Thailand

36. The rule enunciated by Section 65 of Indian Contract Act, 1872 is applicable to agreements which are discovered void by

(A) Mistake

(B) Failure of consideration

(D) AU the above

37. A contract of life-insurance, the performance of which depends upon a future event, falls under the category of

(A) Contingent Contract

(B) Contract of Indemnity

(D) Special Contract

38. Which of the following statements regarding consideration is not correct?

(A) It must be given at the desire of the promisor

(B) It may be past also

(D) Stranger to it cannot sue

39. Which one of the following is not an organ of the United Nations?

(A) Economic and Social Council

(B) International Court of Justice

(D) World Health Organization

40. Who can request the International Court of Justice to give an advisory opinion on any legal question?

(A) Any member of United Nations

(B) The highest Court of Justice of any Nation

(D) Any Permanent Member of the Security Council

41. Which of the following State has rejoined UNESCO on October 01, 2003 after 19 years absence?

(A) United States of America

(B) India

(D) France

42. Which of the following is not a Specialised Agency of the United Nations?

(A) International Bank for Reconstruction, and Development

(B) Food and Agricultural Organisation

(D) International Labour Organisation

43. The Sixth Conference of World Trade Organisation was held in December 2005 at

(A) Hong Kong (B) Sweden

44. When was an Indian Airlines plane on its flight from Kathmandu to Delhi, hijacked and taken to Khandhar by terrorists?

(A) September 1981 (B) December 1999

45. The European Union now includes total number Of members:

(A) 45 (B) 90

46. Manila Declaration 2012 is related to

(A) Human Rights

(B) Marine Coast Protection

(D) Economic issues

47. Civil Procedure Code 1908 is not applicable to which of the following namely

(A) Civil matters

(B) Revenue matters

(D) Land law and local laws

48. Which one of the following is Directive Principle of State Policy?

(A) Right to Education

(B) Right to Property

(D) To organize Village Panchayats

49. Which one of the following is correct statement?

In deciding the question as to the disqualification of a Member of Parliament; the President shall act

(A) according to the opinion of the Election Commission

(B) according to tire opinion of tine Supreme Court

(D) in his own discretion

50. Under Section 14 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, which of the following facts becomes relevant, namely

(A) facts showing state of mind

(B) facts showing state of body

(D) All the above

51. “Some shared morality is essential to the existence of any society” is the observation of

(A) Jeremy Bentham

(B) Austin

(D) Hart

52. Even a “student” may be treated as an expert under Section 45 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. It was laid down by the Supreme Court in

(A) Bhoginbhai Hirbhai v. State of Gujarat (1983)

(B) Sankaria v. State of Rajasthan (1978)

(D) Punjab Singh v. State of Haryana (1984)

53. Rescission of the Contract means

(A) the renewal of original contract

(B) cancellation of contract

(D) substitution of new contract in place of earlier one

54. What is the position of a contract when it is being caused by mistake of law?

(A) Voidable

(B) Not voidable

(D) Illegal

55. Who said that, “Public Policy is a unruly horse”?

(A) Justice Atkin

(B) Justice Wright

(D) Justice Borough

56. Under Section 182 of the Contract Act 1872, National Textile Corporation Ltd. is

(A) a Government department

(B) an agent of the Central Government

(D) an agent of the Central Government if the President consents

57. In case of general offer, there is no need to communicate the acceptance if not required by the proposer. This has been held in

(A) Carlill v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co.

(B) Bhagwandas v. Girdharilal

(D) Ramji Dayawala and Sons v. Investment Import

58. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court held that Section 125 Criminal Procedure Code was applicable to all irrespective of their religion?

(A) Mohd. Tajuddin v. Qammaruddin Begum

(B) Mohd. Ahmad Khan v. Shah Banu Begum

(D) Mst. Zohra Khatoon v. Mohd. Ibrahim

59. The power to grant anticipatory bail under Section 438 Code of Criminal Procedure vest with

(A) The Court of Magistrate

(B) Only in the Court of Sessions

(D) Both the Court of Sessions and the High Court

60. Which one of the following Sections of Code of Criminal Procedure 1973 deals with High Courts’ power of revision?

(A) Section 395 (B) Section 401

61. “The Judges of Family Court cannot be considered for elevation as High court Judges.” Supreme Court held it in which of the following case?

