The National Security Act MCQs Set-2
The National Security Act MCQs Set-2
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1. Which of the following must be included when a detention order is referred to the Advisory Board?
a. Grounds of detention
b. Representation by the detainee
c. Officer’s report (if order under Section 3(3))
d. All of the above
2. The “three weeks” timeline in Section 10 ensures that—
a. Advisory Board review is delayed indefinitely
b. Advisory Board review occurs promptly after detention
c. Detainees can escape review
d. Only Central Government can review
3. Section 10 safeguards detainees’ rights by—
a. Allowing the Advisory Board to review the detention order and representations
b. Removing all procedural safeguards
c. Allowing indefinite detention without review
d. Permitting arbitrary executive action
4. Section 10 ensures that—
a. Detention orders are placed before the Advisory Board even if there is no representation by the detainee
b. Only orders with representations are reviewed
c. Advisory Board review is optional
d. Officers can skip reporting
5. Section 11 of the NSA, 1980 primarily deals with—
a. Maximum detention period
b. Procedure of Advisory Boards
c. Communication of grounds of detention
d. Powers in relation to absconding persons
6. The Advisory Board must submit its report to the appropriate Government within—
a. Three weeks
b. Five weeks
c. Seven weeks from the date of detention
d. Ten weeks
7. In preparing its report, the Advisory Board may—
a. Call further information from the appropriate Government
b. Call any person through the appropriate Government
c. Call the detainee if deemed essential or if the detainee desires to be heard
d. All of the above
8. The Advisory Board’s report must specify—
a. The duration of detention
b. The opinion on whether sufficient cause exists for detention
c. The personal history of the detainee
d. The financial status of the detainee
9. If members of the Advisory Board differ in opinion, the final opinion of the Board is—
a. The opinion of the chairman
b. The opinion of the Central Government
c. The opinion of the majority of members
d. Not considered
10. Under Section 11, is a detainee allowed to be represented by a legal practitioner before the Advisory Board?
a. Yes, always
b. No, never
c. Only with permission of the appropriate Government
d. Only in cases involving foreigners
11. Which part of the Advisory Board’s report is NOT confidential?
a. All parts are confidential
b. The part specifying the opinion of the Board on sufficiency of cause
c. The entire report
d. Officer’s report
12. Section 11 ensures detainee participation in Advisory Board proceedings by—
a. Mandatory in-person hearing in all cases
b. Hearing only if the Board considers it essential or if the detainee requests
c. Always allowing legal representation
d. Hearing not allowed under any circumstances
13. The purpose of Section 11 is to—
a. Execute detention orders
b. Provide a confidential, judicial review mechanism for preventive detention orders
c. Communicate grounds of detention
d. Allow police to detain without review
14. The proceedings and report of the Advisory Board under Section 11 are—
a. Completely public
b. Confidential except for the opinion part
c. Confidential only for foreigners
d. Shared with the police
15. Section 12 of the NSA, 1980 primarily deals with—
a. Procedure of Advisory Boards
b. Action by the appropriate Government on the Advisory Board’s report
c. Maximum period of detention
d. Powers in relation to absconding persons
16. If the Advisory Board reports that there is sufficient cause for detention, the appropriate Government—
a. Must release the person immediately
b. May confirm the detention order and continue detention for such period as it thinks fit
c. Cannot continue detention under any circumstances
d. Must seek judicial approval
17. If the Advisory Board reports that there is no sufficient cause for detention, the appropriate Government—
a. May continue detention at its discretion
b. Shall revoke the detention order and release the person forthwith
c. Can extend detention for 30 days
d. May consult another Advisory Board
18. Section 12 makes the Government’s action—
a. Mandatory if the Board reports insufficient cause
b. Optional even if the Board reports insufficient cause
c. Discretionary in all cases
d. Subject to police approval
19. When the Advisory Board reports sufficient cause, the period for which the detention can continue—
a. Is fixed by law at three months
b. Can be any period the Government thinks fit
c. Cannot exceed one week
d. Must be approved by the judiciary
20. The purpose of Section 12 is to—
a. Allow arbitrary detention
b. Ensure the Government acts on Advisory Board recommendations either by continuing or revoking detention
