1. Resistance or refusal under Section 12(3) is deemed to be an offence under:

a. Section 307 IPC

b. Section 186 IPC

c. Section 499 IPC

d. Section 34 IPC

 

2. Section 27 of POCSO Act, 2012 deals with:

a. Recording of child’s statement

b. Medical examination of a child

c. Reporting of offences

d. Punishment for sexual assault

 

3. Which of the following is included in "Denatured spirituous preparation"?

a. Wine only

b. Tari only

c. Pachari only

d. French polish and varnish prepared out of denatured spirit or alcohol

 

4. ‘आसक्त’ का विलोम होगा?

a. विरक्त

b. अनुरक्त

c. संसक्त

d. विभक्त

 

5. Which of the following tests is relatedto ‘obscenity'?

a. Mcnaughten

b. Hicklin

c. Voir Dire

d. None of the above

 

6. 'A' accused of murder, alleges that by grave and sudden provocation, he was deprived of the power of self-control. 'B' denies this fact

a. The burden of proof must be shared by both 'A' and 'B'

b. The burden of proof is on B

c. The burden of proof is on prosecution

d. The burden of proof is on 'A'

 

7. Appeal for enhancement of sentence will lie before the court, when sentence has been awarded by Magistrate of 1st Class:

a. Before Court of Sessions

b. Before Supreme Court

c. Before High Court

d. Before Special Court

 

8. Fill in the blanks by choosing the correct form of the verb.

By the time I meet him, he_________ reading the voluminous novel.

a. Was finishing

b. Had finished

c. Will finish

d. Finished

 

9. ‘A’ is tried for the murder of ‘B’. He takes the plea of self-defence but the evidence adduced by him is not sufficient to put his case under this exception, although it is enough to create doubt whether the charge against him has been positively proved. In this case

a. A' is guilty of murder because he has not discharged his burden of proof

b. A' is guilty of culpable homicide not amounting to murder because his case falls under exceptions to section 300IPC

c. A' has committed no offence because self-defence is a recognized ground of exemption from criminal liability

d. A' is entitled to acquittal as the prosecution has failed to prove his guilt beyond reasonable doubt.

 

10. Any person who commits the offence of showing pornography to any woman against the will of the woman shall be punished with rigorous imprisonment for a term which may extend up to:

a. Two years

b. Three years

c. One year

d. Five years

 

11. Section 17(3)(a) permits suspension or revocation where the licence-holder is unfit for a licence:

a. Only due to physical disability

b. Only due to criminal conviction

c. For any reason rendering him unfit under the Act

d. Only due to age

 

12. "Denatured spirituous preparation" means:

a. Any medicinal preparation only

b. Any preparation of fermented liquor

c. Any preparation of denatured spirit or alcohol

d. Any intoxicating drug mixed with spirit

 

13. वर्तमान हिन्दी का प्रचलित रूप है?

a. प्राकृत

b. अपभ्रंश

c. खड़ी बोली

d. संस्कृत

 

14. For a person covered under the proviso to Section 8(3), the presumption shall not take effect until:

a. Immediately upon commencement of the Act

b. After six months from commencement

c. After the expiration of one year from commencement

d. After notification by the Central Government

 

15. Section 1 of the Rajasthan Public Examination (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 1992 deals with:

a. Definitions

b. Penalties

c. Short title, extent and commencement

d. Cognizance of offences

 

16. NOTE: Direction choose the most appropriate form of indirect speech for the given sentence.

She said to me, “Where are going for the vacation.

a. She asked me where I was going for the vacation.

b. She said that where I was going for the vacation.

c. She asked me that where I was going for the vacation.

d. She asked where I had been going for the vacation

 

17. “Adoption regulations” are framed by:

a. Court

b. State Government

c. Authority

d. Board

 

18. Which of the following sentences has a gerund phrase:

a. She enjoys playing tennis

b. The children come running to meet us

c. We soon got talking

d. None of the above

 

19. Direction: Fill the blanks with present perfect tense of the verb the given option: 

The tourist___________ his wallet recently

a. Lost

b. Had lost

c. Has lost

d. Have lost

 

20. Consider the following statements:

1. The proceedings of the Parliament or State Legislatures of India are judicially noticeable facts

2. Rules of the road on land or at sea are not judicially noticeable facts.

3. Criminal law in force in India is judicially noticeable fact.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 and 3

c. 1, 2 and 3

d. 1 and 3

 

