Previous Year Question Papers · UP APO PRELIMS PAPER – 2025
UP APO PRELIMS PAPER – 2025
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UP APO PRELIMS PAPER – 2025
PART- l
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
1. Who gave the title 'Ambassador of Hindu-Muslim unity' to Muhammad Ali Jinnah in India's freedom struggle?
a. British Government
b. Sarojini Naidu
c. Jawaharlal Nehru
d. Mahatma Gandhi
2. Consider the following statements with reference to the Human Development Report, 2025:
1. The title of this report is 'A Matter of Choice: People and Possibilities in the Age of AI.
2. India has been ranked 133rd in this report.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. Only 1
b. Neither 1 nor 2
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Only 2
3. When did India become a member of World Trade Organization?
a. 1991
b. 1997
c. 1995
d. 2001
4. The capital of the Maukhari rulers was:
a. Purushpur
b. Kannauj
c. Thaneshwar
d. None of the above
5. Who among the following was not a ruler of the Mauryan dynasty?
a. Agnimitra
b. Kunala
c. Ashoka
d. Bindusara
6. Who among the following had refused to open fire on peaceful protestors in Peshawar in 1930?
a. Gopeshwar Singh
b. Chandra Singh Garhwali
c. Govindanand
d. Gopbandhu Chaudhary
7. Which of the following region is known for the native population of aboriginal tribes?
a. Middle America
b. Australia
c. African Sub-Sahara
d. South Africa
8. 'NISAR' of ISRO is a joint satellite mission with which of the following space agency?
a. JAXA - Japanese
b. NASA American
c. ESA European
d. CNES-French
9. Which of the following is an ocean current of the Atlantic Ocean?
a. Benguela Current
b. Humboldt Current
c. Alaska Current
d. California Current
10. Who is the author of 'Indian Musalmans'?
a. W.W. Hunter
b. Sir Syyed Ahmad Khan
c. Keshav Chandra Sen
d. Badruddin Tayyabji
11. Consider the following statements with reference to the International Booker Prize, 2025:
1. Banu Mushtaq and Deepa Bhandari have won the International Booker Prize, 2025 for 'Heart Lamp'.
2. 'Heart Lamp' is the second short story collection to win the International Booker Prize.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. Only 2
b. Only 1
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
12. Which organization publishes the 'Global Gender Gap Index Report'?
a. World Economic Forum (WEF)
b. World Health Organization (WHO)
c. International Labour Organization (ILO)
d. United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
13. Which of the following rulers had established diplomatic relations with China?
a. Samudragupta
b. Chandragupta Maurya
c. Ashoka
d. Harshavardhana
14. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(Local Wind) (Area)
a. Harmattan - West Africa
b. Mistral - South America
c. Khamsin - North Africa
d. Zonda - Argentina
15. Consider the following statements with reference to Money bill:
1. The appropriation of money from the Consolidated Fund of India comes under the Money bill.
2. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha will decide whether a bill is a Money bill or not.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. Only 2
b. Neither 1 nor 2
c. Only 1
d. Both 1 and 2
16. Gelatin is mostly used in making ice-creams in order to:
a. Prevent forming the colloidal sol
b. Modify the taste
c. Prevent crystallization and stabilize the mixture
d. Enrich the fragrance
17. In which sector of the economy is disguised unemployment found?
a. Hotel and Trade
b. Mining
c. Agriculture
d. Sugar Industry
18. Consider the following statements:
1. Kirsty Coventry is the first woman President of the International Olympic Committee.
2. She is from Zimbabwe.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. Only 2
b. Neither 1 nor 2
c. Only 1
d. Both 1 and 2
19. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Chemical) (Use)
a. Chloroform i. Preservative for
biological
specimens
b. Carbon black ii. Antifreeze for
automobiles
c. Formaldehyde iii. As an anaesthesia
d. Methanol iv. A black pigment
in shoe polishes
Codes:
a. A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
b. A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
c. A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii
d. A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
20. Under which Act did the appointments in the civil services start being made through competitive examinations?
a. Act of 1909 A.D.
b. Act of 1858 A.D.
c. Act of 1861 A.D
d. Act of 1892 A.D.
21. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(Grasslands) (Place)
a. Prairies - Hungary
b. Downs - Australia
c. Velds - South Africa
d. Pampas - Argentina
22. Who was the ruler of Devgiri at the time of Alauddin Khilji's invasion?
a. Rana Ratan Singh
b. Prataprudra Dev
c. Malik Kafur
d. Ramchandra Dev
23. Consider the following events:
1. The Cripps Mission
2. The August Proposal
3. The Nehru Report
4. The Wavell Plan
The correct chronological order of these events is:
Codes:
a. 3, 2, 1, 4
b. 2, 1, 3, 4
c. 1,3, 2, 4
d. 3, 1, 2, 4
24. Which of the following ethnic groups is the largest ethnic group in India?
a. Dravidians
b. Indo-Aryans
c. Austric
d. Chinese-Tibetans
25. The Laurentian Plateau is located in:
a. South Africa
b. New Zealand
c. Australia
d. Canada
26. Ukai Dam is located on which river?
a. Tapi
b. Sabarmati
c. Parbati
d. Narmada
27. Buksa tribe lives in which of the following region?
a. Dihang Valley
b. Nilgiri Mountains
c. Kumaun
d. Chhotanagpur
28. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Operation) (Country)
A. Operation Rising Lion i. India
B. Operation True Promise III ii. Israel
C. Operation Midnight Hammer iii. Iran
D. Operation Sindhu iv. USA
Codes:
a. A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
b. A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii
c. A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
d. A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv
29. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
a. Methane - Released by paddy
fields and livestock
b. CO2 - Major contributor to
global warming
c. Water vapour - Not a greenhouse gas
d. CFCS - Cause both global
warming and
ozone depletion
30. The collection of Aurangzeb's letters is famous by which of the following names?
a. Dastur-ul-Amal
b. Zakhirat-ul-Khawanin
c. Rukka'at-e-Alamgiri
d. Ahkam-i-Alamgiri
31. Isaac Nader clinched the gold medal in the men's 1500 m race at the 2025 World Athletics Championship by defeating whom?
a. Cole Hocker
b. Josh Kerr
c. Jake Wightman
d. Jakob Ingebrigtsen
32. Who was given the death penalty for the murder of Curzon Wyllie?
a. Bhagat Singh
b. Manmathnath
c. Madan Lal Dhingra
d. Udham Singh
33. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Acid) (Use)
A. Boric Acid i. Food preservative
B. Citric Acid ii. Flavoured drink
C. Carbonic Acid iii. Ink stain remover
D. Oxalic Acid iv. Eye wash
Codes:
a. A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
b. A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
c. A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
d. A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
34. Which of the following is a physical change?
a. Rusting of iron rod
b. Glowing of an electric bulb
c. Milk turning into curd
d. Burning of coal
35. Which of the following was the first weekly newspaper published in English by any Indian?
a. Digdarshan
b. Bengal Gazette
c. Calcutta Journal
d. Samachar Darpan
36. Consider the following statements with reference 3 to Public Accounts Committee:
1. It examines the annual report of the Comptroller and Auditor General.
2. The Chairman of the Committee is generally a member of the Lok Sabha.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. Both 1 and 2
b. Neither 1 nor 2
c. Only 2
d. Only 1
37. Which of the following cities are connected by Trans-Siberian Railway?
a. Vancouver - Sydney
b. St. Petersburg - Vladivostok
c. Perth - Kalgoorlie
d. Victoria - Halifax
38. Which of the following is used as an artificial sweetening agent?
a. Sodium Benzoate
b. Aspartame
c. Sucrose
d. Tocopherol
39. Which one of the following cities was not recognised under the newly introduced 'Super Swachh League' category with population over 10 lakh in the Swachh Bharat Mission 2024-25?
a. Indore
b. Surat
c. Pune
d. Navi Mumbai
40. What was the head of the mines called in Arthashastra?
a. Shulkadhyaksha
b. Pautvadhyaksha
c. Akaradhyaksha
d. Sansthadhyaksha
41. Simuka was the founder of which of the following dynasties?
a. Pandya
b. Satavahana
c. Chera
d. Chola
42. Which of the following Sultanate's sultans is called a 'benevolent despot' ruler?
a. Balban
b. Jalaluddin Khilji
c. Muhammad bin Tughlaq
d. Firoz Shah Tughlaq
43. Which of the following is a biodegradable polymer?
a. Dacron
b. Nylon-66
c. Nylon-6
d. Nylon-2-Nylon-6
44. Which of the following countries is not a permanent member of the UN Security Council?
a. France
b. China
c. Russia
d. Germany
45. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I List II
A. Grey Revolution i. Onion Production
B. Pink Revolution ii. Egg Production
C. Silver Revolution iii. Fertilizers
D. Blue Revolution iv. Fish Production
Codes:
a. A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
b. A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-
c. A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
d. A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
46. Which of the following is the first state in the North-east to sign an MoU with 'Bhashini' for multilingual governance?
