Rajasthan Judicial Service (Pre.) Examination 2018

1. Under provisions of Indian Succession Act, 1925 probate cannot be granted to:

(1) A married daughter

(2) A minor son

(3) Illegitimate child

(4) Half brother

2. Under the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956 who among the following cannot be adopted:

(1) A Hindu

(2) Already adopted child

(3) A minor

(4) An unmarried child

3. Which of the following is not a ‘Public Utility Service’ for the purpose of the Legal Services Authority Act, 1987:

(1) Transport Service

(2) Postal, Telegraph or Telephone Service

(3) Insurance Service

(4) Banking Services

4. In a case where a party is added or substituted owing to assignment or devolution of any interest during the pendency of a suit, the suit shall be regards him, be deemed to have been instituted:

(1) On the date the suit was instituted

(2) When he was so made a par ty

(3) On the date when the application for addition or substitution is made

(4) None of the above

5. As per Schedule for compensation for third party fatal accidents under Section 163A of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 the amount of compensation arrived at, in consideration of the expenses, which a victim would have incurred towards maintaining himself, had he been alive, shall be reduced by:

(1) 1/2 (2) 1/3

(3) 1/4 (4) 1/8

6. For an instrument of gift of immovable property, under the Registration Act, 1908:

(1) Registration is compulsory

(2) Registration is optional

(3) Registration is exempted

(4) None of the above

7. Where the time limit of a lease is of a year or number of years, which is expressed to be determinable before its expiration, and the lease omits to mention at whose option it is so terminable, who shall have such option:

(1) Lessee

(2) Lessor

(3) Transferor

(4) None of the above

8. The maxim ‘Actus curiae neminem gravablt’ means:

(1) An act of the Court shall prejudice no man

(2) The act of God does wrong to no one

(3) An act in law shall prejudice no man

(4) An act does not constitute guilt unless done with a guilty intention.

9. Which of the following is not an internal aid to the construction or interpretation of statute:

(1) Long Title of an Act

(2) Illustrations

(3) Marginal Notes appended to a section

(4) Preamble of a statute

10. Iddat period, in case of a divorced woman, if she is subject to menstruation, means:

(1) Three menstrual courses after the date of divorce

(2) Six months period after the date of divorce

(3) Nine menstrual courses after the date of divorce

(4) Nine months period after the date of divorce

11. For the purpose of Rajasthan Relief of Agricultural Indebtness Act, 1957, the term ‘agriculture’ does not include:

(1) Horticulture

(2) Breeding of cattle, camels, sheep or goats

(3) Bee framing and collecting honey

(4) Reserving of land for fodder grazing or thatching grass

12. Any person aggrieved by an order made by the Collector (Stamps) can apply for a revision under Section 65 of the Rajasthan Stamp Act, 1998, before:

(1) Rajasthan High Court

(2) Chief Controlling Revenue Authority

(3) Inspector General of Stamps

(4) State Government

13. The Supreme Court of India in the exercise of Its jurisdiction may make such order as is necessary for doing complete justice in any case, such power is conferred by:

(1) Article 141 of the Constitution of India

(2) Article 142 of the Constitution of India

(3) Article 32 of the Constitution of India

(4) Article 124 of the Constitution of India

14. In which judgement Hon’ble Supreme Court has held Right to Privacy to be a Fundamental Right:

(1) Subramanium Swamy v. Union of India &Ors.

(2) Lok Prahari v. Union of India & Ors.

(3) Justice Sunanda Bhandare Foundation v. Union of India & Ors.

(4) Justice K.S. Puttaswamy & Anr. v. Union of India & Ors.

