Mock Tests · Rajasthan APO Mock Test (English Medium)
Rajasthan APO Mock Test-5
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1. Section 7 of the POCSO Act defines the offence of:
a. Penetrative sexual assault
b. Aggravated penetrative sexual assault
c. Sexual assault
d. Sexual harassment
2. If a person in respect of whom an order requiring security is made under Section 106 or 117 of Cr. P. C. is, at the time such order is made, undergoing a sentence of imprisonment, the period for which such security is required shall commence:-
a. on the expiration of such sentence
b. concurrently
c. at no time
d. on the date determined by the Court
3. Members of NCC are exempt under Section 45 only when:
a. Enrolled as cadets
b. Wearing uniform
c. Acting in the course of their duty
d. Carrying licensed arms
4. If police does not investigate, he must:
a. Ignore case
b. Arrest accused
c. Record reasons and inform informant
d. Transfer case
5. Which one of the following sections of BSA contains provisions regarding cross-examination of witnesses to character?
a. Section 145
b. Section 141
c. Section 142
d. Section 139
6. Which of the following correctly distinguishes the punishments under Section 6?
a. Sections 3, 4 and 5 carry identical punishment
b. Section 3 carries a higher minimum sentence than Sections 4 and 5
c. Sections 4 and 5 prescribe a minimum imprisonment term, whereas Section 3 does not
d. Section 3 prescribes mandatory imprisonment
7. CARA is constituted under:
a. Section 2
b. Section 4
c. Section 68
d. Section 10
8. The Rajasthan Excise Act, 1950 was made by:
a. The Governor of Rajasthan
b. The President of India
c. The Rajasthan Legislative Assembly
d. His Highness the Rajpramukh
9. 'घर की मुर्गी दाल बराबर, कहावत का अर्थ है:
a. घर की मुर्गी को दाल के बराबर मूल्यवान समझना
b. घर की मुर्गी को बराबर दाल खिलाना
c. मुर्गी व दाल खाना
d. अपने आदमी को कम महत्व देना
10. According to the Explanation to Section 6, an “imitation firearm”:
a. Must be capable of firing a bullet
b. Must be made of metal
c. Has the appearance of being a firearm
d. Is a toy gun only
11. Proviso of Section 23 of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam is based on
a. doctrine of agency
b. doctrine of proportionality
c. doctrine of confirmation by subsequent events
d. doctrine of eclipse
12. 'अभ्यंतर शब्द में कौनसी संधि प्रयुक्त हुई है?
a. यण संधि ।
b. वृद्धि संधि ।
c. गुण संधि ।
d. दीर्घ संधि ।
13. बहाव’ शब्द में प्रयुक्त प्रत्यय कौन-सा है ?
a. बह
b. हाव
c. आव
d. आवा
14. NOTE: Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.
Ajay says, “There is going to be a snowfall.”
a. Ajay said that there is going to be a snowfall.
b. Ajat said that there was going to be a snowfall.
c. Ajay says that there was going to be a snowfall.
d. Ajay says that there is going to be a snowfall.
15. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word?
Modest
a. Unhappy
b. Conceited
c. Sullen
d. Glum
16. An order for custody and disposal of property passed under Section 451 of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973 is:
a. an interlocutory order
b. a final order
c. a directory order
d. a temporary order
17. The purpose of such inquiry is to assist the court in determining:
a. The most suitable method of dealing with the accused
b. The guilt of the accused
c. The punishment only
d. The police investigation
18. "Tari" means:
a. Fermented juice drawn from any kind of palm tree only
b. Unfermented juice drawn from any kind of palm tree only
c. Fermented or unfermented juice drawn from any kind of palm tree
d. Any fermented liquor declared by the State Government
19. Which of the following statements is not true?
a. Rioting and affray have been defined in sections 191 and 194(1) of BNS respectively
b. Rioting must be committed in public place, affray may be committed in any place
c. Rioting is punishable with imprisonment extending to two years, affray is punishable with imprisonment extending to one month
d. Rioting is committed by 5 or more persons and affray is committed by 2 or more persons
20. The bus will arrive ________ 10 minutes.
a. On
b. At
c. In
d. For
21. निम्नलिखित में कौन-सा शब्द वृद्धि संधि का उदाहरण नहीं है?