c. Limit detention only to foreigners
d. Permit indefinite detention without review
21. Which of the following statements is TRUE under Section 12?
a. The Government may ignore the Advisory Board’s opinion
b. The Government must revoke the detention order if the Board finds no sufficient cause
c. The Board itself can release the detainee
d. Police can decide irrespective of the Board
22. Section 12 ensures that the Advisory Board’s report—
a. Is purely advisory with no legal effect
b. Has binding effect on the Government’s decision to revoke detention if no sufficient cause exists
c. Can be ignored by the State Government at its discretion
d. Only provides recommendations for documentation
23. In practical terms, Section 12 guarantees—
a. Detainees are never released
b. Detainees are released promptly if no sufficient cause exists, ensuring a safeguard against arbitrary detention
c. Advisory Board opinions are confidential but irrelevant
d. Detention is extended automatically without review
24. Section 12 balances—
a. Executive discretion and judicial oversight
b. Advisory Board authority and detainee representation
c. Preventive detention powers and detainee rights
d. Police powers and public interest
25. Section 13 of the National Security Act, 1980 deals with—
a. Grounds of detention
b. Constitution of Advisory Boards
c. Maximum period of detention
d. Execution of detention orders
26. Under Section 13 of the NSA, 1980, the maximum period for which a person may be detained is—
a. Three months from the date of detention
b. Six months from the date of detention
c. Twelve months from the date of detention
d. Twelve months from the date of confirmation
27. The maximum period of detention under Section 13 is calculated from—
a. The date of confirmation under Section 12
b. The date of arrest
c. The date of detention
d. The date of reference to the Advisory Board
28. Section 13 applies only when the detention order—
a. Is made by a District Magistrate
b. Is made by the Central Government
c. Has been confirmed under Section 12
d. Is challenged before the High Court
29. The proviso to Section 13 clarifies that—
a. Detention must continue for twelve months in all cases
b. The detention order cannot be revoked before twelve months
c. The appropriate Government may revoke or modify the detention order at any earlier time