15. Which of the following is a valid defence ; against an action in tort:

(1) Mistake of fact

(2) Act of God

(3) Minority

(4) None of the above

16. When a marriage has been dissolved by a decree of divorce under Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 and there is a right of appeal, the divorced persons may marry again:

(1) After expiry of 1 month from the decree of divorce

(2) Immediately after passing of the decree of divorce

(3) After expiry of 2 months from the decree of divorce

(4) After expiry of the time for appealing, without any appeal having been presented

17. Promissory estoppel is the extension of principle contained in which provision of the Evidence Act:

(1) Section 65

(2) Section 110

(3) Section 115

(4) Section 150

18. Prior to the Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005 coming into force, who amongst the following was not Class I heir or male Hindu dying intestate:

(1) Mother

(2) Widow

(3) Daughter

(4) None of the above

19. Under which provision of Rajasthan Land Revenue Act, 1956, a person without lawful authority occupying land, which Is at the disposal of local authority, can be evicted:

(1) Section 91 of the Act

(2) Section 90-A of the Act I

(3) Section 90-B of the Act

(4) Section 92 of the Act

20. ‘Decree’, as defined by Section 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 does not Include;

(1) A preliminary decree

(2) Rejection of a plaint

(3) Determination of any question within Section 144 CPC

(4) Any order of dismissal for default

21. Against a decree passed in a suit after recording a compromise an appeal on the ground that the compromise should not have been recorded, can be filed under:

(1) Section 151 CPC !

(2) Order XXIII CPC

(3) Order XLIII Rule 1-A CPC

(4) None of the above

22. Chapter II and III of Rajasthan Rent Control Act, 2001 applies to:

(1) Any premises let put to a citizen of a foreign country.

(2) Any premises belonging to or vested in a University established by any law for the time being in force.

(3) Any premises belonging to a Government Company as defined under Section 617 of the Companies Act, 1956.

(4) Any premises situated in the municipal area of Jaipur City, let out for residential purposes, for a monthly rent of Rs. 8,000/-.

23. A suit against a municipality or its officers can be instituted otherwise than for the recovery of immovable property or for a declaration of title thereto:

(1) After six months of the accrual of cause of action.

(2) After eight months of the accrual of cause of action.

(3) Within six months next after the accrual of cause of action.

(4) None of the above

24. The grant of and transfer of licences is governed by:

(1) The Transfer of Property Act, 1882.

(2) The Specific Relief Act, 1963.

(3) The Indian Contract Act, 1932.

(4) The Indian Easements Act, 1882.

25. Under Rajasthan Court fees and Suits Valuation Act, 1961, all questions arising on a plea that the subject matter of the suit has not been properly valued or that the fee paid Is not sufficient are required to be heard and decided:

(1) At the final hearing of the suit.

(2) At the discretion of the trial court.

(3) Before the hearing of the suit as contemplated by Order XVHI CPC.

(4) None of the above

26. Which of the contract is not specifically enforceable:

(1) A contract for the non performance of which compensation in money is not an adequate relief.

(2) A contract which is in its nature determinable.

(3) A contract, the performance of which does not involve the performance of a continuous duty, which the Court can supervise.

(4) A contract which is not dependent on the personal qualification or volition of the parties.

27. The power of review on the Board of Revenue and other revenue courts is conferred by which provision of the Rajasthan Tenancy Act, 1955:

(1) Section 207

(2) Section 224

(3) Section 229

(4) Section 230

28. Which of the following is not a negotiable Instrument:

(1) Promissory note

(2) Fixed Deposit Receipt

(3) Bill of Exchange

(4) A cheque

29. Under the General Rules (Civil), 1986 all pleadings, applications and petitions filed in the course of civil judicial proceedings, shall be written in:

(1) Hindi

(2) English

(3) Any language specified in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India

(4) None of the above

30. Under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, in the case of international commercial arbitration ‘Court’ means:

(1) The principal Civil Court of original jurisdiction

(2) Small Causes Court

(3) The High Court

(4) None of the above

31. An order refusing to refer the parties to arbitration under Section 8 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 is appealable under:

(1) Section 34 of the Act

(2) Article 227 of the Constitution of India

(3) Section 37 of the Act

(4) Section 11 of the Act

32. The provisions for removal and suspension of any member or Chairperson of a Panchayati Raj Institution under the Rajasthan Panchayati Raj Act, 1994 are contained in:

(1) Section 119 of the Act

(2) Section 38 of the Act

(3) Section 117A of the Act

(4) Section 39 of the Act

33. Under section 10 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 every partner is under a duty:

(1) To render true accounts and full information

(2) To indemnify the firm for any loss caused to it by his fraud in the conduct of the business of the firm

