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1. Directions: For Assertion and Reason Type Question: Question consist of two statements one labelled the Assertion 'A' and the other labelled the Reason 'R'. You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion 'A' and the Reason 'R' are individually true it so whether the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

Select your answer to these items using the codes given below and mark your answer sheet accordingly.

Assertion (A): 'X' and 'Y' had independently entertained the idea to kill 'Z' Accordingly each of them separately inflicted wounds on 'Z' who dies in consequence. 'X' and 'Y' are liable for murder with the aid of Section 3(5) BNS.

Reason (R): When a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of common intention of all, each of such persons is liable as if the whole act is done by him alone.

Codes:

a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

b. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A

c. A is true but R is false

d. A is false but R is true

 

2. Which one of the following sections of Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 provides that "no Judge or Magistrate shall try any case in which he is personally interested"?

a. Section 519

b. Section 520

c. Section 525

d. Section 481

 

3. 'Which one of the following' is not a Directive Principle of State Policy?

a. Organization of Village Panchayats.

b. Uniform Civil Code for citizens and non-citizens.

c. Right to work, to education and to public assistance in certain cases.

d. Separation of Judiciary from executive.

 

4. Under which one of the following sections of BNSS it is mandatory for the officer to produce the person arrested before a Magistrate within 24 hours of the arrest

a. Section 58

b. Section 68

c. Section 79

d. Section 90

 

5. Which Article of the Constitution of India obliges the State to organize Village Panchayats?

a. Article 40

b. Article 41

c. Article 42

d. Article 43

 

6. ‘A’ the tenant files a suit for permanent injunction against ‘B’ the landlord for not to be dispossessed except by due process of law pleading that ‘B’ is planning to forcibly dispossess him. During the pendency of above suit, ‘B’ attempts to forcibly disposes ‘A’. ‘A’ files another suit for injunction.

a. The second suit is barred by res judicata

b. The rule of res sub judice will apply

c. Both (a) and (b)

d. None of the above

 

7. No Court shall take cognizance of an offence punishable with fine only, after the expiry of the period of limitation of—

a. Two months

b. Three months

c. Ninety days

d. Six months

 

8. Preliminary Decree can be passed in a suit

a. for partition

b. for partnership

c. for possession and mesne profit

d. All these

 

9. The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is: —

a. not a part of the Constitution

b. a part of the Constitution but it neither confers any power nor imposes any duties nor can it be of any use in interpreting other provisions of the Constitution

c. a part of the Constitution and can be of use in interpreting other provisions of the Constitution in cases of ambiguity

d. a part of the Constitution and it confers powers and imposes duties as any other provisions of the Constitution

 

10. Under Section 26 of BSA, statement of a person, who is dead, is relevant:

a. if it relates to cause of someone else's death

b. if it relates to cause of his own death or someone else's death

c. if it relates to the cause of his own death

d. none of the above

 

11. Jurisdiction to grant bail under Section 482 of the BNSS vests with:

a. The Court of Magistrate

b. The Court of Sessions only

c. The High Court only

d. The Court of Sessions and the High Court and not in the Court of Magistrate

 

12. When a person is made to commit a crime after being put under fear of death, there is:

a. No mens rea

b. Mens rea

c. No offence

d. Neither mens rea nor offence

 

13. If a person instigates, intentionally aids or engages another person to do a thing he is said to have:

a. Abetted such another person

b. Conspired with that person

c. Becomes member of unlawful assembly

d. Designed commission of offence

 

14. The system of dual citizenship within the country exists in;

a. USA

b. France

c. India

d. UK

 

15. Which one of the following sections of BNSS provides power to the High Court to confirm sentence or annual conviction?

a. Section 407

b. Section 408

c. Section 409

d. Section 410

 

16. Article 15 of the Constitution prohibits discrimination between citizen on the basis of: —

a. Religion and caste only

b. Religion, race and caste only

c. Religion, caste and sex only

d. Religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them

 

17. Under Section 47 of the Code of Civil Procedure, which question does not relate to the execution, discharge or satisfaction of decree?

a. Whether a decree is executable?

b. Whether the property is liable to be sold in execution of the decree?

c. Whether the decree is fully satisfied?

d. Whether the decree is fraudulent or collusive?

