The National Security Act MCQs Set-1
The National Security Act MCQs Set-1
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National Security Act One Liner Notes
1. The National Security Act, 1980 was enacted in the year—
a. 1978
b. 1980
c. 1982
d. 1984
2. The Act number of the National Security Act, 1980 is—
a. Act No. 65 of 1980
b. Act No. 31 of 1980
c. Act No. 65 of 1982
d. Act No. 4 of 1980
3. The National Security Act, 1980 came into force on—
a. 15th August, 1980
b. 27th December, 1980
c. 26th January, 1980
d. 1st January, 1981
4. The long title of the National Security Act, 1980 indicates that it provides for—
a. Regulation of explosive substances
b. Preventive detention in certain cases and connected matters
c. Licensing of arms and ammunition
d. Civil compensation for unlawful acts
5. The phrase “BE it enacted by Parliament in the Thirty-first Year of the Republic of India” signifies—
a. Parliamentary enactment
b. Presidential ordinance
c. State legislation
d. Delegated legislation
6. The National Security Act, 1980 is primarily aimed at—
a. Regulating industrial safety
b. Preventive detention for maintaining public order and national security
c. Import and export control
d. Defining criminal liability for explosives
7. The expression “for matters connected therewith” in the long title implies—
a. The Act deals only with preventive detention
b. The Act also covers ancillary provisions related to detention
c. The Act repeals all previous laws
d. The Act prescribes only procedural safeguards
8. The National Security Act, 1980 was enacted by—
a. The State Legislature
b. Parliament of India
c. Supreme Court of India
d. Central Government through notification
9. Which of the following is TRUE regarding the NSA, 1980 preamble?
a. It deals with licensing of explosives
b. It provides preventive detention and related matters
c. It applies to industrial security only
d. It limits detention to foreign nationals
10. The NSA, 1980 reflects the legislative intent to—
a. Punish completed offences
b. Prevent potential threats to public order and national security
c. Regulate explosives
d. Provide civil compensation
11. Section 1(1) of the National Security Act, 1980 provides the—
a. Commencement date
b. Short title
c. Territorial extent
d. Definition of preventive detention
12. The short title of the Act is—
a. National Security Act, 1978
b. National Security Act, 1980
c. Preventive Detention Act, 1980
d. National Security and Detention Act, 1980
13. Section 1(2) of the NSA, 1980 provides that the Act—
a. Applies only to specified states
b. Extends to the whole of India
c. Applies only to Indian citizens abroad
d. Applies only to Union Territories
14. The phrase “extends to the whole of India” signifies—
a. Limited territorial application
b. Application in all states and union territories
c. Extra-territorial application
d. Only central government employees are covered
15. Under Section 2(a), “appropriate Government” means—
a. Only the Central Government
b. Only the State Government
c. Central Government for orders it makes, State Government for orders it makes or its subordinate officers make
d. The local police only
16. As per Section 2(a), the “appropriate Government” for a detention order made by a State Government includes—
a. Only the State Government
b. Only the officer issuing the order
c. The State Government and its subordinate officer issuing the order
d. The Central Government
17. Section 2(b) defines “detention order” as—
a. Any arrest order under CrPC
b. An order made under Section 3 of the NSA, 1980
c. A judicial warrant issued for criminal trial
d. Any preventive detention order under any law
18. Under Section 2(c), “foreigner” has the same meaning as in—
a. The Passport Act, 1967
b. The Foreigners Act, 1946
c. The Citizenship Act, 1955
d. The CrPC
19. The term “person” in Section 2(d) includes—
a. Only Indian citizens
b. Only State Government officials
c. Foreigners as well
d. Only residents of India
20. According to Section 2(e), “State Government” in relation to a Union territory means—
a. The elected legislature of the territory
b. The administrator of the Union territory
c. The Central Government only
d. The local police
21. Why does Section 2(e) define “State Government” for Union territories?
a. To exclude Union territories from preventive detention
b. To clarify that the administrator acts as the State Government for NSA purposes
c. To give powers to Central Government only
d. To limit detention to citizens
22. Section 2 ensures clarity in preventive detention powers by—
a. Limiting detention only to offences under CrPC
b. Defining key terms such as “appropriate Government” and “detention order”