(3) Not to carry on any business other than that of the firm

(4) To be just and faithful to each other

34. Under Sale of Goods Act, 1930, movable good does not include:

(1) Stock and shares

(2) Grass

(3) Money

(4) Growing crops

35. In a suit against a Corporation, the summons may be served on:

(1) Any employee of the corporation

(2) Relative of the director of the corporation

(3) Principal officer of the corporation

(4) None of the above

36. The offences under Section 66B, 66C, 66D and 66E of Information Technology Act, 2000, are:

(1) Cognizable

(2) Sessions Triable

(3) Non-bailable

(4) None of the above

37. A complainant, of a Magistrate triable case instituted upon a complaint, can challenge the judgment of acquittal passed by the competent court, by filing:

(1) Revision in the Sessions Court

(2) Revision in the High Court

(3) Appeal before a Sessions Court

(4) Application for grant of leave to appeal in the High Court

38. An information, supplied by an accused under Section 27 of the Evidence Act, shall be recorded:

(1) In presence of two independent Panch witnesses

(2) In presence of a Gazetted Officer

(3) In presence of two Police Officers

(4) None of the above

39. While assessing age of a person under the Juvenile Justice (care and protection of children) Act, 2015, the Court/Board is required to consider the documents/evidence in the following order of preference:

(1) (i) Birth Certificate issued by a Municipality

(ii) School Certificate

(iii) Ossification test report

(iv) Aadhar Card

(2) (i) Ossification test report

(ii) Birth Certificate issued by the Municipality

(iii) Aadhar Card

(3) (i) Birth Certificate issued from the school/matriculation certificate

(ii) Date of birth certificate issued by the Municipality

(iii) Ossification test report

(4) None of tire above

40. Which of the following orders may not be passed by the Juvenile Justice Board after conducting inquiry of a child in conflict with law:

(1) Direct the child to attend a school

(2) Direct the child to attend a vocational training centre

(3) Sentence the child to imprisonment till he attains 18 years of age

(4) Direct the child to perform community service

41. A Children Court trying a child in conflict with law for a heinous offence, is not empowered to:

(1) Hold trial of a child as an adult

(2) Hold inquiry of the child as a Juvenile Justice Board

(3) Sentence the child to imprisonment for a term of 10 years

(4) Send the child to a place of safety till he attains the age of 21 years

42. Where, after inquiry under Section 15 of the Juvenile Justice (care and protection of children) Act, 2015, the Juvenile Justice Board is satisfied that a child above 16 years of age, has committed a heinous offence and should be tried as an adult, it may:

(1) Commit the case of the Sessions Court concerned for trial of the child as an adult

(2) Try the child as per the procedure provided in Cr.P.C.

(3) Return the charge-sheet to the Investigating Officer for presentation in the Court concerned

(4) Transfer the case to the Children Court for trial of the child as an adult

43. A private vehicle proceeding on a Highway, suspected to be carrying psychotropic drugs, may be searched by:

(1) A Head Constable posted in the Police Station concerned

(2) A Sub-Inspector posted in some other District

(3) The Deputy Superintendent of Police or officer-in-charge of police station of the area concerned

(4) All of the above

44. Before searching a suspect carrying a bag containing narcotic drugs in his hand, the Officer concerned is required to apprise him of his right to be searched in the presence of:

(1) A Magistrate or a Gazetted Officer

(2) Two independent witnesses from the locality

(3) Officer-in-charge of the Police Station of the area concerned

(4) None of the above

45. A vehicle, container or a receptacles used for commission of an offence punishable under the NDPS Act, 1985, shall not be liable to be confiscated:

(1) If the person using the same is acquitted by the Court after trial

(2) If he prosecution fails to lead evidence about its ownership

(3) If the owner proves that the vehicle was used in commission of the offence without his knowledge or connivance

(4) None of the above

46. A being the owner of a plot of land, sells the same to B through a registered sale deed in the year 2005. B however does hot make full payment to A. A again sells the same land to C in the year 2010 without informing him of the earlier transaction of 2005.