21. Directions: select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The old naam tree which____________ in our compound for fifty years suddenly crashed to the ground last night.

a. Had stood

b. Has stood

c. Is standing

d. Stands

 

22. Under Section 351 of BNSS, purpose of examination of accused is:

a. to enabling the accused personally to explain any circumstances appearing in the evidence against him

b. to enabling to accused to know his defence

c. to enabling to accused to know about the charges

d. all of the above

 

23. Section 14 of the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 deals with:

a. Forfeiture of property

b. Special Court and Exclusive Special Court

c. Presumption as to offences

d. Penalty for noncompliance of Section 10

 

24. Under BSA "Motive" becomes more relevant in a case based on

a. Direct evidence

b. Circumstantial evidence

c. Documentary evidence

d. Without any evidence

 

25. ‘अतिवृष्टि’ का विलोम होगा?

a. अल्पवृष्टि

b. अकाल

c. अनावृष्टि

d. तूफान

 

26. Which of the following cannot be arrested by a police officer without warrant?

a. Person having possession of implements of house breaking.

b. Person having possession of subject matter of theft.

c. Deserter of armed forces.

d. Person accused of non-cognizable offence.

 

27. The power to determine the language or a subordinate court is with:

a. High Court

b. State Government

c. Central Government

d. State Government with the concurrence of the High Court

 

28. Cheating is defined under .......... 0f the Indian Penal Code.

a. Section 415

b. Section 416

c. Section 417

d. Section 418

 

29. Which one of the following statements is correct?

A struck B on the neck with a knife and this was seen by C who exclaimed, “A is killing B”. C’s exclamation is

a. relevant because it was spontaneous

b. relevant because it forms part of the transaction

c. relevant because it is relatable to the transaction

d. relevant because it is a fact in issue

 

30. Whoever abets an offence under the POCSO Act, if the offence is committed as a consequence of the abetment, shall be:

a. Fined only

b. Punished with the punishment provided for that offence

c. Given imprisonment for 1 year only

d. Exempt from punishment

 

31. निम्न में से कौनसा सही विलोम वर्ग नहीं है?

a. भिज्ञ-अनभिज्ञ

b. विधवा-सथवा

c. वाचाल-मूक

d. नैसर्गिक-कृत्रिम

 

32. 'A' is accused of defaming 'B' by publishing an imputation intended to harm the reputation of 'B'. The fact of previous publication by 'A' respecting 'B', showing ill-will on the part of 'A' towards 'B' is relevant—

a. Because it proves the preparation for harming 'A's' reputation

b. As it is necessary to explain fact in issue

c. As proving intention to harm 'B's' reputation

d. As it is the effect of relevant fact

 

33. Which section of the POCSO Act prescribes punishment for sexual harassment?

a. Section 8

b. Section 9

c. Section 10

d. Section 12

 

34. Don't worry, I will stand _______ you if you get into trouble.

a. for

b. out

c. by

d. up

 

35. What is not true?

"Magistrate may discharge the accused if complainant is absent on date of hearing" if offence is:

a. Compoundable

b. Non-cognizable

c. Before charge has been framed

d. Provision would be applicable for complaint case and police case both

 

36. 'A' wishes to prove dying declaration by 'B'. 'A' must prove B's death. Which section of the BSA provides so?

a. Section 26

b. Section 106

c. Section 107

d. Section 105

 

37. निम्नलिखित में पर्यायवाची शब्द हैं ?

a. नीरज – वारिज

b. अंबर – अनिल

c. कुल – कूल

d. इनमें से कोई नहीं

 

38. For the admissibility of a dying declaration, it is not necessary that the statement:

a. relates to cause of death

b. the person making the statement must be under expectation of death

c. the person making the statement must be competent

d. the statement must be complete.

 

39. Before designating Courts of Sessions under Section 17, the State Government shall act in consultation with:

a. Advocate General of Rajasthan

b. Chief Secretary

c. Chief Justice of the High Court of Rajasthan

d. Director General of Police

 

40. Re-opening of investigation under section 173(8) of Cr PC

a. can be done by the investigating officer only

b. can be done only under the orders of the Magistrate

c. can be done only after seeking opinion of the public prosecutor, and on the direction of the State Government

d. can be done by the police of its own or under the orders of the court.