c. Excluding foreigners from detention
d. Defining punishment
23. Under Section 3(1), which authorities can make a preventive detention order?
a. Judiciary only
b. Police only
c. Central Government or State Government
d. District Magistrate only
24. Section 3(1)(a) allows detention of a person to prevent action prejudicial to—
a. Only public order
b. Defence of India, relations with foreign powers, or security of India
c. Only supplies and services
d. Only foreign relations
25. Section 3(1)(b) applies specifically to—
a. Indian citizens only
b. Foreigners
c. State Government employees
d. Union Territory administrators
26. The purpose of detention under Section 3(1)(b) for foreigners includes—
a. Punishment for crimes
b. Regulating continued presence or making arrangements for expulsion
c. Public order violations only
d. Administrative convenience
27. Section 3(2) allows detention to prevent actions prejudicial to—
a. Only national security
b. Security of the State, maintenance of public order, or maintenance of supplies and services essential to the community
c. Only foreign relations
d. Only Central Government functioning
28. The phrase “it is necessary so to do” in Section 3 indicates—
a. Mandatory detention for all suspicious persons
b. Discretionary preventive detention based on satisfaction of government authority
c. Automatic arrest powers
d. Requirement of court order
29. Which of the following is TRUE regarding citizens vs foreigners under Section 3?
a. Citizens can be detained for defence, foreign relations, or security of India
b. Foreigners can be detained for regulating presence or expulsion
c. Citizens can also be detained for security of the State, public order, or essential services
d. All of the above
30. Section 3(2) focuses primarily on—
a. National security
b. State security, public order, and essential community services
c. Expulsion of foreigners
d. Defence of India
31. The Central Government can detain a person—
a. Only under Section 3(1)
b. Only under Section 3(2)
c. Under both Section 3(1) and 3(2)
d. Only with court approval
32. The State Government can detain a person under Section 3 for—
a. Security of the State, maintenance of public order, or essential services
b. Defence of India or foreign relations
c. Expulsion arrangements for foreigners
d. None of the above
33. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a. Section 3 allows preventive detention without any grounds
b. Detention under Section 3 requires satisfaction that it is necessary to prevent prejudicial acts
c. Only judiciary can issue detention orders
d. Section 3 applies only to foreigners
34. “Maintenance of supplies and services essential to the community” under Section 3(2) refers to—
a. Only defence supplies
b. Any supplies and services critical to public life and community functioning
c. Only foreign trade
d. Only government services
35. Which of the following is a ground for detention under Section 3(1) for Indian citizens?
a. Acts prejudicial to defence of India
b. Acts prejudicial to relations with foreign powers
c. Acts prejudicial to security of India
d. All of the above
36. The words “Central Government or the State Government may, if satisfied” indicate that—
a. Detention is automatic
b. Government authorities have discretion based on satisfaction
c. Courts must approve detention
d. Only police can detain
37. Preventive detention under Section 3 can be made—
a. Only after a crime has been committed
b. Even before any act prejudicial has occurred
c. Only with a judicial warrant
d. Only against foreigners
38. The Explanation to Section 3(2) clarifies that “acting in any manner prejudicial to the maintenance of supplies and services essential to the community” does NOT include—
a. Acts affecting defence of India
b. Acts prejudicial to supplies of commodities essential to the community under the Essential Commodities Act, 1980
c. Acts affecting public order
d. Acts affecting security of the State
39. The purpose of this Explanation is to—
a. Expand the grounds of preventive detention under NSA
b. Prevent orders of detention under NSA on grounds already covered by the Essential Commodities Act
c. Allow detention for black marketing offences
d. Give additional powers to State Government
40. Which Act is cross-referenced in this Explanation?
a. Explosive Substances Act, 1908
b. Prevention of Black-marketing and Maintenance of Supplies of Essential Commodities Act, 1980
c. Indian Penal Code, 1860
d. Foreigners Act, 1946
41. According to the Explanation, no detention order under NSA shall be made on—
a. Grounds related to national security
b. Grounds covered under the Essential Commodities Act, 1980
c. Grounds related to public order
d. Grounds related to foreign relations
42. The cross-reference to Section 3(1) of the Essential Commodities Act, 1980 is significant because—
a. It defines “preventive detention”
b. It defines “supplies of commodities essential to the community”
c. It defines “foreigners”
d. It defines “appropriate Government”
43. The effect of this Explanation ensures that—
a. NSA detention powers are automatically applied to all economic offences
b. NSA detention powers do not overlap with detention powers under the Essential Commodities Act
c. Detention can be made even if Essential Commodities Act applies
d. Only Central Government can detain
44. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
a. Any black-marketing offence can now be punished under NSA
b. Preventive detention under NSA cannot be invoked for grounds already covered under the Essential Commodities Act
c. Essential Commodities Act only applies to foreigners
d. NSA and Essential Commodities Act are independent and overlapping by design
45. The Explanation restricts the application of Section 3(2) to—
a. Only foreign nationals
b. Only non-economic offences affecting community supplies and services
c. Only industrial offences
d. Only black-marketing offences
46. The legislative intent of this Explanation is to—
a. Expand NSA powers
b. Avoid double jeopardy for economic offences
c. Limit Central Government powers
d. Apply NSA to all public order offences
47. After this Explanation, preventive detention under Section 3(2) can be made for—
a. Any act affecting supplies under the Essential Commodities Act
b. Acts prejudicial to security of State, public order, or essential services not already covered under other law
c. Only economic offences
d. Only offences by foreigners
48. Under Section 3(3), the State Government may authorize which officers to exercise preventive detention powers locally?