a. Mizoram
b. Meghalaya
c. Manipur
d. Tripura
47. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(Part of the Constitution) (Subject)
a. Part XVII - Official language
b. Part XV - Election
c. Part XVIII - Emergency
provisions
d. Part II - Union
48. Consider the following statements with reference to Rajya Sabha:
1. Rajya Sabha cannot vote on demand for grants.
2. The Rajya Sabha has no power to pass a motion of no confidence against the Council of Ministers.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. Both 1 and 2
b. Only 1
c. Only 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
49. Which of the following Congress leaders supported the demand for Pakistan?
a. Jawaharlal Nehru
b. C. Rajagopalachari
c. Subhas Chandra Bose
d. Mahatma Gandhi
50. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
A. DNA i. Deoxyribonucleic acid
B. RNA ii. Building blocks
of proteins
C. Amino acid iii. Ribonucleic acid
D. Vitamin K iv. Phylloquinone
Codes:
a. A-i, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii
b. A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii
c. A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
d. A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv
PART- ll
LAW
51. When does the right of private defence of property not extend to causing death?
a. Mischief by fire or any explosive substance committed in any building which is used as a human dwelling
b. Theft, mischief, under such circumstances as may reasonably cause apprehension that grievous hurt will be the consequence
c. Robbery
d. House-breaking at any time
52. Consider the various punishments mentioned in Section 4 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 and arrange them in correct order:
i. Forfeiture of property
ii. Community service
iii. Imprisonment
iv. Fine
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
a. iii, i, iv, ii
b. ii, iv, iii, i
c. iii, i, ii, iv
d. i, ii, iii, iv
53. Ramesh, who is a citizen of India and a resident of Prayagraj, commits a murder in England. He is later found in Jaipur. Where can he be tried and convicted of the murder?
a. In England
b. In Delhi
c. In Jaipur
d. In Prayagraj
54. U.P. Police Regulations consist of:
a. 2 parts
b. 6 parts
c. 4 parts
d. 8 parts
55. Under Section 395(3) of BNSS, 2023, when court imposes a sentence of which fine does not form a part, the court may order the accused person to pay compensation which may be:
a. not more than ten thousand rupees
b. not less than ten thousand rupees
c. not more than five thousand rupees
d. any amount as specified in the order
56. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R):
1. Assertion (A): Section 101 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 defines 'murder' through culpable homicide.
2. Reason (R): Only the four classes of culpable homicide described in Section 101 are murder.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
b. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
c. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
d. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
57. Which one of the following is not included in the expression 'Court' under the BSA, 2023?
a. All persons legally authorised to take evidence
b. All Judges
c. All Magistrates
d. Arbitrator
58. In which of the following Section of the BSA, 2023, may indecent and scandalous questions be forbidden by the court?
a. Section 152
b. Section 150
c. Section 149
d. Section 154
59. Section 5 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 does not include which one of the following?
a. Effect
b. Cause
c. Conduct
d. Occasion
60. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
A. Anticipatory Bail i. Section 307,
BNSS, 2023
B. Cognizance of
offences
by Magistrate ii. Section 129,
BNSS, 2023
C. Language of Courts iii. Section 482,
BNSS, 2023
D. Security for good
behaviour from iv. Section 210,
habitual offenders BNSS, 2023
Codes:
a. A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
b. A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii
c. A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
d. A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
61. The idea of 'Welfare State' in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in its:
a. Preamble
b. Directive Principles of State Policy
c. Fundamental Rights
d. Seventh Schedule
62. In which case has the Supreme Court held that a Polygraph (Lie detector) test shall be conducted with the consent of accused for collecting evidence?