 

41. ………… light comes from the sun.

a. A

b. An

c. The

d. No article

 

42. Section 43(1) uses the expression “may”, which indicates that delegation is:

a. Mandatory

b. Automatic

c. Compulsory

d. Discretionary

 

43. लिखते हुए किसी शब्द के छूट जाने पर उसे लिखने के लिए किस चिह्न का प्रयोग करते हैं-

a. कोष्ठक चिह्न ।

b. उद्धरण चिह्न ।

c. अल्प विराम चिह्न ।

d. हंसपद चिह ।

 

44. 'B' assaults 'A' using a sharp edged weapon, resulting in an injury which is 6 cm long and Vi cm deep in the right forearm of 'A'. 'B' is liable to be charged for an offence punishable under:

a. Section 115, BNS

b. Section 118, BNS

c. Section 117, BNS

d. Section 118, BNS

 

45. Delay in dispatching the FIR to the Magistrate under section 157 of Cr PC

a. shall always throw out the prosecution case in its-entirety

b. shall never be a circumstance providing a legitimate basis for suspecting the FIR

c. may or may not be a circumstance providing a legitimate basis for suspecting the FIR depending on the facts and circumstance brought on record

d. either (b) or (c).

 

46. A school principal knows that a teacher has sexually harassed a child but fails to report it. Under Section 21(2), the principal can be punished with:

a. Imprisonment up to 6 months

b. Imprisonment up to 1 year and fine

c. Only a fine

d. Nothing, as Section 21 does not apply

 

47. “Child care institution” includes:

a. Only orphanages

b. Only adoption agencies

c. Various institutions under Act

d. Schools

 

48. Section 7 applies to acts involving:

a. Penetration only

b. No physical contact

c. Physical contact without penetration

d. Only verbal gestures

 

49. गुरु किसका विलोम है?

a. लघु

b. शिक्षक

c. भारी

d. दीर्घ

 

50. मंद का विलोम शब्द है-

a. सुस्त

b. आलस

c. शीघ्र

d. त्वरित

 

51. NOTE: Select the correct indirect speech from the given sentence.

Mother said to me, “I’m worried about your safety.”

a. Mother told me that she had been worried about my safety.

b. Mothe told me that she was worried about my safety.

c. Mother said she is worried about your safety.

d. Mother said that I was worrying about your safety.

 

52. किस स्थिति में अवतरण चिह्न का प्रयोग सामान्यतः नहीं होता है?

a. किसी के महत्त्वपूर्ण वचन उद्धृत करने में।

b. अप्रचलित अथवा विशेष प्रचलित शब्दों में।

c. व्यक्तियों के उपनामों में।

d. रचना का अनुवाद करते हुए।

 

53. The cat and the dog have a ________ enemy in the rat.

a. same

b. common

c. mutual

d. similar

 

54. The written information under Section 5(2) proviso must include:

a. Only the intention to sell

b. Only the details of arms

c. The name and address of the transferee

d. The price of arms

 

55. The labourers paved the entire stretch of the road.

a. The entire stretch of the road is paved by the labourers.

b. Paving of the entire stretch of the road was done by the labourers.

c. The entire stretch of the road was paved by the labourers.

d. Paving of the entire stretch of the road is done by the labourers.

 

56. Order of disposal of property at conclusion of trial is passed under

a. Section 489 of BNSS

b. Section 498 of BNSS

c. Section 499 of BNSS

d. Section 501 of BNSS

 

57. The right of private defence of property extends, under the restrictions mentioned in section 99, to the voluntary causing of death or of any other harm to the wrong-doer, if the offence, the committing of which, or the attempting to commit which. occasions the exercise of the right, be an offence of

a. Robbery or House-breaking by night

b. Mischief by fire committed on any building, tent or vessel, which building, tent of vessel is used as a human dwelling, or as a place for the custody of property

c. Theft, mischief, or house trespass, under such circumstances as may reasonably cause apprehension that death or grievous hurt will be the consequence, if such right of private defence is not exercised.

d. All of the above

 

58. Not a word was spoken by the criminal in self-defense.

a. The criminal spoke not a word in self-defense.

b. The criminal in self defense spoke no word.

c. The criminal did not speak a word in self defense.

d. The criminal spoke in self defense, not a word.