Who would be the person aggrieved in these circumstances:

(1) B (the first purchaser)

(2) A (the seller)

(3) C (the subsequent purchaser)

(4) None of the above

47. The bail application rejected by the Special Judge, SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, In a case involving offence/s under the said Act, may be challenged in the High Court, by filing:

(1) Bail application under Section 439 Cr.P.C.

(2) Revision under Section 397 Cr.P.C.

(3) Petition under Section 482 Cr.P.C.

(4) An appeal

48. X knows that Y is a member of Scheduled Caste community. During the course of a free fight, X inflicts a grievous injury to Y by a sharp weapon. X is guilty of offence punishable under Section(s):

(1) 326IPC only

(2) 3(2)(V) of SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act

(3) 326 IPC and 3(2)(V) of SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act

(4) None of the above

49. A woman aged 30 years and her son aged 14 years, are witnesses to a murder. Their statements under Section 161 Cr.P.C. may be recorded by the Police Officer concerned at:

(1) The scene of the occurrence

(2) The Women Police Station

(3) At the Police Station where FIR is registered

(4) The place where, such woman and her son reside

50. In which of the following cases, the Court is required to record evidence before framing of charge:

(1) Summons trial cases

(2) Sessions trial cases

(3) Warrant cases instituted upon a complaint

(4) Warrant cases instituted upon a Police report

51. Non-compliance of, which of the following orders passed under the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, is an offence:

(1) Maintenance order

(2) Custody order

(3) Residence order

(4) Protection order

52. A woman subjected to rape, gives a statement under Section 164 Cr.P.C. implicating the accused for the offence. She commits suicide sometime later but before her statement could be recorded at the trial. Such statement recorded under Section 164 Cr.P.C. would be:

(1) Admissible as a substantive piece of evidence

(2) Admissible under Section 32 of the Evidence Act

(3) Admissible under Section 33 of the Evidence Act

(4) Inadmissible in evidence

53. A Court after holding trial, convicts and grants benefit of Probation of Offenders Act, 1958 to an accused. Which of the following orders is Impermissible in law:

(1) Admonish the offender

(2) Direct under Section 12 of the Act that the conviction shall not have an adverse effect on his service

(3) Direct the offender to pay compensation and cost

(4) Direct the offender to furnish bail and bonds to keep peace and good behaviour for three years

54. Two friends A and B were sleeping in a room which was bolted from Inside. In the morning, A Is found murdered. Under which provision of the Evidence Act, prosecution can claim shifting of burden on B to prove the manner in which the murder took place:

(1) Section 114 of the Evidence Act

(2) Section 103 of the Evidence Act

(3) Section 106 of the Evidence Act

(4) Section 101 of the Evidence Act

55. An FIR in relation to the offence under Section 406 IPC is lodged on 1.1.2010. The Police conducts investigation and submits a negative Final Report in the Court concerned on 2.2.2012. The Court takes cognizance of the above offence on 3.3.2013. In these circumstances, which of the following is correct:

(1) The proceedings are barred by limitation

(2) The proceedings are not barred by limitation as the offence under Section 406 IPC is a continuing offence

(3) The proceedings are not barred by limitation as the FIR was lodged promptly

(4) None of the above

56. C being the wife of B, has obtained a decree of separation from the competent Court but they are still living in the same premises. B subjects C to intercourse. Their neighbour A watches the act and files an FIR. Which proposition is correct in these circumstances:

(1) B is guilty of the offence punishable under Section 376B IPC

(2) B is not guilty of any offence because C continues to be his legally wedded wife

(3) A would be guilty of the offence punishable under Section 354C IPC

(4) None of the above

57. 5 persons take illegal possession of a field. The owner (the complainant party) of the field collects his supporters and goes to the field for ousting the trespassers therefrom. In the free fight, which ensues, the trespassers kill one person from the complainant side. All the accused can be convicted:

(1) With the aid of section 34 of IPC

(2) With the aid of section 149 of IPC

(3) For the individual injuries caused to the members of the complainant party

(4) None of the above

58. The Investigating Officer conducting investigation of a case the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985 collects the call details of the mobile phones held by the accused from whom, recovery of drug was effected and the conspirator, who supplied the drug. Such call details:

(1) Can be used as substantive evidence to prove the charge of conspiracy

(2) Are inadmissible in evidence

(3) Can be considered relevant only if the conversation held between the two accused is recorded and proved at the trial

(4) None of the above

59. In a case involving the offence punishable under Section 304 Part II of IPC, the accused, is arrested and the prosecution fails to comply with the requirements of Section 167(2) Cr.P.C. The accused, who is a habitual offender, becomes entitled to compulsive bail on:

(1) 61s1 day from the date of his arrest

(2) 91st day from the date of his arrest

(3) The accused is not entitled to be released on compulsive bail

(4) None of the above

60. A Patwari while preparing a revenue record, intentionally enters incorrect facts in the documents and signs 8i certifies the same with the intention of causing loss to the true owner of the land. The Patwari is guilty of:

(1) Offence of creating false/forged

documents punishable under Sections 467 and 468 IPC

(2) Offence of using a forged document punishable under Section 471IPC

(3) Offence of criminal breach of trust punishable under Section 406 IPC

(4) None of the above

61. An accused aged 20 years, having no previous criminal conduct, charged for the offence under Section 304 IPC, is convicted by the trial court. In these circumstances:

(1) The trial court is under a mandate of law to release the accused on probation

(2) The trial court may release the accused on probation

(3) The accused is not entitled to the benefit of probation because the offence is punishable with imprisonment upto 10 years

(4) None of the above

62. In which judgment, Hon’ble Supreme Court has laid down that the Police cannot refuse registration of an FIR on the ground of lack of jurisdiction:

(1) Manish Ratan v. State of M.P.; 2007 (1) SCC 336

(2) Amrendu Jyoti v. State of Chhattisgarh; 2014 (6) criminal 719

(3) Rasiklal Dalpatram Thakkar v. State of Gujarat & Ors.; AIR 2010 SC 715

(4) Y. Abraham Ajith & Ors. v. Inspector of Police, Chennai & Ors.; AIR 2004 SC 4286

63. In which judgment, under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 the Hon’ble Supreme Court held that though compounding requires consent of both the parties, but even in absence of such consent, the Court can, in the interest of justice, "on being satisfied that the complainant has been duly compensated, In its discretion, close the proceedings and discharge the accused:

(1) Madhya Pradesh State Legal Service Authority v. Prateek Jain; 2015 (1) SCC (Cri)211

(2) Meters and Instruments Private Limited v. Kanchan Mehta; AIR 2017 SC 4594

(3) JIK Industries Ltd. v. Amarlal V. Jumani & Anr.; AIR 2012 SC 1079

(4) Damodar S. Prabhu v. Sayyed Bala Lal H.; AIR 2010 SC 1907

64. In which of the following judgments, the Hon’ble Supreme Court has laid down that the competent Magistrate can direct the Police to conduct thorough and fair investigation into an FIR:

(1) Hasan Bhai Wali Bhai Qureshi v. State of Gujarat; AIR 2004 SC 2078

(2) Sakiri Vasu v. State of U.P.; AIR 2008 SC 907

(3) Rashmi Behl v. State of U.P. & Ors.; AIR 2015 SC 776

(4) Aziza Begum v. State of Maharashtra; 2012 (2) SCC (Cri.) 61

65. In which judgment, the Hon’ble Supreme Court has laid down that a party, who is desirous of proving electronic evidence but does not have access to the device from which, the document was produced, is not required to produce and prove the certificate under Section 65B of the Evidence Act:

(1) State of Delhi NCT v. Navjot Sandhu @ Afsan Guru; AIR 2005 SC 3826

(2) Harpal Singh @ Chhota v. State of Punjab; 2016 (4) Crimes 154

(3) Anvar P.V. v. P.K. Bashir; AIR 2015 SC 180

(4) Shafi Mohd. v. State of Himachal Pradesh; SLP (Cri) No. 3202/2017, decided on 30.1.2018

66. in which judgment, the Hon’ble Supreme Court has laid down that having taken cognizance of a case, the Magistrate cannot direct the Police to conduct further investigation:

(1) State of Haryana v. Choudhary Bhajan Lal; AIR 1992 SC 604

(2) M/s Jayanti Vitamin v. Chaitanya Kumar; AIR 1992 SC 1930

(3) Amrutbhai Shambhubhai Patel v. SumanbhaiKantibhai Patel & Ors.; AIR 2017 SC 774

(4) Hemant Dhasmana v. CBI; AIR 2001 SC 2721

67. A competent Court, shall take cognizance of an offence punishable under The Electricity Act, 2003:

(1) Upon a complaint in writing made by any general person

(2) Upon an oral complaint made by a Chief Electrical Inspector

(3) Upon a complaint in writing made by licencee or generating company

(4) Upon none of the above

68. Under the provisions of Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012, can a report be published by the media, which discloses the Identity of a sexually assaulted child:

(1) Cannot be published

(2) Can be published in public interest

(3) Can be published, if permitted by competent Special Court

(4) None of the above

69. Police Officer, In ail cases where the arrest of a person is not required under section 41 (1) of Cr.P.C., against whom, a reasonable complaint has been made that he has committed a cognizable offence, then:

(1) Police Officer may without an order from a Magistrate and without a warrant, arrest such person

(2) Police Officer shall issue a notice directing that person to appear before him or at such other place, as may be specified in the notice

(3) Police Officer while recording his reasons in writing, can arrest such person

(4) Police Officer can do all the above

70. If a Magistrate of a Court, requiring to examine at his private residence, a record of a case in his Court, he:

(1) May take charge of such record without any permission

(2) May take charge of such record with prior permission of concerned District & Sessions Judge

(3) May take charge of such record with prior permission of concerned High Court

(4) Can not take charge of such record

71. निम्न में से कौनसा अशुद्ध शब्द नहीं है?

(1) प्रमाणिक

(2) रचियता

(3) कवियत्री

(4) अन्त्याक्षरी

72. किस स्थिति में अवतरण चिह्न का प्रयोग सामान्यतः नहीं होता है?

(1) किसी के महत्त्वपूर्ण वचन उद्धृत करने में।

(2) अप्रचलित अथवा विशेष प्रचलित शब्दों में।

(3) व्यक्तियों के उपनामों में।

(4) रचना का अनुवाद करते हुए।

73. किस शब्द का संधि विच्छेद त्रुटिपूर्ण है?

(1) अभीप्ट अभि + इष्ट

(2) वाङ्मय वाक् + मय

(3) अब्ज अप + ज

(4) महैश्वर्य- महा + एश्वर्य

74. निम्न में से कौनसा, वचन संबंधी त्रुटि वाला वाक्य है?

(1) महात्मा जी का दर्शन करके मैं धन्य हो गया।

(2) श्रोताओं में कई श्रेणियों के लोग थे।

(3) विद्रोहियों को कुत्तों की तरह घसीटा गया।

(4) हर एक ने टोपी पहन रखी थी।

75. निम्न में से किस विकल्प के सभी शब्द पर्यायवाची है?

(1) विभावरी, निशाचरी, रजनी

(2) मधुकरी, भिक्षा, भीख

(3) मान, सम्मान, मान्य

(4) अंबुधि, अर्णव, नीरद

76. किस मुहावरे का अभिप्राय गलत है?

(1) आकाश के तारे तोड़ लाना असंभव कार्य कर डालना।

(2) आँख का काजल चुरा लेना बड़ी बारीकी से चोरी करना।

(3) द्रौपदी का चीर होना कभी समाप्त न होने वाली।

(4) ताल कटना - संगीत में बाधा उपस्थित होना।

77. 'अपने घर, गाँव या नगर में किसी का आदर नहीं होता, अभिव्यक्ति हेतु निकटतम लोकोक्ति

(1) घर की खाँड किरकिरी, बाहर का गुड़ मीठा।

(2) घर के पीरों को तेल का मलीदा।

(3) घर की बिल्ली घर में ही शिकार।

(4) घर आये नाग न पूजिए, बामी पूजन जाय।

78. रोगी को बहुत घबराहट हो रही थी। वाक्य में रेखांकित शब्द है;

(1) संज्ञा

(2) क्रिया

(3) क्रिया विशेषण

(4) अव्यय

79. वह आदमी आ रहा है', वाक्य में 'वह' की व्याकरणिक कोटि है;

(1) संज्ञा

(2) सर्वनाम

(3) विशेषण

(4) अव्यय

80. 'नौकर चिट्ठी लाया, वाक्य में क्रिया है;

(1) अकर्मक

(2) सकर्मक

(3) पूर्वकालिक

(4) प्रेरणार्थक

81. कसौटी शब्द है;

(1) तत्सम

(2) तद्भव

(3) देशज

(4) विदेशी

82. निम्न में से कौनसा 'नि' उपसर्ग से निर्मित शब्द है?