a. Police constables
b. District Magistrates or Commissioners of Police
c. Judiciary
d. Central Government officials
49. The delegation of powers under Section 3(3) is subject to—
a. Satisfaction that it is necessary having regard to prevailing or likely circumstances in the area
b. Approval by the Central Government only
c. Judicial review before exercise
d. Citizens’ consent
50. According to Section 3(3), the initial period specified in an order by the State Government shall not exceed—
a. One month
b. Three months
c. Six months
d. Twelve months
51. Under Section 3(3), the State Government may extend the order from time to time, but the extension period at any one time cannot exceed—
a. One month
b. Three months
c. Six months
d. Twelve months
52. Section 3(4) requires that any order made by a District Magistrate or Commissioner of Police shall—
a. Remain valid indefinitely
b. Be reported forthwith to the State Government with grounds and relevant particulars
c. Require approval from Central Government first
d. Not require reporting
53. An order made under Section 3(4) shall not remain in force for more than—
a. 7 days unless approved by State Government
b. 12 days unless approved by State Government
c. 15 days unless approved by Central Government
d. 30 days unless approved by State Government
54. When the grounds of detention are communicated under Section 8 within five to fifteen days, the period in Section 3(4) is modified to—
a. 12 days → 15 days
b. 12 days → 20 days
c. 12 days → 10 days
d. 12 days → 30 days
55. Section 3(5) mandates that the State Government shall report the detention order to the Central Government within—
a. 3 days
b. 7 days
c. 12 days
d. 15 days
56. The report by the State Government to the Central Government must include—
a. Only the name of the detainee
b. Grounds of the order and any particulars bearing on necessity for the order
c. Only duration of detention
d. Only administrative details
57. Section 3(3)–(5) collectively ensure that—
a. Local officers can detain without approval
b. Preventive detention orders have local application with State oversight, reporting requirements, and time limits
c. Central Government approval is mandatory before detention
d. Detention is unlimited in duration
58. The purpose of the modifications when grounds are communicated under Section 8 (5–15 days) is to—
a. Reduce maximum detention period
b. Adjust the period for which an unapproved order can remain in force
c. Allow detention without reporting
d. Allow only foreigners to be detained
59. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding Section 3(3)–(5)?
a. State Government may delegate preventive detention powers locally with conditions
b. Orders must be reported promptly to the State and then Central Government
c. Orders cannot exceed specified periods without approval
d. All of the above
60. Section 4 of the NSA, 1980 deals with—
a. Grounds for preventive detention
b. Execution of detention orders
c. Maximum detention period
d. Reporting to Central Government
61. A detention order under NSA, 1980 may be executed at—
a. Only in the district of issue
b. Only in the state where the detainee resides
c. Any place in India
d. Only in Central Government premises
62. The manner of execution of a detention order under Section 4 follows—
a. Summary trial procedure
b. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 provisions for execution of warrants of arrest
c. Executive instructions only
d. No prescribed procedure
63. Section 4 ensures that detention orders are—
a. Limited to local police jurisdictions
b. Enforceable nationwide in a standard manner
c. Only applicable in union territories
d. Executed only by the judiciary
64. Section 5 of the NSA, 1980 primarily deals with—
a. Grounds for preventive detention
b. Regulation of place and conditions of detention
c. Maximum detention period
d. Advisory board review
65. Under Section 5(a), the appropriate Government can specify—
a. Grounds of detention only
b. Place and conditions of detention, including maintenance, discipline, and punishment for breaches of discipline
c. Duration of detention only
d. Release procedures
66. Under Section 5(b), the appropriate Government can—
a. Only release a detainee
b. Remove a detainee from one place of detention to another, within the same State or to another State
c. Extend detention indefinitely
d. Only transfer detainees within a single district
67. For removal of a detainee from one State to another State under Section 5(b), the State Government must—
a. Obtain approval from Central Government
b. Obtain consent of the Government of the other State
c. Notify the judiciary
d. Take no permission
68. The phrase “conditions as to maintenance, discipline and punishment for breaches of discipline” implies—
a. Arbitrary detention without any rules
b. The Government can prescribe rules for how detainees are maintained and disciplined