a. Piara Singh v. State of Punjab, AIR 1977 SC 2274
b. Gura Singh v. State of Rajasthan (2001) 2 SCC 205
c. Basant Singh v. Bhagirathi, AIR 1966 SC 405
d. Selvi v. State of Karnataka, AIR 2010 SC 1974
63. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R):
1. Assertion (A): 'Falsus in uno, falsus in omnibus' is not a rule of law, but a rule of caution.
2. Reason (R): The rule has no application in India because it is not the duty of the court to separate the grain from the chaff.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
b. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
c. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
d. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
64. 'Voyeurism' is defined under which Section of the BNS?
a. Section 77
b. Section 75
c. Section 133
d. Section 76
65. Where in a state, there exists a regular cadre of prosecution officer, how shall the Public Prosecutor be appointed?
a. Among the persons constituting such cadre
b. From the panel prepared by District Magistrate in consultation with the Sessions Judge
c. From the panel prepared by Sessions Judge in consultation with the District Magistrate
d. From the panel prepared by the District Magistrate
66. Which court may order to execute a bond for keeping the peace on conviction of a person?
I. Session Court
II. Appellate Court
III. Revisional Court
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
a. Only I and II are correct.
b. Only II is correct.
c. Only I is correct.
d. All I, II and III are correct.
67. 'A' intentionally causes B's death, partly by illegally omitting to give 'B' food, and partly by beating 'B'. 'A' has committed the offence of:
a. Attempt to murder
b. Murder
c. Grievous hurt
d. Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
68. Under which Section of the BNSS, 2023, does the provision for 'security for keeping the peace on conviction' exist?
a. Section 130
b. Section 128
c. Section 127
d. Section 125
69. Which one of the following is not the duty prescribed for the mounted police under U.P. Police Regulations?
a. Suppressing organized dacoity
b. Patrolling roads
c. Suppressing unorganized criminals
d. Traffic control duty
70. The words 'Socialist' and 'Secular' were added to the Preamble of Indian Constitution by:
a. 46th Amendment
b. 42nd Amendment
c. 41st Amendment
d. 44th Amendment
71. The principle laid down in Pakala Narayan Swami's case relating to the relevancy of a dying declaration was accepted by the Supreme Court of India in which of the following case?
a. Kaushal Rao v. State of Bombay
b. Wazir Chand v. State of Haryana
c. Jayamma v. State of Karnataka
d. Kusa v. State of Orissa
72. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
A. Court of Session i. Section 22,
BNSS, 2023
B. Executive Magistrate ii. Section 8,
BNSS, 2023
C. Court by which
offences are
triable iii. Section 14,
BNSS, 2023
D. Sentences which
High Courts
and Sessions
Judges may pass iv. Section 21,
BNSS, 2023
Codes:
a. A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
b. A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
c. A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
d. A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i
73. In which Section of the BNSS, 2023 is it provided that a male child below the age of fifteen years cannot be called to police station?
a. Section 179
b. Section 180
c. Section 181
d. Section 178
74. In which of the following Section of the Police Act, 1861 the duties of police officers are prescribed?
a. Section 21
b. Section 22
c. Section 24
d. Section 23
75. Which of the following is not specifically mentioned as a writ in the Constitution of India?
a. Mandamus
b. Injunction
c. Prohibition
d. Quo-warranto
76. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
A. Burden of proof i. Section 109
of BSA, 2023
B. On whom burden
of proof lies ii.Section 106
of BSA; 2023
C. Burden of proof as
to particular fact iii. Section 105
of BSA, 2023
D. Burden of proving fact
especially within
knowledge iv. Section 104
of BSA, 2023
Codes:
a. A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
b. A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
c. A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
d. A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
77. If the attached properties to be the proceeds of crime, then by which authority such proceeds of crime shall be distributed by order of court to the persons who are affected by such crime?
a. District Magistrate
b. Police officer not below the rank of Inspector
c. Officer in-charge of Police Station
d. Sub-Divisional Magistrate
78. Which of the following Section of the Police Act, 1861 provides that 'police officers to keep diary'?
a. Section 45
b. Section 44
c. Section 43
d. Section 46
79. Inquiry under the BNSS, 2023 is conducted by:
a. Magistrate or Court
b. Magistrate only
c. Police officer
d. Sessions Court only
80. Which one of the following provisions of the Constitution is not correctly matched?
a. Elections - Part XV
b. The Union Territories - Part VIII
c. The Union - Part V
d. The Panchayats - Part IX A
81. Consider the following statements with reference to the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023:
1. Whoever commits the offence of trafficking shall be punished with rigorous imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than seven years, but which may extend to ten years, and 2 shall also be liable to a fine.