(1) निरपराध

(2) निराकार

(3) न्यून

(4) निर्मम

83. निम्न में से कौनसा वाक्य अशुद्ध है?

(1) वह क्रोध में भरकर चिल्लाने लगा।

(2) अब मेरी बात मान लो।

(3) वह राम का नाम लेकर चल पड़ा।

(4) धन से रहित जीवन व्यर्थ है।

84. निम्न में से कौनसा सही विलोम वर्ग नहीं है?

(1) भिज्ञ अनभिज्ञ

(2) विधवा सधवा

(3) वाचाल मूक

(4) नैसर्गिक कृत्रिम

85. निम्न में से कौनसा शब्द-युग्म अर्थ की दृष्टि से त्रुटिपूर्ण है?

(1) निर्झर -झरना

निर्जर - देवता

(2) प्रसाद - कृपा

प्रासाद - महल

(3) षष्टि -छह

षष्ठी -साठ

(4) अभिराम -सुंदर

लगातार अविराम

86. Choose the correct alternative that expresses the ‘Future Perfect’ tense:

(1) She will be completing her assignment

(2) She will complete her assignment

(3) She is completing her assignment

(4) She will have completed her assignment by midnight

87. ‘He has just out of the room in a rage.’

(1) Finged

(2) Plunged

(3) Flung

(4) Flanged

88. man is the only animal that uses fire.

(1) X

(2) The

(3) A

(4) An

89. He has hardly money for his survival.

(1) Few

(2) A few

(3) Some

(4) Any

90. ‘As the enemy was closing in, we decided to stay away. The phrase ‘close in’ means:

(1) Shootout

(2) Go away

(3) Come nearer

(4) Win

91. When someone says, “I am out of the woods now”, he means that:

(1) He has come out of the forest

(2) He has destroyed all the woods

(3) He is no longer in danger or difficulty

(4) He does not want to live in forest

92. Choose the correct passive voice of the following sentence.

‘We must not look down on the poor.’

(1) The poor must not looked down by us.

(2) The poor must not be looked on by us.

(3) The poor must not looked down on by us.

(4) The poor must not be looked down on by us.

93. Identify the sentence which is not written in passive voice:

(1) Utmost care has to be taken

(2) Being a student, you must work hard

(3) He was being chased

(4) The case has been set aside by the Court

94. Complete the following sentence with the correct coordinating conjunction. “I had studied a lot, I did really well on the test.”

(1) So

(2) For

(3) But

(4) Yet

95. Complete the following sentence with correct subordinating conjunction: ‘You can only play outside your father gets home.’

(1) Whereas

(2) Until

(3) Incase

(4) Because

96. She said, “Merry Christmas”

Which of the following is the correct Indirect speech of the above statement:

(1) She told me Merry Christmas

(2) She said that Christmas Was Merry

(3) She wished me a Merry Christmas

(4) She called me a Merry Christmas

97. Which of the following sentences uses the modal ‘would’ to express a wish or desire:

(1) Would that I had made contact with him before his departure

(2) Would you mind opening the window?

(3) She would look at the stars for hours when she was a child

(4) She would not follow my advice

98. Which of the following sentences expresses suggestion:

(1) Will I close the door?

(2) Shall I close the door?

(3) May I close the door?

(4) Could I close the door?

99. Pick the correct synonym for the word ‘robust’

(1) Strong

(2) Frail

(3) Infirm

(4) Noxious

100. Choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the word “Veracity”

(1) Truthfulness

(2) Probity

(3) Mendacity

(4) Integrity