c. Detainees can be punished without limit
d. Only food and accommodation are regulated
69. Which of the following is TRUE regarding transfers under Section 5(b)?
a. Detainees cannot be moved outside the district
b. Transfers within the same State can be done by the appropriate Government
c. Transfers to another State require judicial approval
d. Central Government approval is mandatory for all transfers
70. The consent requirement under Section 5 ensures that—
a. State Governments can freely transfer detainees to any other State
b. State Governments must obtain consent from the receiving State before inter-state transfer
c. Detainees cannot be moved under any circumstances
d. Central Government controls all transfers
71. Section 5 gives power to the appropriate Government to—
a. Detain persons indefinitely
b. Specify conditions of detention and regulate transfers
c. Try detainees for offences
d. Grant bail
72. “Appropriate Government” under Section 5 refers to—
a. Only Central Government
b. Only State Government
c. Central Government or State Government as defined in Section 2
d. Judiciary
73. Section 5 ensures—
a. Uniformity and legal regulation of place, conditions, and transfer of detainees
b. Arbitrary detention and punishment
c. Detention outside India
d. Judicial discretion for all transfers
74. Section 5A of NSA, 1980 deals with—
a. Maximum period of detention
b. Grounds of detention severable
c. Advisory board review
d. Execution of detention orders
75. If a detention order under Section 3 is made on multiple grounds, Section 5A provides that—
a. The entire order is invalid if one ground is defective
b. The order is deemed to have been made separately on each ground
c. Only the first ground is considered
d. The order must be reissued
76. Under Section 5A(a), a detention order is NOT invalid merely because some grounds are—
a. Vague
b. Non-existent
c. Not relevant, or not connected/proximately connected with the person
d. All of the above
77. The principle in Section 5A ensures that—
a. All grounds must be perfect for a valid detention
b. Defects in one or more grounds do not invalidate the entire detention order
c. Detention cannot be made on multiple grounds
d. Detention is limited to a single ground only
78. Section 5A(b) declares that the Government or officer making the order—
a. Is deemed to have made the order only on the first ground
b. Is deemed to have made the order after being satisfied with reference to the remaining valid ground(s)
c. Must re-issue the order
d. Cannot detain a person if any ground is invalid
79. Which of the following is TRUE about Section 5A?
a. Prevents orders from being struck down if some grounds are defective
b. Applies only to orders made after 1984
c. Invalidates the entire detention order if one ground is invalid
d. Applies only to foreign nationals
80. The severability principle under Section 5A applies to—
a. Vague grounds
b. Non-existent grounds
c. Grounds not connected or not relevant
d. All of the above
81. Section 5A was inserted by—
a. National Security (First Amendment) Act, 1980
b. National Security (Second Amendment) Act, 1984
c. National Security (Amendment) Act, 1990
d. Criminal Law Amendment Act, 1983
82. The practical effect of Section 5A is that—
a. Preventive detention orders are more likely to withstand judicial scrutiny
b. Detention orders are automatically invalid if any defect exists
c. Grounds of detention cannot be challenged in court
d. Advisory boards are unnecessary
83. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
a. Section 5A allows defective grounds to invalidate a detention order
b. Section 5A applies to orders made before or after 1984 amendment
c. Section 5A upholds detention on remaining valid grounds
d. Section 5A reduces the risk of a detention order being struck down entirely
84. Section 6 of the NSA, 1980 primarily deals with—
a. Maximum detention period
b. Advisory board review
c. Validity of detention orders despite territorial limits
d. Execution of detention orders
85. According to Section 6(a), a detention order is NOT invalid merely because—
a. The detainee is a foreigner
b. The person to be detained is outside the territorial jurisdiction of the Government or officer issuing the order
c. The detention is for public order reasons
d. The grounds of detention are vague
86. Section 6(b) provides that a detention order remains valid even if—
a. The detainee is transferred within the same district
b. The place of detention is outside the territorial jurisdiction of the authority issuing the order