 

18. Which of the following is not a Criminal Court?

i. Executive Magistrate

ii. Children's court under Juvenile Justice Act, 2000

iii. Panchayati Adalats

a. All of the above

b. only (ii)

c. only (iii)

d. (ii) and (iii) both

 

19. Which one of the following facts is protected from disclosure in a court of law?

a. A, a client, says to B, an attorney "I have committed forgery and I wish you to defend me"

b. A, a client, says to B, an attorney "I wish to obtain possession of property by the use of a forged deed on which I request you to sue"

c. A, being charged with embezzlement retains B, an attorney to defend him. In the course of the proceedings, B observes that an entry has been made in A's account book charging A with the sum said to have been embezzled which entry was not in - the book at the commencement of his employment

d. A, a client says to his attorney B, "I want to murder my enemy C. Please advise me how I may be able to murder C"

 

20. Which of the following is correct statement according to law?

a. An accomplice shall be competent witness against an accused person

b. Leading question may be asked in cross-examination of a witness

c. The court may permit a party, who, calls a witness, to put any question to him, which might be put in cross- examination by the adverse party

d. All the above

 

21. Which of the following statements is/ are correct?

All evidence taken in the course of the trial or other proceeding must be taken in the presence of the

1. accused only.

2. accused and his pleader.

3. pleader of the accused, when the attendance of the accused is dispensed with.

4. accused, except as otherwise provided under Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a. 2

b. 1

c. 3 and 4

d. 4 only

 

22. Section 21 of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, deals with

a. relevance of admissions in civil cases

b. relevance of oral admissions as to contents of documents

c. relevance of oral admissions as to contents of electronic documents

d. none of the above

 

23. On default in filing of written statement under Order 8, pronouncement of judgment

a. is mandatory

b. Discretionary

c. Directory Rule 10 of CPC.

d. None of the above

 

24. A person does not have 'reason to believe' a thing if he does not have & any

a. Information

b. Sufficient cause to believe

c. Knowledge

d. Reasons

 

25. Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, does not apply to the:

1. proceedings before the arbitrator

2. affidavits submitted by the deponent of his own

3. statements made by a child

4. statements of a person whose past is criminal

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a. 1 and 4

b. 1 and 3

c. 1 and 2

d. 1 only

 

26. The power of Judicial Review in India is possessed by-

a. Supreme Court alone

b. By all courts

c. Supreme Court as well as High Courts

d. None of the Courts

 

27. Inquiry, Trial or other Proceedings conducted in wrong place

a. Cannot be set aside unless the same has resulted into failure of justice

b. Cannot be set aside even if the same has resulted into failure of justice

c. Makes them void ab initio

d. Either (a) or (b)

 

28. Which of the following types of insanity is recognized as a defense under the BNS?

a. Impulsive insanity

b. Legal insanity

c. Medical insanity

d. All of the above

 

29. In which of the cases a plea bargain cannot he effected:

a. where the offence is punishable with imprisonment exceeding 7 years

b. Where the offence is against a child below 14 years

c. where the offence is against a woman

d. all of the above

 

30. A fresh suit on the same cause of action is not barred when

a. rejected under Order VII, Rule 11 of CPC

b. dismissed under Order IX, Rule 2 of CPC

c. dismissed under Order IX, Rule 3 of CPC

d. either (a) or (b) or (c)

 

31. When is an arrested person entitled to meet an advocate of his choice?

a. During interrogation

b. After interrogation

c. Throughout interrogation

d. All the above are correct

 

32. Which of the following is a public document?

a. A post-mortem report

b. An insurance policy

c. A Panchnama prepared by a police officer

d. A private waqf deed

 

33. 'A' a foreigner stabbed ‘B' another foreigner in a foreign vessel on the high seas. Both 'A' and ‘B' were brought to Bombay for treatment where 'B' died. ‘A’ is also available in Bombay. Which one of die following propositions is correct in respect of applicability of Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 to the trial of ‘A’?

