Mock Tests · Rajasthan APO Mock Test (English Medium)
Rajasthan APO Mock Test-10
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1. निम्नलिखित में देशज शब्द है-
a. चूल्हा
b. कड़ाह
c. आग
d. ठेठ
2. For an offence of cheating, intention to cheat should be present—
a. In the end
b. In the middle
c. Both the above
d. From the very beginning
3. दो या अधिक शब्दों के परस्पर संबंध बताने वाले शब्दों अपता प्रत्ययों का लीप होने पर, दो या अधिक शब्द में से जो एक स्वतंत्र शब्द बनता है, कहलाता है:-
a. समास
b. उपसर्ग
c. विशेषण
d. संज्ञा
4. Which of the following statements is correct:
a. Estoppel is not a rule of evidence
b. Estoppel from record constitutes bar of res-judicata
c. There can be estoppel on a point of law
d. There cannot be estoppel when the truth of the matter is known to both parties
5. "Charas" means:
a. Fermented rice liquor
b. Spirit obtained by distillation
c. Mother liquor obtained during manufacture of sugar
d. Resin obtained from the hemp plant not subjected to manipulations other than those necessary for packing and transport
6. उत्+हार की संधि है
a. उद्गार
b. उदहार
c. उद्धार
d. उधार
7. The manner of management of property is specified by:
a. State Government
b. Court
c. Police officer
d. Central Government
8. A prosecution can be withdrawn under Section 321 of CrPC:
a. Before the framing of charge
b. Before the examination of witnesses
c. Before the judgment is pronounced
d. Before the examination of the accused
9. Sections 76 to 79 of the Indian Penal Code are based on the Common Law maxim
a. gnorantia facit doth excusat, ignorantia juris non excusat'
b. Volunti non fit injuria
c. Res judicata pro veritateaccipitur
d. None of the above
10. Attachment order means:
a. Property is seized physically
b. Property cannot be transferred without permission
c. Property is destroyed
d. Property is sold
11. What is the maximum punishment provided for rash and negligent driving on the public road?
a. One year imprisonment & one thousand rupees fine
b. Six months imprisonment and one thousand rupees fine
c. Two years imprisonment and five thousand rupees fine
d. One year imprisonment and Five thousand rupees fine
12. Under which one of the following Section of Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, armed forces can be used disperse assembly for maintaining of public security?
a. Section 133
b. Section 139
c. Section 144
d. Section 149
13. This Act may be called:
a. The Rajasthan Abkari Act, 1950
b. The Rajasthan Excise Act, 1950
c. The Rajasthan Excise and Revenue Act, 1950
d. The Rajasthan Liquor Act, 1950
14. She sings ________ beautifully that everyone enjoys her performances.
a. so
b. too
c. such
d. very
15. For me, breakfast is……………… best meal of the day.
a. a
b. an
c. the
d. none of the above
16. Fill in the blanks with the correct word in the given sentences:
Mrs. Thomas along with Mrs. Jocab__________ volunteer work.
a. Will doing
b. Do
c. Dose
d. None of the above
17. A snake-charmer while showing his play claims to cure the snake bite. The deceased got himself a snake bite believing on assurance of the snake- charmer. The snake-charmer could not cure the deceased. The snake-charmer is liable for:—
a. Murder
b. Cheating
c. May be liable for culpable homicide
d. Liable for nothing
18. "An advocate is instructed by another advocate that an important witness is a dacoit. This is a reasonable ground for asking the witness whether he is a dacoit." This illustration is based on which of the following Sections of the BSA?