c. The Central Government is unaware
d. The detention is longer than allowed
87. The main purpose of Section 6 is to—
a. Limit detention orders to local jurisdiction
b. Prevent technical challenges based on territorial jurisdiction
c. Allow detention only within state boundaries
d. Give judiciary powers over detention locations
88. Which of the following statements is TRUE about Section 6?
a. Detention orders become invalid if the detainee is outside the issuing officer’s jurisdiction
b. Detention orders remain valid regardless of where the detainee is or where they are held
c. Only Central Government can issue valid detention orders outside jurisdiction
d. Section 6 applies only to foreigners
89. Section 6 ensures that—
a. Inter-state transfer of detainees is prohibited
b. Territorial limits do not affect validity of detention orders
c. Only local police can detain
d. Advisory board approval is mandatory for validity
90. The practical effect of Section 6 is that—
a. Preventive detention orders can be challenged on territorial grounds
b. Preventive detention orders cannot be invalidated merely because of jurisdictional technicalities
c. Detention orders are invalid if executed outside district limits
d. Section 6 repeals Section 5
91. Section 6 complements which other NSA provision regarding transfer of detainees?
a. Section 3
b. Section 4
c. Section 5
d. Section 5A
92. Section 7 of the NSA, 1980 primarily deals with—
a. Maximum period of detention
b. Powers in relation to absconding or concealing persons
c. Advisory board review
d. Execution of detention orders
93. If a person in respect of whom a detention order has been made absconds, the Central or State Government or the officer may—
a. Revoke the detention order
b. Make a written report to a Metropolitan or Judicial Magistrate of First Class in the person’s ordinary place of residence
c. Detain without reporting
d. Cancel the detention order
94. Section 7(1)(b) allows the Government or officer to—
a. Arrest any person without notice
b. Notify in the Official Gazette directing the person to appear before the officer, specifying place and period
c. Transfer the detainee to another State
d. Detain without any procedure
95. Upon making a report under Section 7(1)(a), which provisions of CrPC apply?
a. Sections 41–50
b. Sections 82, 83, 84, and 85
c. Sections 100–120
d. Sections 197–200
96. The CrPC provisions applied under Section 7(2) treat the detention order as—
a. An advisory order
b. A warrant issued by the Magistrate
c. A civil notice
d. A preventive measure without legal force
97. If a person fails to comply with an appearance order under Section 7(1)(b), he may be punished with—
a. Imprisonment up to 1 year, fine, or both
b. Only fine
c. Only imprisonment for life
d. No punishment
98. To avoid punishment under Section 7(3), the absconding person must—
a. Surrender immediately without explanation
b. Prove that it was impossible to comply and inform the officer of his reasons and whereabouts within the specified period
c. Leave the country
d. Obtain Central Government permission
99. Section 7(4) specifies that every offence under sub-section (3) shall be—
a. Cognizable
b. Non-cognizable
c. Compoundable only
d. Non-punishable
100. The official to whom the report under Section 7(1)(a) is made is—
a. Any police officer
b. Metropolitan Magistrate or Judicial Magistrate of First Class in the person’s ordinary place of residence
c. Central Government official
d. District Collector only
101. The practical effect of Section 7 is—
a. To ensure absconding detainees are traceable and compelled to appear legally
b. To allow arbitrary detention
c. To repeal Section 3
d. To limit the Government’s powers to only local jurisdictions
102. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding Section 7?