a. As both the deceased and the accused belong to foreign countries and the occurrence of offence has taken place on the high seas, BNS is not applicable to ‘A’ and hence he cannot, he prosecuted in India

b. BNS is absolutely not applicable to a foreigner and hence 'A' cannot be tried in India

c. As the offence is completed in India territories and accused 'A' is available in India. BNS is applicable and he should be tried at Bombay

d. As BNS is applicable to Indians as well as to foreigners 'A' must be tried in India

 

34. Right to free and compulsory education to children between six and fourteen years of age is provided by which Article of the Constitution?

a. Article 21A

b. Article 14

c. Article 21

d. Article 45

 

35. Which section of BNSS provides protection against double jeopardy or autrefois convict?

a. Section 400

b. Section 403

c. Section 337

d. Section 301

 

36. 'B', 'C and/D' never saw 'A' writing. But they give their opinion about the handwriting of ‘A’. The opinion of which one is relevant?

a. of 'B', because 'B' is a merchant in Delhi. 'A' has written many letters addressed to 'B'

b. of 'C' because 'C is a clerk of 'A' 'C's duty was to examine and file A's correspondence

c. of 'D' because 'D' is Z's broker to whom Z habitually submitted the letters purporting to B written by 'A' for the purpose of his advice

d. of all the above

 

37. In which one among the following cases the Supreme Court of India said that 'it is not an absolute rule of law that dying declaration must be corroborated by other evidence before it can be acted upon'?

a. Shared Birdhichand Sharda v. State of Maharastra

b. Pakala Narayan Swami v. King Emperor

c. Kaushal Rao v. State of Bombay

d. Harjit Kaur v. State of Punjab

 

38. A instigates B, a person of unsound mind, to set fire to a dwelling house. B, incapable of knowing the nature of the act that he is doing what is wrong or contrary to law sets fire to the house in consequence of A's instigation.

Which one of the following statements legally correct?

a. since B is incapable of committing offence, A is also not guilty.

b. B has committed no offence but A is guilty of abetting the offence.

c. Both (a) and (b) are guilty.

d. only B is guilty.

 

39. Article 45 of the Indian Constitution refers to:—

a. free and compulsory education for children

b. free and compulsory education to all children of the age six to fourteen years

c. education to children upto six years of age

d. none of the above

 

40. Which of the following courts can try summarily offences mentioned in Section 283 of Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023?

a. Any Chief Judicial Magistrate

b. Any magistrate of the first class specially empowered by the High Court in this behalf

c. None of the above

d. All the above

 

41. Consider the following statements: —

1. Illegal arrest does not vitiate the trial.

2. A confession is not invalidated by the illegal arrest.

3. Mere keeping a person in police station or restricting his movements within the precincts of a police station amounts to arrest.

4. Arrest need not be by handcuffing a person, but could be complete by spoken words.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Codes:

a. Only 1 and 2 are correct

b. Only 1 and 4 are correct

c. Only 1, 2 and 4 are correct

d. 1, 2, 3 and 4 all are correct

 

42. Which of the following police officer may arrest such a person without any warrant who is under suspicion of deserting any of the armed forces of Union?

a. Superintendent of Police

b. Inspector of Police

c. Officer-in-charge of a Police Station

d. Any police officer

 

43. An offence punishable with punishment exceeding two years is triable as

a. Summon case

b. warrant case

c. both

d. either (a) or (b)

 

44. 'X' armed with a loaded pistol and ‘Y empty handed go to 'Z' shop in furtherance of their common intention to commit robbery, X enters the shop and on being resisted in carrying away property shoots Z with pistol. Z dies at once. For what acts of X, Y is liable:

a. Dacoity with murder

b. Extortion and culpable homicide not amounting to murder

c. Attempt to commit robbery when armed with deadly weapon

d. Robbery and murder through the principle of joint liability

 

45. Valuable security is defined in:

a. BNSS

b. Civil Procedure Code

c. BSA

d. BNS

 

46. Which of the following case is known as Funda¬mental Right Case?

a. ADM Jabalpur Case

b. Keshavananda Bharti Case

c. Golaknath Case

d. Maneka Gandhi Case

 

47. Directions: For Assertion and Reason Type Question: Question consist of two statements one labelled the Assertion 'A' and the other labelled the Reason 'R'. You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion ‘A’ and the Reason 'R' are individually true it so whether the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

Select your answer to these items using the codes given below and mark your answer sheet accordingly.