a. Section 152
b. Section 153
c. Section 147
d. Section 145
19. For the purposes of "Excise Revenue", fine does not include:
a. Administrative fine
b. Fine imposed by a Court of law
c. Penalty under the Act
d. Compounding amount
20. The maxim 'volenti non fit injuria' has been incorporated in which section of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
a. Section 25
b. Section 28
c. Section 30
d. None of the above
21. The power under Section 11 is an example of:
a. Judicial power
b. Legislative power exercised directly by Parliament
c. Delegated legislative power
d. Quasi-judicial power
22. Choose which part of speech the underlined part belongs to:
a. Pronoun
b. Verb
c. Noun
d. Adjective
23. Which of the following distinguishes section 3(5) of BNS from section 190 BNS?
1. Section 190 creates a substantive offence whereas section 3(5) does not create an offence.
2. Section 190 requires common object whereas section 3(5) requires common intention.
3. Section 190 requires five or more persons whereas section 3(5) requires two or more persons.
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 3
d. 1 and 2
24. The Act deals with children:
a. Only in conflict with law
b. Only in need of care and protection
c. Both categories of children
d. Only abandoned children
25. Illegal signifies:
a. Everything which is an offence
b. Everything which is prohibited by law
c. Everything which furnishes ground for civil action
d. All the above
26. सत्+जन संधि है :-
a. सजन
b. सज्जन
c. सत्जन
d. राजन
27. Section 122 BNSS deals with:
a. Arrest procedure
b. Certain transfers to be null and void
c. Search warrant
d. Summons procedure
28. The officer may not investigate when:
a. Offence is serious
b. FIR is filed
c. Accused is known
d. There is no sufficient ground
29. Every order made under Section 19 shall be laid before:
a. The High Court of Rajasthan
b. The State Government
c. The House of the State Legislature
d. The Designated Court
30. Maximum sentence of imprisonment that can be awarded for the offence of affray:
a. Three months
b. Two months
c. One month
d. Six months
31. What is most appropriate antonym of the given word?
Buffer
a. Cushion
b. Aggravate
c. Dampen
d. Palliate
32. Under Section 12, sexual harassment of a child may attract:
a. Imprisonment only
b. Fine only
c. Imprisonment and fine
d. Community service only
33. Choose the correct past tense of the word “Run.”
a. Runed
b. Ranned
c. Ran
d. Running
34. A sues B on an agreement and gives B notice to produce it. At the trial, A calls for the document and B refuses to produce it. A gives secondary evidence of its contents. B seeks to produce the document itself to contradict the secondary evidence given by A.
a. He cannot do so
b. He can do so with the consent of the other party.
c. He can do so with the order of the Court.
d. Both (b) and (c)
35. Select the most appropriate synonym of the most given word?
Solemn
a. Excited
b. Frivolous
c. Trivial
d. Dignified
36. "Spirit" means:
a. Any intoxicating drug
b. Any liquor containing alcohol obtained by distillation whether denatured or not
c. Any fermented liquor
d. Any liquid containing sugar
37. Section 22 of POCSO Act, 2012 deals with:
a. Punishment for sexual assault
b. Punishment for false complaint or false information
c. Punishment for aggravated sexual assault
d. Care and protection of child victims
38. खूब मन लगाकर पढ़ी ताकि परीक्षा में प्रथम आओं वाक्य में प्रयुक्त अध्यय कौनसा है ?
a. खूब
b. ताकि
c. में
d. आओ
39. “Child legally free for adoption” is declared by:
a. Court
b. Board
c. Police
d. Committee after due inquiry
40. Section 19 mandates that the police must report the matter to:
a. Child Welfare Committee (CWC) and the Special Court or Court of Session within 24 hours
b. Only to the hospital
c. Only to the nearest police station
d. Only to the parent of the child
41. Under Section 19, Section 360 of the CrPC deals with:
a. Anticipatory bail
b. Probation of offenders (release on probation)
c. Property attachment
d. Appeals
42. A mentally or physically challenged child without support:
a. Is excluded
b. Is included if found by Board or Committee
c. Is adult
d. Is independent
43. Which one among the following is not a primary Evidence?
a. A document executed in several parts
b. A copy made from or compared with original
c. Document executed in counterparts
d. Documents made by one uniform process
44. Sexual assault under Section 7 requires:
a. Penetration
b. Use of force
c. Sexual intent
d. Injury to the child
45. "Manufacture" includes:
a. Only natural processes
b. Only artificial processes
c. Production of excisable articles wholly but not partly
d. Every process, whether natural or artificial, by which any excisable article is produced or prepared wholly or partly
46. Section 9-B of the Rajasthan Excise Act, 1950 deals with:
a. Appeals and Revision
b. Powers of Excise Commissioner
c. Bar of jurisdiction of Civil Courts
d. Establishment of check-posts
47. खड़ी बोली किस हिंदी की बोली है?
