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1. The law on the private defence in India:

a. Is the same as in England

b. Is narrower than the one in England

c. Is wider than the one in England

d. None of the above

 

2. Where a document is executed in several parts, there

a. each part is a primary evidence of the document

b. each part cannot be primary evidence of the document

c. each counterpart is secondary evidence

d. only main part is primary while rest is secondary evidence of the document

 

3. While deciding cases of terrorists, which procedure is to be followed?

a. Procedure established by law

b. Procedure established by the Constitution

c. Both (a) and (b) above

d. None of the above

 

4. In cases where a document proved to be thirty years old is produced from proper custody, which of the following presumptions will the court make?

a. The court makes an irrebuttable presumption that the contents of the document is true.

b. The court shall presume that the person who had custody of the document is the executor of the document

c. The court may presume that the signature and handwriting is the signature and handwriting of the person to be and was duly executed and attested.

d. The Court shall not make any presumption as to its validity or its execution.

 

5. A, agrees, in writing, to sell a horse to B for "Rs. 1,000 or Rs. 1,500. To show which price was to be given, under BSA—

a. Evidence can be given

b. Evidence cannot be given

c. Evidence can be given by the Court's permission

d. Can be proved as secondary evidence

 

6. Cognizable offence means____________.

a. a serious offence

b. offence in which police officer may arrest without warrant

c. session triable offences

d. none of the above

 

7. A dying declaration

1. cannot form the sole basis of conviction unless corroborated.

2. is a weak kind of evidence.

3. stands on same footing as any other piece of evidence.

4. has to be subjected to a very close scrutiny for reliability.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Code:

a. 1 and 4

b. 2 and 3

c. 3 and 4

d. 1 only

 

8. The new concept of equality as an antithesis of arbitrariness was propounded first by the Supreme Court in which one of the following cases?

a. Ramakrishna dalmia V. Justice Tendolkar

b. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India

c. E.P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu

d. State of West Bengal v. Anwar Ali Sarkar

 

9. The State can make any law imposing reasonable restrictions on the right of the citizens to form associations: —

a. in the interest of sovereignty and integrity of India

b. in the interest of friendly relations with foreign states

c. in relation to defamation

d. in relation to incitement of an offence

 

10. Rabindra Kumar Pal® Dora Singh v. Republic of India a famous case coming under Section 24 of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam is also well known as

a. Graham Stains Murder case -

b. Graham Bells Murder case

c. Graham Street's Murder case

d. Graham Stoits Murder case

 

11. In a summons case, instituted on a complaint, the accused having been summoned is liable to be dismissed under Section 279 of BNSS

a. on account of death of the complainant

b. on account of non-appearance of the complainant

c. both (a) & (b)

d. neither (a) nor (b)

 

12. Which of the following statements about Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

a. Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 applies to every person in any part of India for every act or omission contrary to the provisions of the Sanhita

b. Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 applies to any offence committed by any citizen of India within and beyond India

c. Every such act committed outside India which if committed in India, would be punishable under Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023

d. All of the above

 

13. The man who has disappeared and remained unheard of for seven years by those who would have naturally heard of him, if he was alive, the presumption then arises that he is dead. What shall be the presumption as to time of death of such person?

a. The presumption is that the man died on the date seven years after he was last heard

b. The presumption is that the man died at the beginning of the particular period during these seven years

c. Those who allege that the death should be taken to have occurred at a particular time, will have to prove that fact

d. The presumption is that the man died on the date of judicial pronouncement

 

14. Preamble was amended by which amendment?

a. 42nd Amendment

b. 44th Amendment

c. 39th Amendment

d. None of these

 

15. Which one of the following statements refers to epistolary jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?

a. Original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court under Article 131

b. Taking cognizance of public interest litigation matters through letters addressed to the Court

c. Enforcement of decrees and orders

d. Supreme Court under Article 142

 

16. In which of the following cases constitutionality of Section 72 of the BSA was challenged for violation of Article 20(3) of the Constitution?

a. State of Bombay v. Kathikalu

b. Rattan Singh v. Himachal Pradesh

c. Kashmira Singh v. State of M.P.

d. None of the above

 

17. Who is known as the architect of the Constitution of independent India?

a. Jawaharlal Nehru

b. Rajendra Prasad

c. S. Radhakrishnan

d. B.R. Ambedkar

 

18. Necessity rule regarding the admissibility of evidence is contained in:

a. Section 31 of the BSA

b. Section 26 of the BSA

c. Section 62 of BSA

d. Section 63 of the BSA

 