Assertion (A): X and Y independently intending to kill Z strike him with iron rods on his head. Z dies as a result of the injuries. Both X and Y are guilty of murder under Section 103/3(5), Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023,

Reason (R): When a criminal act is done by several person in furtherance of common intention of all, each of them is liable as if it was done by him alone.

Codes:

a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

b. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A

c. A is true but R is false

d. A is false but R is true

 

48. The plea of 'Alibi' is established by:

a. prosecution

b. accused

c. either by prosecution or by accused

d. none of the above

 

49. Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 applies to

a. the whole of India excluding the State of Jammu and Kashmir

b. all judicial proceedings in or before any Court

c. proceedings before an Arbitrator

d. affidavits presented to any Court or Officer

 

50. The term Judicial confession means

a. It is made before a Police Officer

b. It is caused by inducement, threat or promise

c. It is made before any court Officer

d. It is made before a Magistrate

 

51. Which one of the following acts is not a mode of abetment under the BNS?

a. Instigation

b. Aiding

c. Conspiracy

d. An attempt

 

52. "Fraudulently" has been defined as "intent to defraud but not otherwise" in Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, in Section

a. 2(6)

b. 2(7)

c. 2(8)

d. 2(9)

 

53. As per Article 21A, the state shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of: —

a. Six to fourteen years

b. Six to twelve years

c. Six to ten years

d. Six to eighteen years

 

54. Which of the following statements is true?

a. A suit for recovery of immovable property shall be instituted in the court in whose jurisdiction the property is situated.

b. A suit for partition of immovable property shall be instituted in the court in whose jurisdiction the defendant resides or works for gain.

c. Both (a) and (b)

d. Neither (a) nor (b)

 

55. Which of the following provisions deals with the power of the Sessions Judge of revision?

a. Section 401 BNSS

b. Section 400 BNSS

c. Section 420 BNSS

d. Section 440 BNSS

 

56. Which Section of Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 deals with those conditions, when consent is said to be, not free consent?

a. Section 25

b. Section 28

c. Section 30

d. Section 27

 

57. The right of a party to initiate an action and be heard before a Court of law is called?

a. Right to rem

b. Right in personam

c. Fundamental right

d. Locus standi

 

58. Which decision of the Supreme Court has dealt with the right of a prisoner to a speedy trial and legal aid?

a. Kharak Singh a State of U.P.

b. A.K Gopalan v. State of Madras

c. Hussainara Khatoon v. Home Secy., State of Bihar

d. Madhu Kishwar v. State of Bihar

 

59. In which case did the Supreme Court hold that freedom of speech and expression guaranteed by Article 19(1)(a) includes the right to information?

a. Secretary, Ministry of Information and Broadcasting n. Cricket Association of Bengal

b. Menaka Gandhi v. Union of India

c. Kharak Singh v. State of Uttar Pradesh

d. Minerva Mills Ltd. v. Union of India

 

60. Under which Section of the BSA, the expert opinion is relevant?

a. Section 44

b. Section 39

c. Section 46

d. Section 41

 

61. Practicing untouchability is;

a. Violation of a constitutional right

b. A criminal offence

c. Both (a) and (b)

d. Violation of a legal right only

 

62. A, a public servant is authorized by warrant from court of justice to apprehend Z. B. knowing that fact and also that C is not Z, willfully represents to A that C is Z and thereby causes A to apprehend C. How does B abet?

a. By way of instigation

b. By way of conspiracy

c. By way of aiding

d. By way of supporting

 

63. Through which amendment of the Constitution of India, Sikkim was included in the Union of India?

a. 36th Amendment

b. 35th Amendment

c. Seventh Amendment

d. Fifth Amendment

 

64. Sections 104 to 114 of the BSA lays down provisions regarding who is to lead evidence and prove the case. These rules are called rules relating to:

a. Burden of proof

b. Presumption of fact

c. Presumption of law

d. Presumptions

 

65. Consider the following objectives stated in the Preamble of the Constitution: —

1. Equality of Status and of opportunity

2. Fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual

3. Justice, social, economic and political

4. Liberty of thought, expression and belief

What is the correct order in which these find places in the Preamble?