a. पूर्वी हिंदी
b. पश्चिमी हिंदी
c. राजस्थानी हिंदी
d. पहाड़ी हिंदी
48. In Ranjit Udeshi Case, which of the following novel was the centre of controversy?
a. Bandit queen
b. Lady Chatterley’s lover
c. Satanic Verses
d. None of the above
49. किस विकल्प के सभी शब्द 'कमल' के पर्यायवाची हैं?
a. जलज, पंकज, जलद
b. नीरज, सरोज, पुंडरीक
c. राजीव, उत्पल, पयोद
d. वारिज, अंबर, सरसिज
50. A fact is conclusive proof of another fact. If that fact is proved then:
a. the court can call upon a party to prove another fact.
b. the court can allow opposite party to adduce the evidence to disprove another fact
c. both (a) and (b)
d. the court shall regard another fact as proved
51. An offence of voluntarily causing grievous hurt by dangerous weapons or means as provided under Section 118 (2) of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita is:
a. Compoundable
b. Non-Compoundable
c. Compoundable with the permission of Court
d. None of the above
52. The power under Section 13(2A) is subject to:
a. The discretion of police
b. Other provisions of Chapter II
c. Approval of Central Government
d. Customs laws
53. Section 2 of the Act deals with:
a. Public examinations
b. Definitions
c. Unfair means
d. Examination authorities
54. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word?
Avert
a. Face
b. Permit
c. Confront
d. Prevent
55. An offence under BNS for which fine is a mandatory punishment is the offence under
a. Section 118
b. Section 117
c. Section 74
d. Section 127
56. इसमें संचारी भाव है?
a. हर्ष
b. शोक
c. क्रोध
d. भय
57. निम्न में से कौनसा नि उपसर्ग से निर्मित शब्द है?
a. निरपराध
b. निराकार
c. न्यून
d. निर्गम
58. Which of the following statements with respect to victim compensation is incorrect?
a. Under Section 357(1), Cr.P.C, the Court can direct the accused to pay compensation only if the accused is punished with a sentence of fine or with some other sentence of which fine is a part. Amount of compensation cannot exceed the amount of line that can be imposed under the section for which the person has been convicted, and the amount of fine that particular court may impose by law.
b. Under Section 357(3), Cr.PC, a court can award compensation even if fine is not part of the sentence. There is no limit on the amount of compensation that the court may ask the accused to pay the victim.
c. If a person is acquitted of a crime, the trial court cannot make a recommendation of compensation under Section 357A, Cr.P.C.
d. If a crime has been committed, the victim is identified, but the accused cannot be traced, the victim can make an application or compensation to the State Or District Legal Services Authority.
59. वे शब्द जो किसी संस्कृत या प्राकृत मूल से निकले हुए नहीं जान पडते और जिनकी व्युत्पत्ति का पता नहीं लगता, कहलाते है: -
a. तत्सम
b. व्यंजन
c. देशज
d. खड़ी बोली
60. The State Government shall appoint:
a. Joint Excise Commissioner
b. District Excise Officer
c. Excise Commissioner
d. Assistant Excise Officer
61. 'A' was acquitted of the charge for voluntarily causing grievous hurt by throwing acid on 'X', as the victim did not support the police version about involvement of 'A' in the incident, though grievous hurt by acid was proved. 'X' seeks compensation from the Trial Court. The Trial Court may
a. dismiss the claim because the accused was acquitted.
b. dismiss the claim because the victim turned hostile during trial.
c. consider making recommendation to the State Legal Services Authority for compensation to victim.
d. direct the accused to pay compensation to the victim on humanitarian grounds.