19. Ravi was suffering from delusion. One night he considered his own son as a leopard and attacked him with an axe, thinking by mistake of fact that he was justified in killing the son whom he did not regard to be a human being but a dangerous animal. Ravi is guilty of:

a. No offence as he has defence of mistake of fact in good faith

b. Murder

c. No offence as he has the defence of insanity

d. Culpable homicide

 

20. Stoppage of proceedings in a criminal case has the effect of:

a. acquittal in all circumstances

b. acquittal where the evidence of the principal witness has been recorded

c. discharge in all other cases where the evidence of the principal witness has not been recorded

d. both (b) and (c)

 

21. Section 157 of the BSA deals with which of the following?

a. Compellable witness

b. Interested witness

c. Hostile witness

d. Accomplice

 

22. 'A' in good faith accuses 'Z' before a Magistrate:

a. 'A' has committed no offence

b. ‘A’ has committed the offence of defamation

c. 'A' has committed the offence of defamation but he can take defence under section 31 of BNS

d. None of the above

 

23. When the accused/appellant dies during the pendency of appeal, and his near relative wants to continue the appeal, then within what period he should apply for leave of the court to continue the appeal:

a. Four months

b. Three months

c. Sixty days

d. Thirty days

 

24. Which one of the following is not a secondary evidence?

a. Copies made from the original by, mechanical process

b. Copies made from or compared with the original

c. Compartments of documents

d. Lithography

 

25. Which statement is not true?

a. If a contract be contained in several letters, all the letters must be proved

b. If a bill "of exchange is drawn in a set of three, all the three need to be proved '

c. If a contract is contained a bill of exchange, the bill of exchange must be proved

d. none of the above

 

26. Under which provision an arrested person has right to meet an advocate of his choice during interrogation

a. Section 39 of BNSS

b. Section 40 of BNSS

c. Section 37 of BNSS

d. Section 38 of BNSS

 

27. Which provision requires that evidence must be taken in the presence of the accused?

a. Section 302 of BNS

b. Section 154 of BSA

c. Section 307 of BNSS

d. Section 308 of BNSS

 

28. In a famous case the Supreme Court has provided strict guidelines related to right the arrested persons

a. Sakiri Basu case

b. Hussain Aara Khatton v. State of Bihar

c. D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal

d. None of these

 

29. Fundamental Freedoms given under Article 19 of the Constitution are available only to: —

a. Citizens of India

b. Citizens of India and Foreigners

c. Both (a) and (b) above

d. Foreigners living in India

 

30. What does the expression "transit remand" denote?

a. It is a transfer of prisoner from one Jail to another

b. It is a transfer of criminal case from one Court to another

c. It is taking out an accused by police from one State to another State

d. It is taking out of the accused from Court to Prison.

 

31. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

a. Writ of prohibition:  available against public servant only

b. Writ of quo warranto: available against subordinate courts only

c. Writ of habeas corpus:  available against private individual as Well as state

d. Writ of certiorari: available against autonomous body only

 

32. The State shall endeavor to organize agriculture and animal husbandry on modern and scientific lines as laid down in-

a. Article 38 of the Constitution

b. Article 42 of the Constitution

c. Article 48 of the Constitution

d. Article 52 of the Constitution

 

33. It is the duty of the State to raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living and to improve public health as specified in-

a. Article 41 of the Constitution

b. Article 43 of the constitution

c. Article 47 of the Constitution

d. Article 50 of the Constitution

 

34. In which of the following cases, the Supreme court has observed that there is no right of private defence against the right of private defence?

a. State of Punjab v. Sohan Singh

b. Surjeet Singh v. State of Punjab

c. State of U.P. v. Ram Swaroop

d. M.R. Singh v. State of Gujarat

 

35. The burden of proof means the obligation to prove a fact. This is defined under

a. Section 108 of the BSA

b. Section 104 of the BSA

c. Section 200 of the BSA

d. Section 100 of the BSA

 

36. In which set of Sections of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 even death can be caused in exercise of right to private defence of person and property?

a. Sections 38 and 41

b. Sections 38 and 39

c. Sections 40 and 43

d. Sections 38 and 40

 

37. After being proceeded against ex parte, the defendant is:

a. precluded absolutely for participating in any proceeding in the suit

b. at liberty to join the proceedings at the stage where the proceedings are pending

c. at liberty to join the proceedings and do all the things which it would have done, had he not been proceeded against ex parte, without getting the ex parte order set aside

d. none of the above

 