(A) Sanjai Aggarwal v. Union of India

(B) T.G.N. Kumar v. State of Kerala

(D) S.D. Joshi v. High Court of judicature at Bombay

62. The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes Order (Amendment) Bill 2011 is related to which State?

(A) Madhya Pradesh

(B) Andhra Pradesh

(D) Assam

63. What is the name of the Bill which has been passed by both the Houses of Parliament with regard to cable television?

(A) The Cable Television Network (Regulation) Amendment Bill 2011

(B) The Cable Network Amendment Bill 2011

(D) The Cable Television Network Bill 2011

64. Under Code of Civil Procedure 1908, an appeal may be filed by way of

(A) Application (B) Petition

65. Which of the following provision is related with set off under Code of Civil Procedure?

(A) Order VIII Rule 5

(B) Order VIII Rule 6

(D) Order VII Rule 6

66. In U.N. Human Rights Council is a

(A) Subsidiary organ of the General Assembly

(B) Subsidiary organ of Economic, and Social Council

(D) Committee of Security Council

67. International Criminal Court consists of

(A) 18 Judges (B) 15 Judges

68. “Law is uncertain and certainty of law is a legal myth”. This is the statement of

(A) Jerome Frank

(B) Holmes

(D) Llevellyn

69. The U.N.’s latest climate talks held in Durban, South Africa, which renewed Kyoto Protocol 1997, concluded on

(A) December 11,2011

(B) December 12,2011

(ID) December 30,2011

70. Which one of the following is not the prerequisite of presumption as to dowry-death under Section 113B of Indian Evidence Act?

(A) Victim was subjected to cruelty or harassment by her husband or relatives

(B) Victim had illicit relationship with other male person

(D) It was done within 7 years of the marriage

71. One of the most important principles of the law-of evidence is that “evidence is to be weighed and not to be counted.” This has been incorporated under which Section of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 mainly under

(A) Section 132 (B) Section 133

72. According to whom, “The matter of jurisprudence is positive law, law simply and strictly so called or law set by political superior to political inferiors”?

(A) Allen (B) Austin

73. The principal jurist of the philosophical school was

(A) Herbert Spencer

(B) Sir Henry maine

(D) Hegel

74. Which one of the following is not a kind of agricultural lease?

(A) Lease for cultivation of Indigo

(B) Lease for cultivation of vegetables

(D) Lease for gathering fruits from trees

75. “Every sale accompanied by agreement for re-conveyance of property would not constitute mortgage by conditional sale.” This statement is related to which Section of Transfer of Property Act?

(A) Section 55 (B) Section 56

76. Who of the following author is said as father of English jurisprudence, namely

(A) Austin (B) Bentham

77. Reasonable time for the performance of a contract is a question of

(A) fact (B) law

78. The Indian Constitution is dedicated to

(A) The Constituent Assembly

(B) The Parliament

(D) The people of India

79. Which Constitutional Amendment introduced the anti-defection provision of the Constitution?

(A) 51st Amendment

(B) 52nd Amendment

(D) 54th Amendment

80. Which one of the following does not come within the territorial jurisdiction of Punjab and Haryana high Court?

(A) Punjab (B) Haryana

81. An agreement in restraint of trade under Section 27 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 is

(A) valid (B) voidable

82. ‘A’ proposes by letter to sell a house to ‘B’ at a certain price. The communication of proposal is complete when

(A) 'A' posts the letter

(B) 'A' has completed the writing of letter

(D) 'B' receives the letter

83. A and B enter into contract due to mistake that a particular debt is time-barred. Contract is

(A) valid (B) void

84. ‘A contract of telephone becomes complete at the place where acceptance is heard.’ In which case it has been held?

(A) Bhagwandas v. Girdharilal

(B) Carlill v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co.

(D) Satyabratta Ghosh v. Mugneeram

85. A wagering agreement depends on

(A) an uncertain event

(B) future event only

(D) none of the above events

86. Which one of the following is not essential for a contract?

(A) Consideration

(B) Valuable consideration

(D) Adequate consideration

87. “Continuing Guarantee” has been defined

(A) Under Section 124 of the Indian Contract Act

(B) Under Section 129 of the Indian Contract Act

(D) Under Section 147 of the Indian Contract Act

88. The interpretation clause of the Indian Contract Act 1872 has been provided in

(A) Section 1 (B) Section 2

89. An agreement to do an act impossible in itself is

(A) Unenforceable

(B) Voidable

(D) Void

90. “A” promises to obtain for “B” an employment in the public service and “B” promises to pay Rs. 1000 to “A". The agreement is

(A) Legal

(B) Can be enforced at. the option of the parties

(G) Void

(D) None of the above

91. State the correct answer.

If object of an agreement is forbidden by law, the agreement is

(A) void only but not illegal

(B) illegal only but not void

(D) voidable

92. The word ‘illegal’ is applicable to everything which

(A) is an offence

(B) is prohibited by law

(D) all the above

93. What is not necessary to constitute an offence of criminal conspiracy?

(A) Two or more persons

(B) Five or more persons

(D) If act is not crime, to do some act in pursuance of agreement

94. ‘A’ knowing that her husband ‘B’ has committed murder, knowingly conceals in order to screen him from legal punishment, “A” is liable for