62. जिस समास में प्रथम पद संख्यावाचक अर्थात गणनाबोधक होता है तथा दूसरा पद प्रधान होता है. उत्से कहते हैं:-
a. द्वंद्व समास ।
b. द्विगु समास ।
c. तत्पुरुष समास ।
d. कर्मधारय समास ।
63. Which one of the following is a leading case on confession to persons in authority?
a. Ramesh Chandra Mehta v. State of W.B.
b. Pyare Lai Bhargawa v. State of Rajasthan
c. Queen Empress v. Babu Lai
d. Sita Ram v. State
64. A news item in the newspaper stated that those who will open industrial units in Northeast India will be exempted from Corporate Tax for 5 years. X who wanted to set up an industry, applied to Director of Industries as well as to the Chief Secretary of one of the States and both confirmed the availability of Exemption. X proceeded with his plans. However, the State Government withdrew its policy after one year. Can X bring estoppel against the State?
a. No, because estoppel can not be against State
b. No, as there was no direct promise between the State and X
c. Yes, X can bring a suit of estoppel as he suffered detriment on the promise made by the State
d. It will be at the discretion of Court
65. Attachment of land paying revenue to the State Government of a person absconding shall be made:-
a. by taking possession
b. by appointing a receiver
c. through Collector of the district where land is situated
d. by any other means deemed fit
66. Which of the following irregularities of a Magistrate, not empowered by law to do so, vitiates the proceedings?
a. To hold inquiry under Section 196 Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023
b. To make over a case under Sub- Section (2) of Section 212 Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023
c. To take cognizance of an offence under clause (c) of sub-section (1) of Section 210 of Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023
d. To tender pardon to accomplice under Section 343 of Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023
67. An accused is prosecuted under Section 7 of the POCSO Act. What is the position under Section 29?
a. No presumption applies
b. Court may presume guilt
c. Special Court shall presume guilt
d. Presumption applies only after conviction
68. Despite looking for her _______, I could not find her.
a. somewhere
b. anywhere
c. everywhere
d. nowhere
69. “Children’s Court” includes:
a. High Court
b. Civil Court
c. District Magistrate
d. Special Court under POCSO Act
70. Section 19 of the Probation of Offenders Act deals with:
a. Power to make rules
b. Non-application of Section 562 of the Code
c. Duties of probation officers
d. Protection of actions
71. ‘अतिथि’ का विलोम शब्द है?
a. आतिथेय
b. आतिथ्य
c. आगंतुक
d. मेजबान
72. NOTE: select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.
She said; “I am preparing for the exam.”
a. She said that she was preparing for the exam.
b. She said that she had been preparing for the exam.
c. She said that she is preparing for the exam.