38. In case there is a conflict between the Preamble and other provisions of the Constitution, which will prevail over the other: —

a. Preamble will prevail

b. Other provision will prevail

c. Both will go side by side

d. Interpretation of the Supreme Court will prevail

 

39. The abetment of an abetment is an ' offence in BNS under

a. Section 45

b. Section 46

c. Section 49

d. Section 50

 

40. As per Order 2 Rule 1 C.P.C., every suit shall as far as practicable be framed so as to:

a. Afford ground for final decision

b. To prevent further litigation

c. Both (a) and (b)

d. None of the above

 

41. Article 20(3) of the Constitution of India guaran-tees the 'right against Self-incrimination' to-

a. A witness

b. An accused

c. Any person

d. None of the above

 

42. The right of private defence is:

a. Not a right of defence but of retribution

b. A right of defence but not a right of retribution

c. A right of defence as well as, a right of retribution

d. Is neither a right of defence nor a right of retribution

 

43. By a Parliamentary legislation, the district courts were empowered to enforce the fundamental rights of citizens in service matters. The legislation is

a. invalid

b. invalid if the decisions of the district courts are subject to appeal before the Supreme Court

c. valid

d. valid even if the powers of other courts are ousted

 

44. Which one of the following statements is correct?

For the purpose of section 41 of BNS (causing death in the exercise of right of private defence for protection of property), there is

a. No distinction between public property and private property

b. Clear distinction between public property and private property

c. No right of private defence

d. No right of private defence at the attempt stage of causing of death

 

45. Representative Suit under Order 1 Rule 8 of CPC may be permitted by the Court when—

a. Numerous persons are parties in another suit

b. Numerous persons belong to the same family

c. Numerous persons have the same interest in one suit

d. None of the above

 

46. In a suit for partition three defendants were set ex parte. Preliminary decree was passed. On the application of one of the three defendants the Court set aside the decree as against all the defendants. The order of the court is

a. legal

b. irregular

c. unjustified

d. illegal

 

47. The 'relationship' in Section 44 of the BSA means:

a. relationship by blood only

b. relationship by blood or marriage

c. relationship by blood or marriage or adoption

d. none of the above

 

48. Order 7, Rule 10 to 10B provides for:

a. Return of Plaint

b. Admission of Plaint

c. Rejection of Plaint

d. Documents relied on in Plaint

 

49. The period of limitation shall be six months for taking cognizance of the offence, if the said offence is

a. Punishable with fine only

b. Punishable with imprisonment for a term not exceeding six months

c. Punishable with imprisonment for a term not exceeding one year

d. Punishable with imprisonment for a term not exceeding one month

 

50. Directions: For Assertion and Reason Type Question: Question consist of two statements one labelled the Assertion 'A' and the other labelled the Reason 'R'. You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion 'A' and the Reason 'R' are individually true it so whether the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

Select your answer to these items using the codes given below and mark your answer sheet accordingly.

Assertion (A): An owner can take his chattels from the other/ even if force is required to be used.

Reason (R): A person has a right of private defence of property.

Codes:

a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

b. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A

c. A is true but R is false

d. A is false but R is true

 

51. 'A' sues 'B' for a libel imputing disgraceful conduct to ‘A’. 'B' affirms that the matter alleged to: be libelous is true. The position and relations of the parties at the time when- the libel was published' may be relevant

a. As constituting: a motive for fact in issue

b. As conduct influenced by fact in issue

c. As introductory to facts in issue

d. As preparation for fact in issue

 

52. Section 134 of BSA states that no one shall be compelled to disclose to the court any confidential communication which has taken place between

a. Teacher and Student

b. Company and its client

c. Legal professional advisor and his client

d. Landlord and tenant

 

53. Which day is observed as 'Law Day'?

a. 9th November

b. 25th November

c. 26thNovember

d. 18thDecember

 

54. Imputed Criminal Liability Principle is laid down in which of the following provision/provisions:

a. Section 3(5) of the BNS

b. Sections 3(5) and 190 of the BNS

c. Section 47 of the BNS

d. Section 60(1) of the BNS

 

55. Under Section 413 of BNSS a victim-

a. can file an appeal against the order of acquittal

b. can file an appeal only after obtaining leave from the appellate court

c. has no right to file an appeal

d. should approach the District Magistrate and Public Prosecutor for filing an appeal

 

56. In sub-section (1) of section 18 of the BNSS, after the words "Public Prosecutor" the words inserted are:-

a. one or more additional public prosecutors

b. two or more additional public prosecutors

c. at least five additional public prosecutors

d. None of the above

 

57. The credit of a witness may be impeached in the following ways by the adverse party, or with the consent of the Court by the party who calls him, EXCEPT:

a. By the evidence of persons who testify that they believe him to be unworthy of credit.

b. By proof that the witness has been bribed.

c. By proof of former statements inconsistent with any part of his evidence.

d. By proof of the witness's religious or political beliefs.