2. The consent of the victim is immaterial in the determination of the offence of trafficking.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. Only 1
b. Both 1 and 2
c. Only 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
82. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Marginal note) (Section of the BNS)
A. Cheating by
personation i. Section 336(1)
B. Fabricating false
evidence ii. Section 270
C. Public nuisance iii. Section 228
D. Forgery iv. Section 319(1)
Codes:
a. A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
b. A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
c. A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
d. A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
83. 'In furtherance of common intention' used in Section 3(5) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, requires:
a. No pre-arranged plan is necessary
b. All accused must be present at one place
c. Common object
d. Pre-arranged plan
84. Consider the following events and arrange these in correct chronological order as given under the BNS, 2023:
i. Terrorist act
ii. Attempt to commit culpable homicide
iii. Petty organised crime
iv. Organised crime
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
a. ii, iv, iii, i
b. ii, iii, i, iv
c. ii, i, iii, iv
d. iii, i, ii, iv
85. Which one of the following is not correctly matched according to the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
a. Valuable security - Section 2(31)
b. Public servant - Section 2(27)
c. Wrongful gain - Section 2(36)
d. Punishment - Section 4
86. Which one of the following is the correct option as per police zones established in U.P. State?
a. Lucknow, Meerut, Sonbhadra, Varanasi
b. Lucknow, Kanpur Nagar, Varanasi, Agra
c. Lucknow, Meerut, Moradabad, Bareilly
d. Lucknow, Bareilly, Saharanpur, Meerut
87. In which of the following case has the Supreme Court reiterated that the summons issued by the Police / investigating agency to an accused for appearance as per Section 35 of the BNSS, 2023 cannot be served electronically?
a. Badshah Majid Malik v. Directorate of Enforcement
b. Sunil Dharma Mane V. National Investigation Agency
c. Satendra Kumar Antil v. C.B.I. & Anr.
d. Ramesh Chandra Garg v. C.B.I.
88. Which chapter of U.P. Police Regulations contains "Directions for the guidance of police officers in time of famine"?
a. Chapter XXIX
b. Chapter XXVII
c. Chapter XXVI
d. Chapter XXVIII
89. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R):
1. Assertion (A): The offence of waging war is sometimes confused with rioting.
2. Reason (R): An unlawful assembly has a minimum of five members.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
b. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
c. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
d. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
90. The maxim 'Nemo debet bis vexari pro una et eadem causa' finds place in which of the following Section of the BNSS, 2023?
a. Section 338
b. Section 335,
c. Section 337
d. None of the above
91. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
a. Official communications - Section 130
of the BSA, 2023
b. Confidential
communications
with legal advisers - Section 127
of the BSA, 2023
c. Professional
communications - Section 132
of the BSA, 2023
d. Communications
during marriage - Section 128
of the BSA, 2023
92. Consider the following statements with reference to the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023:
The punishments to which offenders are liable under the provisions of this Sanhita are:
1. Imprisonment for life, that is to say, maximum up to twenty years of imprisonment.
2. Rigorous imprisonment, that is, with hard labour.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. Neither 1 nor 2