a. सदैव
b. जलौघ
c. गुरुपदेश
d. परमोदार्य
22. The 'fact in issue' means
a. fact, the existence or non-existence of which is admitted by the parties
b. fact, the existence or non-existence of Which is disputed by the parties
c. fact, the existence or non-existence of which is not disputed by the parties
d. All of the above
23. Anticipatory bail can be granted to a person apprehending arrest on accusation of having committed a non- bailable offence under…………..
a. Section 480 BNSS
b. Section 482 BNSS
c. Section 488 BNSS
d. Section 490 BNSS
24. Which one of the following sections of the Indian BSA makes relevant opinions as to existence of custom?
a. Section 47
b. Section 42
c. Section 49
d. Section 50
25. The exclusion of Sections 41 and 44 from delegation indicates:
a. Legislative oversight
b. Judicial supremacy
c. Legislative intent to retain core powers with Central Government
d. Federal compulsion
26. The people couldn’t move me to the hospital and the doctor operated on me at home.
a. I couldn’t be moved to the hospital and was operated on at home by the doctor.
b. I couldn’t be moved to the hospital and I had to be operated on at home.
c. I couldn’t be moved to the hospital and I was operated at home by the doctor.
d. I couldn’t be moved to the hospital by the people and operated on at home.
27. Section 27 of the Evidence Act applies:
a. when the person giving information is an accused and is in police custody
b. when the person is in police custody but not an accused
c. when the person is neither in police custody nor an accused
28. टवर्ग का उच्चारण स्थान है ?
a. कंठ
b. मूर्धा
c. तालु
d. दंत
29. Contravention of Section 4 or Section 5 shall be punishable with:
a. Imprisonment only
b. Fine only
c. Imprisonment and fine
d. Community service and fine
30. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court had held that to attract, section 304B, the deceased need not be a legally wedded wife of the accused?
a. Shanti v State
b. Koppisetti Subbaraov State
c. Kantilal v State
d. None of the above
31. NOTE: Select the correct the indirect form of the given sentence.
Priya Said, “Yes, I am confounded.
a. Priya admitted that she was confound.
b. Priya admits that she was confound.
c. Priya admitted that was confound.
d. None of this above
32. निम्नलिखित शब्दों में से ‘सरस्वती’ का पर्याय हैं?
a. शारदा
b. कमला
c. पद्मा
d. राजलक्ष्मी
33. Clause (j)(ii) specifically applies when sexual assault:
a. Causes mental illness
b. Causes death
c. Makes female child pregnant
d. Causes grievous hurt
34. "Liquor" means:
a. Intoxicating liquor only
b. Spirit only
c. Intoxicating liquor and includes specified alcoholic liquids and substances declared by the State Government
d. Beer only
35. Solving or attempting to solve question paper in an unauthorized manner is included in:
a. Examination misconduct
b. Unfair means
c. Recruitment malpractice
d. Conduct of public examination
36. Euthanasia means —
a. Death by Consent
b. Divorce by Mutual Consent
c. Surgery by Consent
d. Transfer by Order
37. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
a. In civil cases character to prove conduct is irrelevant
b. In criminal cases previous good character is irrelevant
c. In civil cases character as affecting damages is relevant
d. In criminal cases previous bad character is irrelevant unless evidence has been given of good character
38. Which one of the following statements is not correct? There shall be no appeal if a sentence of imprisonment/fine is passed by the
a. High Court—not exceeding six months
b. Sessions Judge—not exceeding three months
c. Metropolitan Magistrate—not exceeding three months
d. Magistrate first class—not exceeding one month
39. NOTE: Select the option that expresses the following sentence in reported (or indirect) speech.
The postmaster said to her, “You can purchase only two stamps at a time.”
a. The postmaster told her that she can purchase only two stamps at a time.
b. The postmaster asked her that she could purchase only two stamps at a time.
c. The postmaster instructed her that she should purchase only two stamps at a time.
d. The postmaster told her that she could purchase only two stamps at a time.