d. Only courts can revoke detention orders
30. Which of the following statements is CORRECT regarding Section 13?
a. Twelve months is the minimum period of detention
b. Detention automatically ends after six months
c. Detention cannot exceed twelve months from the date of detention
d. Detention can be extended beyond twelve months with court approval
31. The phrase “shall be twelve months” under Section 13 indicates that—
a. Detention must last for twelve months
b. Detention may extend up to twelve months but not beyond
c. Detention must be reviewed every month
d. Detention can continue indefinitely
32. Even after confirmation under Section 12, the appropriate Government—
a. Loses all control over the detention order
b. Can revoke or modify the detention order at any earlier time
c. Must wait for twelve months to revoke detention
d. Requires Advisory Board approval to revoke detention
33. Section 13 reflects which constitutional principle?
a. Absolute executive discretion
b. Judicial supremacy
c. Safeguard against indefinite preventive detention
d. Police autonomy
34. The combined reading of Sections 12 and 13 shows that—
a. Detention can be confirmed but cannot exceed twelve months
b. Advisory Board can fix the period of detention
c. Detention begins only after confirmation
d. Twelve months is counted from the Advisory Board report
35. Section 14 of the National Security Act, 1980 deals with—
a. Maximum period of detention
b. Execution of detention orders
c. Revocation and modification of detention orders
d. Constitution of Advisory Boards
36. Section 14(1) begins with the phrase “Without prejudice to the provisions of”—
a. Section 3 of the NSA
b. Section 12 of the NSA
c. Section 21 of the General Clauses Act, 1897
d. Article 22 of the Constitution
37. The expression “without prejudice to Section 21 of the General Clauses Act, 1897” implies—
a. Section 21 does not apply
b. Section 14 overrides Section 21
c. Powers under Section 21 continue to apply independently
d. Section 21 applies only to Central Government orders
38. A detention order made by an officer under Section 3(3) may be revoked or modified by—
a. Only the officer who made the order
b. Only the State Government
c. The State Government to which the officer is subordinate or the Central Government
d. Only the Advisory Board
39. A detention order made by a State Government may be revoked or modified by—
a. Only the State Government
b. The District Magistrate
c. The Central Government
d. The High Court
40. The phrase “notwithstanding that the order has been made by” in Section 14(1) signifies—
a. Lack of jurisdiction
b. Supremacy of courts
c. Overriding power of the revoking authority
d. Automatic revocation
41. Under Section 14(2), the expiry or revocation of a detention order—
a. Permanently bars fresh detention
b. Bars fresh detention for twelve months
c. Does not bar the making of another detention order
d. Requires Advisory Board permission
42. The “earlier detention order” and “subsequent detention order” terminology is used in—
a. Section 12
b. Section 13
c. Section 14(2)
d. Section 8
43. Section 14(2) applies to detention orders made—
a. Only after the 1984 amendment
b. Only before the 1984 amendment
c. Both before and after the commencement of the National Security (Second Amendment) Act, 1984
d. Only to Central Government orders
44. The proviso to Section 14(2) applies when—
a. Fresh facts arise after revocation
b. The Advisory Board reports sufficient cause
c. No fresh facts have arisen after expiry or revocation of the earlier detention order
d. Detention order is made by the Central Government
45. Where no fresh facts have arisen, the maximum period of detention under the subsequent detention order—
a. Shall be twelve months from the subsequent detention
b. Shall be six months from revocation
c. Shall not extend beyond twelve months from the date of detention under the earlier detention order
d. Shall be decided by the Advisory Board
46. The proviso to Section 14(2) acts as a safeguard against—
a. Judicial review
b. Indefinite preventive detention by successive orders
c. Central Government intervention
d. Revocation of detention orders
47. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a. A revoked detention order permanently disables fresh detention
b. A subsequent detention order always allows a fresh 12-month period
c. Without fresh facts, detention cannot exceed 12 months from the first detention
d. Section 14 overrides Section 13
48. Section 14, read with Section 13, ensures—
a. Absolute executive discretion
b. Judicial control over detention
c. A balance between executive power and personal liberty
d. Automatic release after one year
49. Which section of the NSA expressly permits revocation or modification of detention orders at any time?
a. Section 12
b. Section 13
c. Section 14
d. Section 21
50. Section 14A of the National Security Act, 1980 deals with—
a. Revocation of detention orders
b. Maximum period of detention
c. Detention beyond three months without Advisory Board opinion in specified circumstances