b. Only 2
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Only 1
93. Which punishment cannot be given under Section 7 of the Police Act, 1861?
a. Confinement to quarters for a term not exceeding fifty days
b. Deprivation of good conduct pay
c. Removal from any office of distinction or special emolument
d. Fine to any amount not exceeding one month's pay
94. Under the BNSS, 2023, who can file an application for Plea Bargaining?
a. The investigating officer
b. The accused of the offence
c. The public prosecutor
d. The victim of the offence
95. As per Section 1 of Police Act, 1861 the word 'property' includes:
a. movable property only
b. movable property, money ог valuable security
c. movable property, immovable property, money or valuable security
d. movable and immovable property
96. Consider the following events and arrange these in correct chronological order starting from the earliest to the last activity as per the provisions of the Police Act, 1861 and Regulations:
I. Superintendence in the State Government
II. Inspector-General of Police
III. Powers of Inspector-General
IV. Appointment and dismissal, etc., of inferior officers
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
a. I, II, III, IV
b. IV, III, II, I
c. II, III, IV, I
d. II, III, I, IV
97. Under Section 41 of BNS, 2023, no right of private defence of property is available against the offence of:
a. Criminal breach of trust
b. Robbery
c. Theft
d. Criminal trespass
98. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
a. Shall Presume - Section 2(1)(d)
of BSA, 2023
b. May Presume - Section 2(1)(h)
of BSA, 2023
c. Conclusive Proof - Section 2(1)(b)
of BSA, 2023
d. Disproved - Section 2(1)(c)
of BSA, 2023
99. Section 398 of BNSS, 2023 provides for:
a. Victim Protection Scheme
b. Witness Protection Scheme
c. Both Victim Protection Scheme and Witness Protection Scheme
d. Neither Victim Protection Scheme nor Witness Protection Scheme
100. In which of the following case the Supreme Court of India has explained the point of difference between relevance of evidence and its admissibility?
a. Ram Bihari Yadav v. State of Bihar (1994)
b. Nahar Singh v. State of Uttar Pradesh (1998)
c. Atul Singh v. State of Uttar Pradesh (2009)
d. Umedbhai v. State of Gujarat (2001)
101. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R):
1. Assertion (A): Whoever intentionally kidnaps any person from India or from lawful guardianship shall be punished with imprisonment for a term which may extend up to seven years only.
2. Reason (R): The word 'lawful guardian' in Section 137 of the BNS, 2023 includes any person lawfully entrusted with the care or custody of such child or other person.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
b. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
c. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
d. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
102. Which of the following Section of the BNS, 2023 defines 'terrorist act'?
a. Section 113
b. Section 112
c. Section 115
d. Section 114
103. Who may give evidence of agreement varying terms of document under Section 102 of Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?
a. Representatives in interest of the persons who are parties to a document
b. Persons who are not parties to a document and Representatives in interest of the persons who are parties to a document both
c. Persons who are not parties to a document
d. Persons who are parties to a document
104. Who is given protection from arrest under Section 42 of the BNSS, 2023?
a. President of India
b. Members of Parliament
c. Members of Armed Forces
d. Judicial Officers
105. Consider the following statements with reference to BNSS, 2023:
Every police officer while making an arrest shall:
1. bear an accurate, visible and clear identification of his name.
2. prepare a memorandum of arrest which shall be attested by at least two witnesses.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. Neither 1 nor 2
b. Both 1 and 2
c. Only 2
d. Only 1
106. 'A' is accused of a crime. The fact that after the commission of the alleged crime. 'A' absconded is relevant. This is relevant under which provision of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?
a. Section 5
b. Section 7
c. Section 6
d. Section 8
107. The term 'gender' is defined under Section 2(10) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, which includes male, female or transgender. In which Section of the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019, is the term 'transgender' defined?
a. Section 2(d)
b. Section 2(j)
c. Section 2(k)
d. Section 2(i)
108. Village Chaukidar under U.P. Police Regulations is responsible to the following for the due performance of his duties:
a. District Magistrate
b. Superintendant of Police
c. Subordinate Sub-inspector
d. Officer in-charge of Police Station
109. Which one of the following Section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 says, "When facts not otherwise relevant become relevant"?
a. Section 8
b. Section 9
c. Section 16
d. Section 18
110. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(Offence) (Section of the BNS, 2023)
a. Extortion - Section 308(1)
b. Dacoity - Section 310(1)
c. Theft - Section 303(1)
d. Robbery - Section 308(6)
111. In which of the following case did the Supreme Court of India sustain the conviction and death sentence for the offence of murder on the basis of circumstantial evidence only?
a. Abdul Nassar v. State of Kerala (2025)
b. Anwar Ali v. State of Himachal Pradesh (2020)
c. Vaibhav v. State of Maharashtra (2025)
d. Har Dayal v. State of Uttar Pradesh (1976)
112. With reference to U.P. Police Regulations, match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using codes given the lists:
List-I List-II
A. Head constables
of armed police i. Para 71
B. Sub-inspectors
of armed police ii. Para 66
C. Use of force by the
police against the crowd iii. Para 67
D. Requisition of armed
police additional iv. Para 70
Codes:
a. A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
b. A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
c. A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i
d. A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
113. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R):
1. Assertion (A): No oath shall be administered to the accused when he is examined under Section 351(1) of the BNSS, 2023.