(A) Murder by reason of having common intention

(B) Harbouring

(D) "A" has committed no offence

95. Which section of Indian Penal Code deals with Dowry death?

(A) Section 304B

(B) Section 364A

(D) Section 366B

96. “A” and “B” plan to murder “C”, the next day. They are guilty of

(A) the offence of planning

(B) the offence of criminal conspiracy

(D) no offence

97. Which offence does not require a minimum number of five person?

(A) Unlawful Assembly

(B) Riot

(D) Dacoity

98. Which one of the following is a continuing offence?

(A) Abduction (B) Rape

99. Under Section 362 of Indian Penal Code the offence of abduction may be committed with

(A) a girl under 18 years of age

(B) a boy under 16 years of age

(D) none of the above is correct

100. “A” a police officer without warrant apprehends “Z” who has committed murder. “A” has committed the offence of

(A) wrongful confinement

(B) wrongful restraint

(D) no offence

101. “In every statue mens-rea is to be implied unless the contrary is shown.” This view was expressed in

(A) Sheras v. De-Rutzen

(B) R v. Dudley & Stephen

(D) R v. Prince

102. “A” in India instigates “B” a foreigner in Pakistan to commit a murder in Pakistan. “B” commits murder. In this case

(A) 'A' is guilty of abetting murder

(B) 'A' is not guilty of any offence

(D) None of the above answer is correct

103. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(A) Mensrea —R v. Prince

(B) Necessity—,D.P.P. v. Beard

(D) Intoxication — Basudeo v. State of Pepsu

104. ‘A’ commits theft on property in ‘B’ possession and while committing theft he has a loaded pistol under his garment kept for the purpose of hurting ‘B’ in case ‘B’ resists. The offence committed by ‘A’ is defined under which section of the Indian Penal Code?

(A) Section 382 (B) Section 379

105. The principle of proximity of crime under criminal law is irrelevant, while deciding the liability for the offence of

(A) theft and dacoity

(B) culpable homicide and murder

(D) abetment and conspiracy

106. Theft is an offence against

(A) a person

(B) immovable property

(D) both movable and immovable property

107. A married man commits the offence of adultery if he has sexual intercourse with a

(A) unmarried Woman .

(B) married woman except his wife

(D) unmarried woman without her consent

108. “A” puts jewels into a box belonging to “B” with the intention that they may be found in that box, with the result that ‘B’ may be convicted for the offence of theft. ‘A’ has committed the offence under

(A) Section 191 of Indian Penal Code

(B) Section 192 of Indian Penal Code

(D) 'A' has committed no offence

109. ‘X’ drives very fast through a crowded road to catch a flight, knowing that his act in ail probability may cause death. ‘Y’ is killed by his vehicle. ‘X’ is guilty of

(A) culpable homicide not amounting to murder

(B) murder

(D) negligence

110. Which section of Indian Penal Code deals with voluntary intoxication?

(A) Section 84 (B) Section 85

111. When was the RIO Declaration on Environment and Development made?

(A) In June 1992

(B) In December 1989

(D) In September 2002

112. The International Labour Organization (ILO) on December 10, 2011 released a report on the employment scenario in

(A) Oman (B) Iraq

113. Copenhagen Accord on climate change is

(A) a binding treaty

(B) not a binding treaty

(D) an optional protocol

114. Under which Section of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973 the term “offence” has been defined?

(A) Section 40 (B) Section 2(n)

115. The Parliament of which country signed on CTBT on 6th December, 2011?

(A) Indonesia (B) Iraq

116. Under which provision of the Code of Civil Procedure 1908, the Collector may be appointed as receiver?

(A) Order XL Rule 5

(B) Order XLI Rule 1

(D) Order XLI Rule 5

117. A receiver is an

(A) officer of the court

(B) agent of the plaintiff

(D) agent of the. parties to the suit

118. Which one of the following cases related to dying declaration?

(A) Mehboob Shah v. King Emperor

(B) Queen v. Abdullah

(D) M.C. Vergese v. Ponane

119. To what facts of the following, the rules of relevancy have been discussed under Section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act?