d. Constitution of Advisory Boards
51. Section 14A begins with the phrase “Notwithstanding anything contained in”—
a. This Act alone
b. Any judgment or decree only
c. This Act, or any judgment, decree or order of any court or other authority
d. The Constitution of India
52. Section 14A applies to detention orders made—
a. After 8th June, 1989
b. On or after 8th June, 1989
c. At any time before 8th June, 1989
d. Only during emergency
53. Under Section 14A(1), a person may be detained without obtaining the opinion of the Advisory Board for—
a. Any period
b. A period exceeding six months
c. A period longer than three months but not exceeding six months
d. Exactly six months
54. The period under Section 14A is calculated from—
a. The date of confirmation
b. The date of Advisory Board reference
c. The date of detention
d. The date of approval by Central Government
55. Section 14A applies only when the detention is made with a view to preventing a person in—
a. Any area in India
b. A notified emergency area
c. A disturbed area
d. A border area
56. Which of the following is NOT a requirement under Section 14A(1)?
a. Detention must relate to terrorist or disruptive activities
b. Detention must be in a disturbed area
c. Advisory Board opinion must be obtained
d. Detention must be for prevention purposes
57. Under Section 14A(1)(i), detention may be ordered to prevent a person from—
a. Acting against public morality
b. Interfering with the efforts of Government in coping with terrorist and disruptive activities
c. Committing ordinary criminal offences
d. Violating economic laws
58. Under Section 14A(1)(ii), acting in a manner prejudicial does NOT include—
a. Defence of India
b. Security of India
c. Maintenance of public order
d. Maintenance of supplies of commodities essential to the community
59. Which of the following IS included under Section 14A(1)(ii)?
a. Defence of India
b. Security of India
c. Security of the State
d. All of the above
60. Explanation 1 to Section 14A states that—
a. Advisory Board procedure shall apply
b. Explanation to Section 3(2) shall apply
c. Explanation to Section 8 shall apply
d. CrPC provisions shall apply
61. Explanation 2 defines “disturbed area” as an area notified under—
a. The National Security Act, 1980
b. The Armed Forces Special Powers Act
c. Punjab Disturbed Areas Act, 1983 or Chandigarh Disturbed Areas Act, 1983
d. The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act
62. For the purposes of Section 14A, “terrorist and disruptive activities” mean—
a. Activities under IPC
b. Activities under UAPA
c. Activities within the meaning of the Terrorist and Disruptive Activities (Prevention) Ordinance, 1987
d. Activities defined by the State Government
63. Which Ordinance is specifically referred to in Explanation 3 of Section 14A?
a. National Security Ordinance, 1980
b. Terrorist and Disruptive Activities (Prevention) Ordinance, 1987
c. Armed Forces Ordinance, 1983
d. Preventive Detention Ordinance, 1971
64. Section 14A is best described as—
a. A permanent provision applicable to all detention orders
b. A special, time-bound exceptional provision overriding normal safeguards
c. A procedural clarification
d. A judicial review provision
65. Section 14A(2) provides that in the case of persons covered under Section 14A(1), which sections shall operate with modifications?
a. Sections 3, 8 and 9 only
b. Sections 3, 8 and 10 to 14
c. Sections 3 to 14
d. Sections 8 to 14 only
66. Under Section 14A(2)(a)(i)(A), the period of “ten days” in the proviso to Section 3(4) is substituted by—
a. Twelve days
b. Fifteen days
c. Twenty days
d. Thirty days
67. Under Section 14A(2)(a)(i)(B), the period of “fifteen days” in the proviso to Section 3(4) is substituted by—
a. Twenty days
b. Twenty-five days
c. Thirty days
d. Ten days
68. Under Section 14A(2)(a)(ii), in Section 3(5), the words “seven days” are substituted by—
a. Ten days
b. Twelve days
c. Fifteen days
d. Twenty days
69. Section 14A(2)(b) modifies which provision of Section 8?
a. Section 8(2)
b. Section 8(1)
c. Explanation to Section 8
d. Entire Section 8
70. Under Section 14A(2)(b), the period of “ten days” in Section 8(1) is substituted by—
a. Twelve days
b. Fifteen days
c. Twenty days
d. Thirty days
71. Section 14A(2)(c) modifies the time limit in Section 10 from “within three weeks” to—
a. Within three months
b. Within four months
c. Within four months and two weeks
d. Within five months
72. Under Section 14A(2)(d)(i), the time limit for submission of the Advisory Board’s report under Section 11(1) is substituted from “seven weeks” to—
a. Three months
b. Four months
c. Five months
d. Five months and three weeks
73. Section 14A(2)(d)(ii) substitutes the words “detention of the person concerned” in Section 11(2) with—
a. Preventive detention of the person concerned
b. Continued detention of the person concerned
c. Lawful detention of the person concerned
d. Detention under this Act
74. Section 14A(2)(e) modifies Section 12 by substituting the words—
a. “Detention order” with “continued detention order”
b. “For the detention” with “for the continued detention”
c. “Period of detention” with “extended detention”
d. “Confirmation” with “continuation”