40. "Still" includes:
a. Only a complete distillation apparatus
b. Any part thereof and any other apparatus for distillation or manufacture of spirit
c. Only vessels used for storage
d. Only licensed distilleries
41. Fermented wash or other material for distillation is included in the definition of:
a. Beer
b. Excisable article
c. Import
d. Export
42. 'A' an officer of a Court, being ordered by the Court to arrest V, and after due enquiry, believing Z to be Y, arrests Z. What mistake has been committed by A?
a. Mistake of fact
b. Mistake of law
c. Both (a) and (b) above
d. None of these
43. A person employed on a particular occasion in the capacity of a clerk or servant:
a. Is not covered by Section 6
b. Is covered only if regularly employed
c. Is a clerk or servant within the meaning of Section 6
d. Is deemed to be a licensee
44. The prohibition contained in section 162 of Cr PC
a. shall not apply where the statement made to the police during investigation is made admissible under any other provision of the Code.
b. shall apply even where the statement made to the police officer during investigation is made admissible under any other provision of the code as section 162 has an over-riding effect
c. may or may not apply where the statement made to the police during investigation is made admissible under any other provisions of the Code, depending on the facts and circumstances of the case.
d. may or may not apply where the statement made to the police during investigation is made admissible under any other provision of the Code, depending on the discretion of the Court.
45. If the person is not present in Court, the Magistrate shall:
a. Dismiss proceedings
b. Issue summons or warrant
c. Wait indefinitely
d. Close the case
46. "Genial" write the opposite of the given word.
a. stupid
b. stingy
c. boorish
d. unkind
47. Court can take judicial notice
a. that Amitabh Bachchan is a famous actor
b. that M.F. Hussain is a veteran painter
c. that Bentham was a renowned jurist
d. none of the above
48. The limit of sale by retail may be declared with respect to:
a. The whole of the territories to which the Act extends or any local area comprised therein
b. District headquarters only
c. Municipal areas only
d. Licensed premises only
49. Any condition imposed by a Magistrate when releasing any person on bail:
a. can be set aside or modified only by the Supreme Court
b. cannot be modified by any court
c. can be modified by Session Court or High Court
d. can be set aside only by Sessions Court
50. A Special Court under Section 28 can also try offences:
a. Only under POCSO Act
b. Under any other law where the accused may be charged at the same trial
c. Only civil offences
d. Only online offences
51. ‘महात्मा’ में कौन सा समास है?
a. कर्मधारय समास
b. अव्ययीभाव समास
c. द्वंद्व समास
d. तत्पुरुष समास
52. इनमें से कौन सी जातिवाचक संज्ञा से भाववाचक संज्ञा बनाया गया है?
a. बच्चा–बच्चापन
b. किताब–किताबपन
c. घर–घराना
d. पेड़ – पेड़पन
53. Surely the lost child must have been found by now.
a. Surely must have found the lost child by now.
b. Surely someone must have found the lost child by now.
c. Surely now must have found the lost child
d. Now must have found the lost child surely.
54. The meeting will start ________ 2:00 PM ________ 3:00 PM.
a. from, until
b. at, to
c. between, and
d. at, until
55. Select the most appropriated ANTONYM of the given word?
Hospitality
a. Complaint
b. Cordiality
c. Coldness
d. Wrathful
56. According to Section 19(3), when may the officer arrest a person without a warrant?
a. When the person refuses to give name and address
b. When the officer suspects the person may give a false name or intends to abscond
c. In both (a) and (b)
d. Only after approval from the licensing authority
57. The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 is:
a. A criminal law statute
b. A procedural law
c. An Act to consolidate and amend law relating to children
d. A constitutional amendment
58. In Section 21(1), the term “unit armoury” includes:
a. Only armouries on land-based military establishments
b. An armoury in a ship or establishment of the Indian Navy
c. Any private gun club
d. Only central government armouries
59. The Supreme Court of India has recognized the presumption of innocence as a:
a. fundamental right
b. human right
c. statutory right
d. customary right
60. 'A' is tried for a riot and is proved to have marched as the head of a mob. The effects of the mob are relevant as
a. They are related to things said or done by the conspirators in reference to the common design
b. Explanation of the nature of the transaction
c. Explanatory of motive or preparation'