(A) Motive

(B) Preparation

(D) All of the above

120. Which of the following statement is incorrect under Transfer of Property Act?

(A) Right of Redemption belongs to mortgagee

(B) Right of Foreclosure belongs to mortgagor

(D) Right of Forceclosure can be abrogated

121. Which of the following is not an essential element of gift?

(A) Donor and Donee

(B) Subject-matter

(D) Transfer must be for consideration

122. For the lease of immovable property, the tenure for more than one year or year to year:

(A) The attestation of notary is sufficient

(B) It is Valid if the execution of it is made before the Magistrate only

(D) Only registration is sufficient

123. The word “secular” used in the Preamble of the Constitution of India means

(A) The State has no religion of its own

(B) All religions are treated equally

(D) Both (A) and (B) are correct

124. Twelfth Schedule was added to the Constitution by

(A) 74th Amendment

(B) 73rd Amendment

(D) 44th Amendment

125. The 44th Constitutional Amendment 1978 was

(A) Amended Article 32

(B) Deleted Article 31 .and introduced Article 300A

(D) Introduced a new Article 300 in the Constitution

126. In Re Berubari and Exchange of Enclaves the Supreme Court held that

(A) Rule of law is not a part of Constitution

(B) Rule of law is a part of Constitution

(D) Preamble is a part of Constitution

127. How many types of writ can the Supreme Court issue for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights?

(A) Six

(B) Four

(D) Three

128. State Executive power is vested with

(A) Chief Minister

(B) Council of Ministers

(D) Governor

129. “Prime Minister” itself is a separate class.” This was laid down in

(A) Ram Prasad v. State of Bihar

(B) P.K. Garg v. Union of India

(D) P.V. Shastri v. Union of India

130. Who can constitute the State Administrative Tribunal under the Administrative Tribunal Act, 1985?

(A) President of India

(B) Supreme Court

(D) Concerned State Government

131. Under which Article of the UN Charter the Security Council has the power to use force against a State?

(A) Article 41 (B) Article 2(4)

132. The judgement of International Court of Justice is to be signed by

(A) the President of the Court

(B) the Registrar of the Court

(D) the President and Registrar of the Court

133. Consider the following statements:

1. International law is not a law at all.

2. International law has no judicial system to enforce the law by applying sactions of the above

(A) Only 1 is true

(B) Only 2 is true

(D) Both 1 and 2 are not true

134. Which one of the following is not a case relating to doctrine of precedent?

(A) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan

(B) Prakash Chand Pathak v. State of U.P.

(D) Bengal Immunity Co. Ltd., v. State of Bihar

135. Which one of the following schools of legal thought held the view that, “Law is found not made, it is self existent.”?

(A) Historical School

(B) Analytical School

(D) Realistic School

136. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court over-ruled its own precedent for, the first time?

(A) Kharak Singh v. State of U.P.

(B) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India

(D) Keshav Mills.Co. v. Income-tax Commissioner

137. “Law is what the judges declares”. The statement relates to which of the following thinkers?

(A) Jerome Frank (B) Julius Stone

138. Who described jurisprudence as “Lawyer’s Extroversion”?

(A) Savigny (B) Salmond .

139. The Law means

(A) The entire body of rules in a State

(B) A particular law

(D) . The rules of natural justice

140. “Movement of progressive societies have hitherto been from status to contract.” Who said so?

(A) Bentham (B) Rosco Pound

141. Legal Right is an Interest

(A) Recognised by lavv

(B) Protected by law

(D) None of the above

142. On which date the Statute of the ‘International Criminal Court’ has come into force?

(A) 10th December, 2003

(B) 24th October, 2002

(D) 1st January, 2003

143. Where the UNESCO’s headquarter is situated?

(A) In Geneva

(B) In London

(D) In Paris

144. Recently which one of the following State has been recognised by 112 countries around the world?

(A) Peru

(B) Nicaragua

(D) Uruguay

145. United States President Obama signs on which date the ‘Massive $ 662 billion Defence Spending Bill called the Defence Authorisation Bill’?

(A) December 29,2011

(B) December 30, 2011

(D) December 28, 2011

146. S.C.O. Summit 2006 was held in which country?

(A) Moscow (Russia)

(B) Shanghai (China)

(D) Dhaka (Bangladesh)

147. Which tribunal/court has put Lubanga of Kango on trial?

(A) International Court of Justice

(B) Tribunal for Yugoslovakia

(D) International Criminal Court

148. Under which provisions of Civil Procedure Code temporary injunctions are granted?

(A) Under Section 116

(B) Under Section, 152

(D) Under Order 29 Rule 1

149. Who can file a suit under Section 91 of Civil Procedure Code for public nuisance?

(A) Advocate General

(B) Any citizen

(D) Any 10 or more citizens

150. The duration of existence of a Caveat filed under Code of Civil Procedure 1908 is

(A) 60 days from the date on which it was filed

(B) 30 days from the date on which it was lodged

(D) 90 days from the date, when it was lodged