75. Under Section 14A(2)(f), the maximum period of detention under Section 13 is increased from “twelve months” to—
a. Eighteen months
b. Two years
c. Three years
d. Five years
76. Section 14A(2)(g) modifies which provision of Section 14?
a. Section 14(1)
b. Section 14(2) main clause
c. Proviso to Section 14(2)
d. Entire Section 14
77. Under Section 14A(2)(g), the words “twelve months” in the proviso to Section 14(2) are substituted by—
a. Eighteen months
b. Two years
c. Three years
d. Five years
78. The cumulative effect of Section 14A(2) is to—
a. Reduce procedural safeguards
b. Shorten detention periods
c. Extend time limits and maximum detention periods
d. Abolish the Advisory Board system
79. Section 14A(2) represents—
a. A general amendment applicable to all detainees
b. A special modification applicable only to persons covered under Section 14A(1)
c. A judicial interpretation clause
d. A repealing provision
80. Section 15 of the National Security Act, 1980 deals with—
a. Revocation of detention orders
b. Temporary release of persons detained
c. Maximum period of detention
d. Constitution of Advisory Boards
81. Under Section 15(1), who is competent to direct the temporary release of a detained person?
a. Advisory Board
b. Detaining officer
c. Appropriate Government
d. High Court
82. The power of temporary release under Section 15(1) may be exercised—
a. Only once
b. Only after Advisory Board opinion
c. At any time
d. Only after confirmation under Section 12
83. Temporary release under Section 15(1) may be granted—
a. Only without conditions
b. Only with conditions
c. Either without conditions or upon conditions accepted by the person
d. Only on medical grounds
84. Which of the following is TRUE regarding conditions under Section 15(1)?
a. Conditions are mandatory in all cases
b. Conditions must be imposed by court
c. Conditions must be accepted by the detained person
d. Conditions cannot be cancelled
85. The appropriate Government may cancel the temporary release—
a. Only after breach of conditions
b. Only after court approval
c. At any time
d. Only on Advisory Board recommendation
86. Under Section 15(2), while directing temporary release, the appropriate Government may require the person—
a. To execute a personal bond only
b. To execute a bond with sureties only
c. To enter into a bond with or without sureties
d. To furnish cash security only
87. The bond under Section 15(2) is for—
a. Appearance before court
b. Observance of conditions of release
c. Good behaviour generally
d. Surrender of passport
88. Under Section 15(3), a person released temporarily is required to—
a. Report weekly to police
b. Remain within the State
c. Surrender himself at the time, place and authority specified
d. Apply for extension of release
89. The obligation to surrender under Section 15(3) applies—
a. Only when release is cancelled
b. Only when release period expires
c. Both when release is directed or cancelled
d. Only if bond is executed
90. Failure to surrender without sufficient cause under Section 15(4) is punishable with—
a. Fine only
b. Imprisonment up to one year
c. Imprisonment up to two years, or fine, or both
d. Life imprisonment
91. For punishment under Section 15(4), failure to surrender must be—
a. Intentional
b. Without sufficient cause
c. Repeated
d. Certified by police
92. Under Section 15(5), if a person fails to fulfil conditions of release—
a. Detention order automatically revives
b. Advisory Board opinion is required
c. The bond shall be declared forfeited
d. Only warning may be issued
93. Upon forfeiture of bond under Section 15(5), liability to pay the penalty falls upon—
a. Only the detained person
b. Only the sureties
c. Any person bound by the bond
d. The appropriate Government
94. Section 15 reflects which principle of preventive detention law?
a. Absolute detention without relaxation
b. Conditional liberty under executive control
c. Judicial supremacy
d. Mandatory court supervision
95. Under Section 16 of the National Security Act, 1980, protection is available against:
a. Suit only
b. Prosecution only
c. Suit, prosecution, or other legal proceeding
d. Only criminal proceedings
96. Section 16 bars legal proceedings against which of the following authorities?
a. Only the Central Government
b. Only the State Government
c. Central Government, State Government, and any person
d. Only public servants acting under the Act
97. Which of the following proceedings is not barred against the Central or State Government under Section 16?
a. Suit
b. Prosecution
c. Other legal proceeding
d. None of the above
98. Under Section 16, protection to the Central Government and State Government extends to:
a. Suit and prosecution only
b. Suit or other legal proceeding