d. None of the above
73. Under Section 18, Section 438 of the CrPC, which deals with:
a. Anticipatory bail
b. Property attachment
c. Filing complaints
d. Appeals to the High Court
74. I don't like coffee, ________ tea.
a. Or
b. And
c. But
d. So
75. Under Section 8, the power to amend the Schedule is vested in:
a. High Court
b. State Government
c. Governor
d. State Legislature
76. Either you or I should ______ the lead.
a. takes
b. take
c. taking
d. took
77. Under Section 6A, both imprisonment and fine are:
a. Discretionary alternatives
b. Mandatory components of punishment
c. Applicable only in case of robbery
d. Applicable only in case of theft
78. नौकर चिट्ठी लाया, वाक्य में क्रिया है-
a. अकर्मक
b. सकर्मक
c. पूर्वकालिक
d. प्रेरणार्थक
79. Provisions relating, to estoppel are given in
a. Part V of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam
b. part IV of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam
c. part VIII of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam
d. part II of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam
80. Under BSA, the evidence given by dog squad is
a. not admissible
b. not admissible because dependent on the canine inference
c. Dogs cannot give evidence on oath
d. Admissible
81. Who amongst the following is an accomplice?
a. A prostitute
b. A raped girl
c. A spy
d. A person giving bribe under coercion
82. Section 52 of Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 provides for examination of the:
a. Person accused of rape by medical practitioner
b. Arrested person accused of rape by medical practitioner at the request of arrested person
c. Person accused of rape by medical practitioner at the request of police officer
d. Person accused of rape by medical practitioner at the request of the victim
83. "Abandon" Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the word:
a. Fosake
b. Keep
c. Cherish
d. Enlarge
84. The protection under Section 40 applies when the act is:
a. Lawful
b. Necessary
c. Reasonable
d. Done or intended to be done in good faith
85. In which one of the following circumstances, the right of private defence of the body extends to causing death?
a. Reasonable apprehension to cause simple hurt
b. Reasonable apprehension to cause simple theft
c. Reasonable apprehension of causing wrongful restraint
d. An act of throwing or administering acid or of such an attempt that reasonably causes apprehension of grievous hurt
86. The package arrived ________ the expected delivery date.
a. on
b. in
c. at
d. before
87. Burden of proof is lightened by
a. Presumption
b. Admissions
c. Estoppel
d. All of the above
88. Any other intoxicating or narcotic substance may be declared to be an intoxicating drug by:
a. Excise Commissioner
b. State Government by notification in the Official Gazette
c. District Magistrate
d. State Legislature
89. The licensing authority is empowered under Section 17(1) to vary which of the following conditions of a licence?
a. All conditions without exception
b. Only conditions prescribed under the Act
c. All conditions except those which have been prescribed
d. Only conditions requested by the licensee
90. Section 6 of the Act deals with:
a. Prevention of leakage by person entrusted with examination work
b. Unauthorized possession or disclosure of question paper and answer sheet or OMR sheet in any form
c. Prohibition of use of unfair means
d. Penalties
91. BSA consists of
a. 12 Chapters 170 Sections
b. 11 Chapters 2 Schedules
c. 11 Chapters 197 Sections
d. 11 Chapters 3 Schedules
92. The amount ordered under Section 5 may be recovered:
a. As civil damages
b. By Imprisonment
c. Through attachment only
d. As a fine
93. The Arms Act does NOT apply to arms or ammunition on board:
a. Any motor vehicle
b. Any railway train
c. Sea-going vessel or aircraft
d. Any public transport
94. एकाधिकार का विलोम शब्द है-
a. अनेकाधिकार
b. सर्वाधिकार
c. पराधिकार
d. परमाधिकार
95. Grievous hurt is defined in section....... of the Indian Penal Code.
a. 318
b. 319
c. 320
d. 321
96. हरिश्चन्द्रों की सत्यताा से ही भारत का सम्मान बचा हुआ है।' इस वाक्य में किस प्रकार के संज्ञा शब्द प्रयुक्त हुए हैं-
a. केवल व्यक्तिवाचक
b. केवल व्यक्तिवाचक और भाववाचक
c. केवल व्यक्तिवाचक और जातिवाचक
d. व्यक्तिवाचक, जातिवाचक और भाववाचक
97. The teacher should check the homework.
a. The homework should be checked by the teacher.
b. The homework is checked by the teacher.
c. The teacher is responsible for checking homework.
d. The homework will be checked by the teacher.
98. In a case where the deceased was murdered by one of the two accused with a sharp edged weapon while he was sleeping on a cot in his house while the other accused, his brother, without taking part stood by with a spear in his hand to overcome any outside interference and both the accused ran away together after the murder.
a. Section 34 can be applied
b. Section 34 cannot be applied because the presence of accused is way from the scene
c. Cannot be determined
d. None of the above
99. In which one of the following cases, the Supreme Court has recently laid down that registration of FIR in cognizable offences is mandatory?
a. DK Basu v. State of West Bengal
b. Lalita Kumari v. Government of UP
c. MadhuBalav. Suresh Kumar
d. SakiriVasuv. State of UP
100. A and B make a contract in writing that B shall sell A a house, to be paid for on delivery. At the same time they make an oral agreement that three months’ credit shall be given to A. Can evidence of this oral agreement be given in a court?
a. Yes, by A against a third party
b. Yes, by A against B or vice versa
c. Yes, by a third party against A or B
d. Yes, by a third party, only if he is affected, against A or B