2. Reason (R): The accused is not being examined as a witness by the court.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
b. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
c. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
d. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
114. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution the Governor can refer a Bill for the approval of the President?
a. Article 200
b. Article 201
c. Article 198
d. Article 199
115. Up to how many days the time period to complete the committal proceedings from the date of taking cognizance under the BNSS, 2023 can be extended by the Magistrate?
a. 150 days
b. 180 days
c. 90 days
d. 120 days
116. Which Section of the Police Act, 1861 deals with the 'constitution of force'?
a. Section 3
b. Section 2(a)
c. Section 1(b)
d. Section 2
117. Which of the following is included in the word 'Cattle' for the purposes of the Police Act, 1861?
a. Cat
b. Goat
c. Monkey
d. Dog
118. Which one of the following does not find a specific mention as showing state of mind under Section 12 of the BSA, 2023?
a. Motive
b. Good faith
c. Ill-will
d. Negligence
119. If a man monitors the WhatsApp account of any woman, he commits the offence of:
a. Stalking
b. Sexual harassment
c. Insult to modesty of a woman
d. Voyeurism
120. When the person in respect of whom the inquiry is made is a child, who shall execute the bond for keeping peace or maintaining good behaviour under BNSS, 2023?
a. Only by legal guardian
b. Only by parents of the child
c. Only by sureties
d. By both parents of the child and by sureties
121. Which of the following provision of the BNSS, 2023 is not related to Appeals?
a. Section 89
b. Section 500
c. Section 495
d. Section 496
122. The maxim 'De minimis non curat lex' is provided under which Section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
a. Section 33
b. Section 34
c. Section 31
d. Section 32
123. Which Section of the BSA, 2023 deals with 'Admissions in civil cases when relevant'?
a. Section 47
b. Section 23(2)
c. Section 138
d. Section 21
124. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
a. Section 15,
BNS, 2023 - Act of a Judge when
acting judicially
b. Section 20,
BNS, 2023 - Act of a child under
seven years of age
c. Section 22,
BNS, 2023 - Accident in doing
a lawful act
d. Section 21,
BNS, 2023 - Act of a child
above seven
years and under twelve
years of age, of immature
understanding
125. According to the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, misconduct in a public place by a drunken person is punishable with:
a. Imprisonment up to twenty-four hours only
b. Community service only
c. Both Imprisonment up to twenty-four hours and Fine up to ten thousand rupees
d. Fine up to ten thousand rupees only
126. Who chaired the first meeting of the 'Constituent Assembly'?
a. Dr. Sachchidanand Sinha
b. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
c. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
d. Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
127. Which of the following case is not related to the doctrine of 'mens rea'?
a. Sweet v. Parsley
b. Sherras v. De Rutzen
c. Nathulal v. State of Madhya Pradesh
d. M.H. Hoskot v. State of Maharashtra
128. Under which of the following Section of the BNSS, 2023 shall the Magistrate dismiss the complaint?
a. Section 225(3)
b. Section 225(2)
c. Section 227(2)
d. Section 226
129. 'A', a police officer, tortures 'B' in order to induce 'B' to confess that he committed a crime. Under which of the following Section of the BNS is the police officer guilty of an offence?
a. Section 120(1)
b. Section 118(2)
c. Section 117(2)
d. Section 123
130. The provision of 'civil aviation personnel to be police force' was inserted by:
a. U.P. Act No. 33 of 2001
b. U.P. Act No. 32 of 2000
c. U.P. Act No. 32 of 2001
d. U.P. Act No. 33 of 2000
131. The Bharatiya Nagrik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 is divided into:
a. Chapter XXXVII, Section 484
b. Chapter XXXIX, Section 531
c. Chapter XXXIX, Section 484
d.Chapter XXXVII, Section 531
132. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
A. Opinion as to
handwriting
when relevant - i. Section 20
of BSA, 2023
B. Statement of relevant
fact by person who is
dead or cannot be found - ii. Section 41(1)
of BSA, 2023
C. Previous good character
in criminal cases
is relevant - iii. Section 26
of BSA, 2023
D. Oral admissions as to
contents of documents
are relevant - iv. Section 47
of BSA, 2023
Codes:
a. A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii
b. A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
c. A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
d. A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii
133. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Subject Matter) (Section of Bharatiya
Nyaya Sanhita, 2023)
A. Dowry death i. Section 22
B. Act of person
of unsound mind ii. Section 80
C. Punishment for rape iii. Section 114
D. Hurt iv. Section 64
Codes:
a. A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv
b. A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii
c. A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
d. A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
134. 'A', a private doctor running his own clinic, refuses to provide medical treatment to 'B', a victim of acid attack.