d. Explanatory of occasion, cause or effects or facts
61. The car is ________ to drive.
a. Too fast
b. Very fast
c. So fast
d. fastly
62. Section 137 BNSS deals with:
a. Discharge of person informed against
b. Arrest procedure
c. Search warrant
d. Seizure of property
63. A bond under Section 139 binds a person to:
a. Pay fine
b. Appear in Court
c. Keep peace or be of good behaviour
d. Give evidence
64. क्रिया के उस रुपान्तरण की, जिससे क्रिया के व्यापार का समय तथा उसकी पूर्ण अथवा अपूर्ण अवस्था का बोध होता है. को कहते है
a. समास
b. सर्वनाम
c. काल
d. कारक
65. "Export" means:
a. To bring into those parts of the State of Rajasthan to which the Act extends
b. To transport within a district
c. To take out of those parts of the State of Rajasthan to which the Act extends
d. To remove from one warehouse to another
66. संस्कृत के आकारांत शब्द होते हैं?
a. स्त्रीलिंग
b. पुल्लिंग
c. नपुंसकलिंग
d. उपर्युक्त सभी
67. The approach adopted under the Act is:
a. Punitive
b. Administrative
c. Child-friendly
d. Judicially strict
68. My cat is afraid of dogs ________ other animals.
a. But
b. Or
c. And
d. Because
69. Abduction can be committed against:
a. A person of any age.
b. A male or female person below 18 years only
c. Women only
d. None of the above
70. A and B were prosecuted for conspiracy for bribing a police officer. A came to the police station and offered an Inspector packet of currency notes. He told the inspector that B had sent the money as a consideration for hushing up the case against him. The offer of money and the accompanying statement made by A were relevant against
a. A only
b. B only
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of the above
71. Sections 104 to 114 of the BSA lays down provisions regarding who is to lead evidence and prove the case. These rules are called rules relating to:
a. Burden of proof
b. Presumption of fact
c. Presumption of law
d. Presumptions
72. Information relating to a cognizable offence may be given:
a. Only in writing
b. Only orally
c. Orally or by electronic communication
d. Only through advocate
73. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word?
Praise
a. Celebrate
b. Condemn
c. Hail
d. Secure
74. Section 9 of the Act deals with:
a. Penalties for examinees
b. Offences by Management, Institution or others
c. Designated Courts
d. Investigation of offences
75. Which of the following statements is not correct:
a. In a criminal act done by several persons in furtherance of common intention of all, each of them will be held liable for that act.
b. In an act done by several persons, the act being criminal only by reason of its being done with criminal knowledge or intention, all persons joining in the act, irrespective of such knowledge or intention, will be held liable for that act.
c. In an offence done by means of several acts all the persons intentionally cooperating in that act by doing any of those acts, will be held liable for that offence
d. In a criminal act done by several persons, all may be held liable for different offences by means of that act
76. A, B and C conspired to commit an offence. Later A and B abandon the plan, but C commits the same offence. When C was arrested, he also named A and B. In their defence A and B said that they have abandoned the idea and they did not take part in the crime. In this, who will be punished?
a. No one could be punished for criminal conspiracy
b. Only C could be punished
c. A, B and C could be punished for criminal conspiracy
d. None of the above
77. ‘पर्यावरण’ का सही संधि-विच्छेद है ?
a. पर्या + वरण
b. परि + आवरण
c. परिध + आवरण
d. परि + वरण
78. Section 1 of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 deals with:
a. Definitions
b. Powers of Board
c. Short title, extent, commencement and application
d. Adoption procedure
79. निम्न शब्द-समूहों में वचन की दृष्टि से कौनसा विकल्प सही नहीं है?