a. 4-3-2-4

b. 2-3-1-4

c. 1-4-3-2

d. 3-4-1-2

 

66. Former statement of a witness may be proved to corroborate later testimony as to the same fact, as provided under Section of the BSA

a. Section 160

b. Section 151

c. Section 156

d. Section 155

 

67. Which of the following statement is correct with respect to an accomplice?

a. An accomplice shall not be a competent witness against an accused person

b. An accomplice shall be a competent witness against an accused person

c. No conviction shall be made based on the uncorroborated testimony of an accomplice

d. An accomplice's testimony shall always be corroborated

 

68. Period of limitation shall commence

a. From the date of the offence generally

b. From the date of knowledge, of the commission of the offence if. not known earlier

c. From the date of establishment of the identity of the accused if not known at the time of commission of the offence

d. All the above.

 

69. Admiralty jurisdiction does not extend over

a. Offences committed on Indian ships on the High seas

b. Offences committed on foreign merchant ships in Indian territorial water

c. Offences committed on foreign warships in Indian territorial water

d. Piracy

 

70. In the case of ‘res sub judice’ under Section 10 of the Code of Civil Procedure, the court can:

a. pass interim orders

b. grant of injunction

c. appoint a receiver

d. all of the above

 

71. Which one of the following statements is correct?

A hangman who hangs the convict pursuant to the order of the court is exempted from criminal liability by virtue of

a. Section 19 of Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023

b. Section 14 of Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023

c. Section 16 of Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023

d. Section 13 of Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023

 

72. The power of Parliament of form new States or alternation of areas and boundaries is drawn from: —

a. List I-Union List only

b. List Ill-Concurrent List also

c. The Constitution other than Article 246

d. None of the above

 

73. Admissions and confessions are—

1. Exception to the hearsay evidence

2. Part of hearsay evidence

3. Form relevant evidence

4. Admitted in evidence on proof

Select the correct answer by using the code given below—

Code:

a. 1, 2 and 4

b. 1, 3 and 4

c. 1 and 2

d. 2

 

74. Under Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, subject to the restriction laid down under its Section 37 in cases of assault causing reasonable apprehension of death or grievous hurt, the right of private defence extends to the voluntary causing of

a. Grievous hurt

b. Death

c. Any harm other than death

d. Any harm other than death or grievous hurt

 

75. Which one of the following cases is not correctly matched?

a. McNaughten's case Section 22 of BNS

b. D.P.P. v. Beard Section 22 of BNS

c. Basudeo v. State Section 24 of BNS

d. Bhawooiwaji v. Mooljee Dayal Section 17 of BNS

 

76. Affidavits to be filed in a Court can be

a. authenticated by a Minister of State

b. cannot be authenticated except by the judge presiding

c. authenticated by a judge, a Magistrate or a Notary

d. authenticated by an advocate

 

77. In BNS the word 'Woman' denotes to:

a. A female above the age of fifteen years

b. A female above the age of eighteen years

c. A female above the age of twenty one years

d. A female of any age including newly born female child

 

78. The rule of res sub judice as provided in Section 10 of Civil Procedure Code: —

a. stays the trial of the subsequent suit

b. stays the trial of the previous suit

c. prevents simultaneous hearing of previous and subsequent suits under all the circumstances

d. stays the institution of the subsequent suit

 

79. Which of the following is included in the definition of 'law' as provided in Article 13?

a. Bye-Law

b. Custom having the force of law

c. Usage having the force of law

d. All of the above

 

80. 'Movable property' under BNS is defined in:

a. Section 2(20)

b. Section 2(21)

c. Section 2(23)

d. Section 2(24)

 

81. Which among the following statements is incorrect:

a. A death sentence imposed by a Sessions Court is subject to confirmation by the High Court.

b. A death sentence imposed by a Sessions court can be confirmed by the High Court only when a Bench consisting of two judges or more hears the case.

c. No confirmation of a death sentence imposed by the Sessions Court can be made before the expiry of the period for preferring the appeal.

d. The High Court cannot acquit the convict while considering the case for confirmation unless he prefers an appeal.