a. Failure to comply with an appearance order is non-cognizable
b. The Government can only warn an absconding person without legal effect
c. The person can be punished, and CrPC Sections 82–85 apply as if it were a Magistrate’s warrant
d. Only Central Government can initiate proceedings
103. Section 7 ensures—
a. Preventive detention orders cannot be enforced if the detainee absconds
b. Legal and procedural steps exist to enforce detention even if a person is concealing himself
c. Central Government cannot act
d. Magistrates cannot be involved
104. Section 8 of the NSA, 1980 primarily deals with—
a. Maximum detention period
b. Communication of grounds of detention to the detainee
c. Advisory board review
d. Powers of absconding persons
105. Normally, the authority making the detention order must communicate the grounds to the detainee within—
a. 3 days
b. 5 days
c. 10 days
d. 15 days
106. In exceptional circumstances, the authority may extend the time for communicating the grounds to—
a. 10 days
b. 12 days
c. 15 days
d. 20 days
107. The communication of grounds under Section 8 must include—
a. The full text of the NSA
b. The grounds on which the detention order has been made
c. Only the duration of detention
d. Only the authority issuing the order
108. Section 8 requires the authority to afford the detainee—
a. Opportunity to appeal to the judiciary only
b. Earliest opportunity to make a representation against the order to the appropriate Government
c. No opportunity
d. Only post-release representation
109. Section 8(2) provides that the authority is NOT required to disclose—
a. Grounds of detention at all
b. Facts which it considers against public interest to disclose
c. Duration of detention
d. Place of detention
110. “Exceptional circumstances” under Section 8 allow extension of the timeline for communication to—
a. 5 days
b. 10 days
c. 15 days
d. 20 days
111. Section 8 safeguards the detainee’s rights by—
a. Allowing unlimited detention
b. Ensuring the detainee knows the grounds and can represent against the order
c. Preventing judicial review
d. Restricting representation to the Central Government only
112. The phrase “as soon as may be, but ordinarily not later than five days” indicates—
a. Mandatory immediate disclosure without exceptions
b. A flexible timeline with a normal limit of five days
c. The detainee has no right to know grounds
d. Grounds must be disclosed after 15 days
113. Section 8 balances the rights of the detainee and public interest by—
a. Allowing indefinite delay in communication
b. Permitting withholding of facts considered against public interest while still allowing representation
c. Requiring full disclosure regardless of national security
d. Repealing all safeguards
114. Section 9 of the NSA, 1980 primarily deals with—
a. Powers of absconding persons
b. Constitution of Advisory Boards for review of detention orders
c. Maximum period of detention
d. Communication of grounds of detention
115. Who is responsible for constituting Advisory Boards under Section 9?
a. Only Central Government
b. Only State Governments
c. Both Central and State Governments whenever necessary
d. Judiciary alone
116. Each Advisory Board must consist of—
a. Two persons qualified to be District Judges
b. Three persons who are, have been, or are qualified to be Judges of a High Court
c. Five persons from the executive
d. Only retired IAS officers
117. Who appoints the members of the Advisory Board?
a. Chief Justice of India
b. Appropriate Government (Central or State Government)
c. President of India
d. District Magistrate
118. How is the Chairman of the Advisory Board appointed?
a. Any member can elect
b. One member who is, or has been, a High Court Judge is appointed by the appropriate Government
c. Chief Justice appoints
d. Central Government only
119. For Advisory Boards in Union territories, the appointment of a High Court Judge requires—
a. No approval
b. Previous approval of the concerned State Government
c. Approval of the Chief Justice of India
d. Approval of the President only
120. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding Advisory Boards under Section 9?
a. Boards can have any number of members
b. Members must be or have been High Court Judges or qualified to be High Court Judges
c. Only retired Supreme Court judges can be appointed
d. The Chairman must always be from the Central Government
121. The purpose of constituting Advisory Boards is to—
a. Approve inter-state transfers of detainees
b. Review detention orders under the NSA
c. Execute detention orders
d. Grant bail to detainees
122. How many members must an Advisory Board have?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Five
123. Section 9 ensures that the review of detention orders is—
a. Executive-controlled without judicial oversight
b. Done by senior or qualified judicial officers to ensure impartiality
c. Performed only by police officials
d. Optional for the detainee
124. Section 10 of the NSA, 1980 primarily deals with—
a. Powers in relation to absconding persons
b. Reference of detention orders to Advisory Boards
c. Execution of detention orders
d. Communication of grounds of detention
125. According to Section 10, the appropriate Government must place a detention order before the Advisory Board—
a. Within one week of detention
b. Within three weeks from the date of detention
c. Within one month
d. Within six months
126. The Advisory Board receives—
a. Only the detention order
b. The grounds of detention, representation by the detainee (if any), and officer’s report (if applicable)
c. Only the detainee’s representation
d. Only the officer’s report
127. Section 10 applies to detention orders made—
a. Only by Central Government
b. Only by State Government
c. By any officer under the NSA, except as expressly provided otherwise
d. Only to foreigners
128. The officer’s report required under Section 10 is applicable when—
a. The order is made by the Central Government
b. The order is made under Section 3(3) by an officer mentioned therein
c. The detainee is a foreigner
d. There is no representation
129. The purpose of placing the detention order before the Advisory Board is to—
a. Ensure judicial oversight and review of preventive detention
b. Execute detention orders
c. Transfer detainees
d. Grant bail
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