 

59. कसौटी शब्द है-

a. तत्सम

b. तदद्भव

c. देशज

d. विदेशी

 

60. ________ you like to go to the movies?

a. Does

b. Is

c. Do

d. will

 

61. The Act comes into force in a State on:

a. Date of Presidential assent

b. Date fixed by the High Court

c. Date notified by the State Government in the Official Gazette

d. Date notified by the Supreme Court

 

62. Which one of the following statements is correct?

In a trial of ‘A’ for the murder of ‘B’, marks on the ground produced by a struggle at or near the place of murder is a fact

a. forming part of the same transaction

b. necessary to explain or introduce relevant fact

c. showing existence of state of mind or of body

d. as to the occassion, cause or effect of facts in issue

 

63. The State Government may prescribe duties and powers to be performed and exercised by:

a. Excise Commissioner only

b. Officers appointed under Sections 9(1) and 9(1-A)

c. Rajasthan Tax Board only

d. Civil Courts

 

64. “Authorised foreign adoption agency” is:

a. Indian NGO

b. Court body

c. Foreign welfare agency authorised by CARA

d. State authority

 

65. The compounding of an offence as per Section 320 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 shall, have the effect of:

a. discharge

b. conviction

c. acquittal

d. dropping of Charge

 

66. The agent had disclosed the secret before it was evening.

a. The secret was disclosed by the agent before it was evening.

b. The secret had disclosed by the agent before it had been evening.

c. The secret had been disclosed by the agent before it was evening.

d. The secret was disclosed by the agent before it had been evening.

 

67. Which Section of the BSA is not on 'shifting of burden of proof'?

a. Section 104

b. Section 105

c. Section 108

d. Section 111

 

68. Property confiscated under Section 12(5) shall stand confiscated to:

a. The Central Government

b. The Examination Authority

c. The State Government

d. The Designated Court

 

69. शांतिदूत में कौन सा समास है?

a. द्वंद्व समास

b. तत्पुरुष समास

c. अव्ययीभाव समास

d. कर्मधारय समास

 

70. “Child in need of care and protection” includes a child:

a. With parents

b. Without settled home or means of subsistence

c. Studying

d. Living with family

 

71. The maximum term of imprisonment prescribed for contravention of Section 4 or Section 5 is:

a. Five years

b. Six years

c. Ten years

d. Seven years

 

72. The rigor of conclusive presumption of legitimacy under Section 116 of the BSA can only be rebutted by:

a. DNA testing about paternity

b. non-access of parties

c. the fact that wife was observing the menstrual period

d. the fact that the wife had undergone tubectomy recently

 

73. Under which provision a witness can refresh his memory:

a. U/s 148 of BSA

b. U/s 162 of BSA

c. U/s 165 of BSA

d. U/s 157 of BSA

 

74. Oral evidence, under Section 55 of the BSA must in all cases be

a. indirect

b. circumstantial

c. direct

d. may be presumed by Court

 

75. Consider the following:

At the conclusion of the trial, the court may make recommendation for award of compensation under Section 396 of BNSS…………… 

I. Where it is satisfied that compensation awarded under Section 395 is not adequate.

II. Where the case ends in acquittal or discharge and the victim has to be rehabilitated.

Choose correct answer using the code given below:

a. I only

b. II only

c. both I and II

d. neither I nor II

 

76. Section 6 of the Rajasthan Excise Act, 1950 deals with:

a. Saving of enactment relating to customs

b. Possession by wife, clerk or servant

c. Limit of sale by retail

d. Country liquor

 

77. During the course of trial of a murder case, which of the following may be proved:

a. Statement of confession of accused made in police custody during investigation.

b. Recovery of the weapon of offence on basis of statement made by accused during investigation of another case.

c. After recovery of dead body, the statement of accused as to the place where he threw the dead body.

d. None of the above

 

78. 'Electronic Record' under BNS is defined in:

a. Section 29

b. Section 2(8)

c. Section 2(5)

d. Section 2(7)

 

79. ‘इन्द्र’ शब्द का स्त्रीलिंग रूप क्या है?

a. इन्द्रा

b. इन्द्राणी

c. इन्द्रानी

d. इन्द्राणि

 