a. एकवचन बहुवचन लता - लताएँ
b. गाथा - गाथाएँ
c. क्षमा - क्षमाएँ
d. कन्या. - कन्याएँ
80. Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the word:
"Pious"
a. Religious
b. Sympathetic
c. Afraid
d. Faithful
81. Section 19 ensures that an offender above 18 years found guilty under the SC/ST Act:
a. May be released on probation under Section 360 CrPC
b. Cannot be released on probation under Section 360 CrPC or the Probation of Offenders Act
c. Is automatically granted anticipatory bail
d. Can opt for civil settlement
82. Does it amount to faith if A expresses in good faith any opinion whatever respecting_ Z s conduct in petitioning Government on a public question, in signing a requisition for a meeting on a public question, in presiding or attending at such meeting, in forming or joining any society which invites the public support. in voting or canvassing for a particular candidate for any situation in the efficient discharge of the duties of which the public is interested.
a. Yes
b. No
c. Depends
d. None of the above
83. Which of the following is required to be proved essentially?
a. Judicial notice
b. Admitted fact
c. Confession
d. Relevant fact
84. Which of the following persons may enter the premises of the examination center under Section 7?
a. Any member of the public
b. A person entrusted or engaged with the work pertaining to public examination
c. Any applicant for recruitment
d. Any Government servant
85. Apart from the specified duties, a probation officer shall also perform:
a. Police duties
b. Government administrative duties
c. Judicial duties
d. Such other duties as may be prescribed
86. Under Indian Penal Code, 1860, subject to the restriction laid down under its Section 99 in cases of assault causing reasonable apprehension of death or grievous hurt, the right of private defence extends to the voluntary causing of
a. grievous hurt
b. Death
c. any harm other than death
d. any harm other than death or grievous hurt
87. Section 12 of the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 deals with:
a. Forfeiture of property
b. Taking measurements and photographs of persons against whom Section 10 order is made
c. Enhanced punishment for repeat offences
d. Presumption of offences
88. Section 115 BNSS deals with:
a. Assistance in relation to orders of attachment or forfeiture of property
b. Arrest of accused
c. Search warrant
d. Summons procedure
89. The bond applies to offences committed:
a. Only within jurisdiction
b. Only within State
c. Anywhere in India
d. Wherever committed
90. मनहरण छंद किस छंद का उपभेद है?
a. स्रग्धरा
b. त्रिवेणी
c. रागमाला
d. छंद
91. Under BSA questions relating to a matter not relevant to the suit or proceedings may be asked under
a. Section 146
b. Section 147
c. Section 151
d. Such questions cannot be asked
92. Section 45(3) reflects which type of control?
a. Judicial control
b. Executive control
c. Parliamentary control
d. Administrative control
93. विक्रमी संवत ईसवी सं से 57 वर्ष आगे रहता है
a. संवत
b. सम्वत
c. समवत
d. संवत्
94. Under the BNS a child below the age of seven years is
a. Absolutely Doli incapax
b. Absolutely Doli capax
c. Doli capax or Doli Incapax depends on the circumstances of a case
d. None
95. Section 57 of the BSA, deals with
a. primary evidence
b. secondary evidence
c. proof of documents by primary evidence
d. cases in which secondary evidence relating to documents may be given
96. They went to the beach ________ have a picnic.
a. for
b. at
c. on
d. in
97. ‘दीनानाथ’ में कौन-सा समास है?
a. कर्मधारय समास
b. बहुव्रीहि समास
c. द्विगु समास
d. द्वंद्व समास
98. Under Section 19, who is required to report an offence under the Act?
a. Only police officers
b. Only the child victim
c. Any person, including the child, who apprehends or has knowledge of the offence
d. Only a parent or guardian
99. Offence under section 120B is
a. Compoundable
b. Non-Compoundable
c. Depending on the offence
d. None of the above
100. Which of the following statements is correct in view of section 105 of the Indian Penal Code?
a. The right of private defence of property against criminal tres-pass or mischief continues as long as the offender continues in the commission of criminal tres-pass or mischief
b. The right of private defence of property against house-breaking by night continues as long as the house-trespass which has been begun by such house-breaking continues
c. Both (a) or (b)
d. None of the above
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