 

82. A party under CPC may object to answer in interrogatory if it is:

a. Scandalous and irrelevant

b. Mala fide and immaterial

c. Privileged

d. All of these

 

83. Which of the following statement is not true?

a. In criminal proceedings, the fact that the accused is of a good character, is relevant

b. In criminal proceedings, the fact that the accused has a bad character, is relevant

c. A previous conviction is relevant as evidence of bad character

d. In civil cases, the fact that the character of any person is such as to affect the amount of damages which he ought to receive, is relevant

 

84. The Right to Property ceased to be Fundamental Right from-

a. 1975

b. 1976

c. 1978

d. 1979

 

85. Burden of introducing evidence under Section 105 of the BSA—

a. Shifts at times

b. Never shifts

c. Constantly shifts

d. None of these

 

86. 'Admission' according to Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam includes statement made by:

1. expressly referred person.

2. of a party to proceeding authorized to make the statement.

3. person whose liability must be proved.

4. person from whom the party derived his interest in the subject matter.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a. 1, 2, 3 and 4

b. 1, 2 and 3 only

c. 2, 3, and 4 only

d. 1 and 4 only

 

87. Every person who is arrested or detained is re-quired to be produced before the nearest Magistrate within a period of: —

a. 24 hours

b. 48 hours

c. 72 hours

d. None of these

 

88. A person arrested should be presented before a Magistrate (excluding time for journey to the court) within

a. 24 hours

b. 48 hours

c. 72 hours

d. none of the above

 

89. Documents which are meant for cross-examination of a witness of the other party or meant for refreshing the memory of the witness may be produced:

a. at or before the settlement of issues

b. after the settlement of issues

c. at any time when they are required

d. along with pleadings

 

90. Who amongst the following is an expert under the BSA?

a. Hand-writing expert

b. Fingerprint expert

c. Ballistics expert

d. All of the above

 

91. Under Section 36 of the BNS a person can claim right of Private defence against:

a. A child below 7 years of age

b. A person of unsound mind

c. One who is acting under a mistake of fact

d. All of the above

 

92. Catch up” rule established by the Supreme Court of India relates to which of the following Article of the Constitution?

a. Article 14

b. Article 16(4)

c. Article 15 (4)

d. Article 16(4A)

 

93. Z, under the influence of madness attempts to kill A. In this case which of the following is correct?

a. Z is guilty of attempt to murder, but A has right of private defense.

b. Z is guilty of no offence, but A has the right of private defense.

c. Z is guilty of no offence, but A has no right of private defense.

d. None of the above is correct.

 

94. The text of the Preamble of the Constitution of India aims to secure: —

a. fundamental rights to all individuals

b. fundamental duties to citizens of India

c. dignity of the individual and unity and integrity of the nation

d. security of service to the Government servant -

 

95. Which of the following cases is related to 'defense of necessity'?

a. R.V. Dudley and Stephen

b. Bishambar v. Roomal

c. Browning v. State

d. All of the above

 

96. For recording a confession, the Magistrate should

a. get that person arrested

b. summon the complainant

c. inform such person about the accusation against him

d. inform such person that he is not bound to make a confession

 

97. 'A' is at work with a hatchet the head flies off and kills a man who is standing near by Here, there was no want of proper care and caution on the part of 'A', ‘A’ is guilty of which of the following?

a. Murder

b. Causing death by negligence

c. Culpable homicide not amount to murder

d. No offence

 

98. The prohibition against prosecution and punishment for the same offence more than once: —

a. Is a principle of natural justice

b. Is contained in the BNS

c. Is contained in the Constitution of India

d. Is a principle evolved by the Courts

 

99. Procedure when Police Officer deputes his subordinate to arrest without warrant is given under:

a. Section 56

b. Section 55

c. Section 58

d. Section 59

 

100. Which of the following statements is not correct:

a. In a criminal act done by several persons in furtherance of common intention of all, each of them will be held liable for that act.

b. In an act done by several persons, the act being criminal only by reason of its being done with criminal knowledge or intention, all persons joining in the act, irrespective of such knowledge or intention, will be held liable for that act.

c. In an offence done by means of several acts all the persons intentionally cooperating in that act by doing any of those acts, will be held liable for that offence

d. In a criminal act done by several persons, all may be held liable for different offences by means of that act 

 

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