c. Prosecution or other legal proceeding
d. Suit, prosecution, and other legal proceeding
99. Which of the following proceedings is barred against any person under Section 16 of the NSA?
a. Suit only
b. Prosecution only
c. Suit, prosecution, or other legal proceeding
d. Only departmental proceedings
100. For protection under Section 16 to apply, the act must be:
a. Lawful
b. Reasonable
c. Done in good faith
d. Approved by the Government
101. Protection under Section 16 applies to acts which are:
a. Actually, done in pursuance of the Act
b. Intended to be done in pursuance of the Act
c. Both a and b
d. Only acts done after confirmation of detention
102. The phrase “in pursuance of this Act” under Section 16 implies:
a. Acts done strictly under written orders
b. Acts connected with implementation of the Act
c. Acts done even outside statutory powers
d. Acts done only by government officers
103. Which of the following best describes the nature of protection under Section 16?
a. Absolute protection irrespective of intent
b. Conditional protection subject to good faith
c. Protection only for government officials
d. Protection only after judicial approval
104. If an act is done malafide under the National Security Act, Section 16:
a. Still provides immunity
b. Provides partial protection
c. Does not apply
d. Applies only to governments
105. Nothing in the National Security Act, 1980 shall apply or have any effect with respect to which of the following detention orders?
a. Detention orders made under Central laws
b. Detention orders made under any State law after commencement of the Act
c. Detention orders made under any State law in force immediately before commencement of the National Security Ordinance, 1980
d. All preventive detention orders irrespective of time
106. The phrase “shall apply or have any effect” used in Section 17(1) indicates that the National Security Act:
a. Applies subject to State laws
b. Applies prospectively only
c. Has no applicability whatsoever to certain State detentions
d. Overrides State detention laws
107. Section 17(1) applies only when the detention order under a State law was:
a. Passed by the State Government
b. Confirmed by an Advisory Board
c. In force immediately before commencement of the National Security Ordinance, 1980
d. Passed on grounds of public order
108. A person detained under a State law whose detention order was in force immediately before commencement of the National Security Ordinance, 1980 shall be governed by:
a. The National Security Act, 1980
b. Article 22 of the Constitution
c. The provisions of such State law
d. The Code of Criminal Procedure
109. Where a detention order was made under a State Ordinance promulgated by the Governor and such Ordinance was replaced before commencement of the National Security Ordinance, 1980 by a State enactment, the detention shall be governed by:
a. The National Security Act, 1980
b. The original State Ordinance
c. The replacing State enactment
d. Central Government directions
110. If a State Ordinance was replaced after commencement of the National Security Ordinance, 1980 by a State enactment whose application is confined to detention orders made before such commencement, the detention shall be governed by:
a. The National Security Act, 1980
b. The original State Ordinance
c. Such subsequent State enactment
d. Article 22(4) of the Constitution
111. The expression “as if this Act had not been enacted” in Section 17(1) implies that:
a. The Act partially applies
b. The Act overrides State law
c. The Act is to be treated as non-existent for such detentions
d. The Act applies subject to Central approval
112. Section 17(2) provides that nothing in Section 17 shall be deemed to bar:
a. Continuation of State detention indefinitely
b. Judicial review of detention orders
c. Making of a detention order under Section 3 of the NSA
d. Revocation of detention orders
113. A detention order under Section 3 of the NSA can be made against a person referred to in Section 17(1):
a. Even while the earlier State detention order is in force
b. Only after the earlier State detention order ceases to have effect
c. Only with prior Central Government approval
d. Only after repeal of the State law
114. The words “for any reason whatsoever” in Section 17(2) signify that cessation of the earlier detention may occur due to:
a. Expiry alone
b. Revocation alone
c. Judicial quashing alone
d. Any possible reason
115. According to the Explanation to Section 17, “State law” means:
a. Any law enacted by a State Legislature
b. Any law relating to public order
c. Any law providing for preventive detention on grounds mentioned in Section 3(2) and in force immediately before commencement of the Ordinance