80. Under Section 10(1), an examinee who indulges in unfair means as defined under section 2(f)(i) shall be punishable with imprisonment:

a. Which may extend to one year

b. Which may extend to two years

c. Of either description for a term which may extend to three years

d. For a term not less than three years

 

81. The weather is nice, ________ we'll have a picnic.

a. So

b. But

c. Because

d. And

 

82. For the purposes of the Act, "Denatured" means:

a. Mixed with any intoxicating drug

b. Distilled beyond prescribed strength

c. Mixed with water to reduce potency

d. Mixed with such substance and by such process as may be prescribed under Section 42 to render spirit unfit  for human consumption

 

83. The ingredients of Section 190 of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 are:

1. Knowledge of the probability of the commission of the offence

2. Common intention

3. Unlawful objects stated in Section 190 of the BNS

4. Active participation in commission of crime.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below—

Codes:

a. 1, 3 and 4

b. 2 and 4

c. 3 and 4

d. 1 and 3

 

84. निम्नांकित में से शुद्ध वाक्य है :-

a. तुलसीदास ने रामचरितमानस का प्रणयन किया।

b. तुलसीदास ने रामायण का प्रणयन किया।

c. तुलसीदास ने रामचरितमानस का पारायण किया।

d. तुलसीदास ने रामचरितमानस का संयोजन किया

 

85. Every rule made under Section 44 must be laid before:

a. State Legislature

b. High Court

c. Standing Committee

d. Each House of Parliament

 

86. The accused was entrusted with some silver for the purpose of making ornaments and he dishonestly mixed copper info the ornaments. The offence committed is:

a. Fraud

b. Cheating

c. Extortion

d. Criminal breach of trust

 

87. The right of private defence of body extends to causing death of the assailant if the offence which occasions the exercise of the right is of:

a. Wrongful restraint

b. Assault with the intention of committing rape

c. Hurt

d. Assault

 

88. 'A' is on trial for the murder of 'C'. There is evidence to show that 'C' was murdered by 'A' and 'B', and that 'B' said—‘A' and I murdered 'C. As against 'A', this evidence is

a. not to be taken into consideration as the evidence is hearsay.

b. to be taken into consideration as it is direct.

c. not to be taken into consideration as 'A' and 'B' are not being jointly tried.

d. to be taken into consideration as 'A' and 'B' are accomplices.

 

89. The sale of an excisable article in excess of the quantity declared as the limit of sale by retail shall be deemed to be:

a. Illegal sale

b. Retail sale

c. Wholesale sale

d. Transport

 

90. The thief was caught and the police _______ the stolen goods from him.

a. concerned

b. attained

c. recovered

d. recover

 

91. नीचे दिये गए विकल्पों में से तद्भव शब्द का चयन कीजिए ?

a. अमिय

b. बैंक

c. अग्नि

d. मुँह

 

92. Estoppel can be:

a. by silence

b. by negligence

c. by election

d. all the above

 

93. Which of the following police officer may arrest such a person without any warrant who is under suspicion of deserting any of the armed forces of Union?

a. Superintendent of Police

b. Inspector of Police

c. Officer-in-charge of a Police Station

d. Any police officer

 

94. Where an order under Section 3 or Section 4 is made by a court other than the High Court, an appeal shall lie to:

a. Supreme Court

b. High Court only

c. The court to which appeals ordinarily lie from the sentences of that court

d. District Magistrate

 

95. Actus Reus includes

a. Positive acts only

b. Negative acts only

c. Both positive and negative acts

d. None of the above

 

96. Breach of bond may result in:

a. Dismissal of case

b. Fine only

c. Arrest and detention in prison

d. Bail cancellation only

 

97. रण का विलोम है?

a. बेराह

b. निर्दयी

c. बैठना

d. अहिंसा

 

98. Which of the following is included within "Manufacture"?

a. Rectification of liquor

b. Reduction of liquor

c. Flavoring, blending or coloring of liquor

d. All of the above

 

99. Under Section 2, "intoxicating drug" includes:

a. Opium only

b. Coca leaf only

c. Leaves, small stalks and flowering or fruiting tops of the hemp plant (Cannabis Sativa)

d. Manufactured drugs only

 

100. Complaint may relate to:

a. A cognizable offence

b. A non cognizable offence

c. Both (a) & (b) are correct

d. Must be for a non-cognizable offence as the police has no power to investigate such an offence.