'A' is liable under which one of the following Section of the BNS?
a. Section 202
b. Section 201
c. Section 203
d. Section 200
135. In which of the following case the Supreme Court affirmed that the fifteen days police custody must be sought within the first forty days for offence punishable up to ten years of imprisonment?
a. Satendra Kumar Antil v. CBI
b. Arnab Goswami v. State of Maharashtra
c. Sushila Agrawal v. NCT
d. Hyder Ali v. State of Karnataka & Others
136. 'A', knowing that her husband 'B' has committed murder, knowingly conceals in order to save him from legal punishment. 'A' is liable for:
a. Abetment by aid
b. Harbouring
c. Murder by reason of having common intention
d. No offence
137. Any member of a group or gang, either singly or jointly, selling public examination question papers, commits the offence of:
a. Petty organised crime
b. Receiving stolen property
c. Terrorist act
d. Organised crime
138. Anything discovered in consequence of information received from accused may be proved under proviso of Section 23(2) of Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023. The Supreme Court held presence of two independent witnesses essential at the time of receiving information and discovery of thing on such information in the case of:
a. State of Rajasthan v. Raja Ram (2023) 8 SCC 180
b. Subramanya v. State of Karnataka AIR 2022 SC 5110
c. Chandrapal v. State of Chhattisgarh, AIR 2022 SC 2542
d. Ramanand alias Nandlal Bharti v. State of U.P. AIR 2022 SC 5273
139. When may the evidence of previous bad character of an accused be relevant in criminal proceedings?
a. When evidence of good character of accused has been given.
b. When previous bad character relates to offence committed against a child.
c. When previous bad character is highly immoral.
d. When previous bad character relates to economic offence.
140. Which one of the following Schedule of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection?
a. Tenth Schedule
b. Fifth Schedule
c. Second Schedule
d. Eighth Schedule
141. Which one of the following provision of BSA, 2023 provides that "Where a video recording is simultaneously stored in electronic form and transmitted or broadcast or transferred to another, each of the stored recordings is considered primary evidence"?
a. Explanation 4 of Section 57
b. Explanation 6 of Section 57
c. Explanation 7 of Section 57
d. Explanation 5 of Section 57
142. In which of the following Section of the Police Act, 1861, the provision for the appointment of special police officer has been provided?
a. Section 17
b. Section 20
c. Section 16
d. Section 19
143. A person above eighteen years of age takes the risk of death with his own consent. The act causing the death of the above person is:
a. Murder
b. Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
c. Attempt to murder
d. Grievous hurt
144. In which chapter of BNSS, 2023, the general provisions as to inquiries and trials are provided?
a. 29
b. 28
c. 27
d. 26
145. 'Money Bill' is defined in which Article of the Constitution of India?
a. Article 109
b. Article 107
c. Article 110
d. Article 108
146. 'A' threatens 'Z' by sending a message through an electronic device that, "Your child is in my possession and will be put to death unless you send me ten lakh rupees." 'A' thus induces 'Z' to give him money. 'A' has committed which offence under the BNS, 2023?
a. Extortion
b. Dacoity
c. Theft
d. Robbery
147. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
a. Bailable offence : Section 2(1)(c)
BNSS, 2023
b. Inquiry : Section 2(1)(k)
BNSS, 2023
c. Cognizable offence : Section 2(1)(d)
BNSS, 2023
d. Investigation : Section 2(1)(l)
BNSS, 2023
148. The power of 'judicial review' of the Supreme Court of India means the power to:
a. review its own judgments
b. examine the constitutionality of the laws
c. review the functioning of judiciary in the country
d. undertake periodic review of the Constitution
149. The District Judges are appointed by:
a. The Chief Minister of the State
b. The State Public Service Commission
c. The Chief Justice of High Court
d. The Governor of the State
150. The period of limitation to file an appeal against conviction by a proclaimed offender under Section 356 of the BNSS, 2023 is:
a. 3 years
b. 1 year
c. 6 months
d. 2 years