d. Only ordinances promulgated by Governors
116. Reference to Section 3(2) in the Explanation to Section 17 is for the purpose of:
a. Limiting Central Government power
b. Defining the grounds of preventive detention relevant for State laws
c. Expanding judicial review
d. Repealing State detention laws
117. Which of the following correctly states the legal effect of Section 17?
a. NSA retrospectively invalidates State detention orders
b. NSA automatically replaces State detention laws
c. Existing State detentions continue unaffected, but fresh NSA detention is permissible after cessation
d. State detention orders revive after NSA detention
118. Section 18(1) of the National Security Act, 1980 provides for the repeal of:
a. The Maintenance of Internal Security Act, 1971
b. The National Security Ordinance, 1980 (11 of 1980)
c. All State preventive detention laws
d. The Preventive Detention Act, 1950
119. The repeal under Section 18(1) takes effect with respect to:
a. The National Security Act, 1980
b. The National Security Ordinance, 1980
c. State detention enactments
d. Governor’s Ordinances
120. The words “Notwithstanding such repeal” used in Section 18(2) indicate that:
a. The repeal nullifies all prior actions
b. The repeal operates retrospectively
c. Certain effects of the repealed Ordinance are preserved
d. The Act applies only prospectively
121. According to Section 18(2), anything done or any action taken under the repealed Ordinance shall be deemed to have been done or taken under:
a. Article 22 of the Constitution
b. The repealed Ordinance itself
c. The corresponding provisions of this Act
d. Orders of the Central Government
122. The deeming fiction under Section 18(2) treats the National Security Act, 1980 as if it had come into force on:
a. The date of Presidential assent
b. 26th January, 1980
c. 23rd September, 1980
d. The date of repeal of the Ordinance
123. The legal effect of the phrase “as if this Act had come into force on the 23rd day of September, 1980” is to:
a. Give the Act retrospective penal effect
b. Validate actions taken under the Ordinance
c. Re-enact the Ordinance in entirety
d. Override constitutional safeguards
124. Section 18(2) specifically saves which of the following actions under the repealed Ordinance?
a. Detention orders confirmed by courts
b. References made under section 10 of the Ordinance
c. Orders passed by the Central Government
d. Advisory Board reports already submitted
125. For the saving under Section 18(2) to apply to a reference under section 10 of the Ordinance, such reference must be:
a. Decided before repeal
b. Pending before any Advisory Board immediately before Presidential assent
c. Made after repeal
d. Approved by the State Government
126. A reference made under section 10 of the repealed Ordinance and pending before an Advisory Board may continue to be dealt with after Presidential assent:
a. Only after reconstitution of the Board
b. By the Central Government
c. By that Board as if constituted under section 9 of this Act
d. Only after fresh reference
127. The Advisory Board referred to in Section 18(2) is deemed to be constituted under which provision of the National Security Act, 1980?
a. Section 3
b. Section 8
c. Section 9
d. Section 10
128. The continuation of proceedings before the Advisory Board under Section 18(2) applies:
a. Only until repeal of the Act
b. Only before Presidential assent
c. Even after the Act receives Presidential assent
d. Only if revalidated by notification
129. Which of the following best describes the nature of Section 18(2)?
a. Penal provision
b. Substantive detention power
c. Repeal and saving clause with deeming fiction
d. Procedural safeguard
130. Which of the following statements is most accurate with respect to Section 18?
a. Repeal of the Ordinance invalidates all prior actions
b. Actions under the Ordinance lapse on Presidential assent
c. Prior actions and pending references are saved and continued under the Act
d. Advisory Boards under the Ordinance cease to function immediately
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