 

58. The Preamble to the Constitution of India: —

a. Contains the Resolution to constitute India into inter alia a Socialist Republic, since the framing of the Constitution

b. The word ‘Socialist’ was incorporated in the Preamble by the 42nd Amendment with effect from 3rd January, 1977

c. Never contained the word ‘Socialist’

d. The word ‘Socialist’ was dropped by the 42nd Amendment.

 

59. An act which would otherwise be ' crime may in some cases be excused if the person accused of it shows that all except

a. It was done only in order to avoid consequences

b. Nothing was done than was reasonably necessary

c. The evil inflicted was not disproportionate to the evil avoided

d. None of the above

 

60. Under which one of the following Articles of the Constitution an accused person has been guaranteed the right to be informed of the nature and cause of accusation?

a. Article 22(1)

b. Article 22(3)

c. Article 212

d. Article 22(4)

 

61. A, a surgeon, sees a child suffer an accident, which is likely to prove fatal unless an operation be immediately performed. There is no time to apply to the child's guardian. A performs the operation in spite of the entreaties of the child, intending, in good faith, the child's benefit.

a. A is liable as he performed the operation without taking due consent

b. A is not liable because 'the act was done in good faith for benefit of a person, even without consent

c. A should not have performed the operation, even if it was in good faith and since the operation was performed, A is liable,

d. None of the above

 

62. Which of the following is not a meaning of the expression 'common intention' under section 3(5) of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

a. A prearranged plan, prior meeting of minds, prior consultation in between all the persons constituting the group

b. A desire to commit a criminal act without any contemplation of the consequence

c. The mens rea necessary to constitute the offence that has been committed

d. Evil intent to necessarily commit the same offence which is committed

 

63. A lets out his premises to B, a police officer, with the knowledge that B will torture there C, an accused in a case. B tortures C in those premises. A is:

a. Not guilty of any offence under BNS

b. Guilty of abetment

c. Guilty of causing hurt

d. Guilty of attempt to commit offence

 

64. Which of the following among item A and item B are correct?

Item A: Common intention within the meaning of Section 3(5) of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, means:

1. Evil intention of many persons to commit the same act

2. Implication of a pre-arranged plan, prior meeting of mind, between all the persons constituting the group

3. A desire of several persons to commit an act without contemplating the consequences

Item B: Within the meaning of Section 190 in prosecution of common object of an unlawful assembly's means:

1. In relation to common intention of the group

2. In order to attain the common object

3. In relation to a common object

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Codes:

a. 1 and 2 of both items

b. 1 and 3 of both items

c. 2 alone of both items

d. 3 along of both items

 

65. When a person in justification of killing another in the exercise of his right to private defence, claims the existence of such a right, such existence of the right must be proved by

a. The State

b. The person who claims the right to private defence

c. The prosecution

d. The police.

 

66. X is charge for murder of Y. About a month before the murder Y had attempted to rape the wife of X, X has an altercation with Y immediately before murder X is:

a. Entitled to the benefit of right of private defence as the deceased had attempt to rape his wife

b. Not entitled to right of private defence as the right of private defence was available to defence his won body alone

c. Not entitled to right of private defence since there was an interval of one month between attempted rape and the murder

d. Entitled to the right of private defence since he was provoked on seeing the deceased.

 

67. The abetment of offence is completed as soon:

a. The offence abetted has been committed

b. The abettor has incited another person to commit an offence

c. The person abetted has done some overt act towards the commission of the offence

d. All the above acts have been place

 

68. The Indian Independence Act, 1947 came into force on-

a. 18 July, 1947

b. 14 August, 1947

c. 3 June, 1947

d. 26 July, 1947

 

69. In which section of BNS the right of private defence of property extending to causing death's is given?

a. Section 40

b. Section 38

c. Section 41

d. Section 43

 

70. In which of the following Article of the Constitution provision regarding Uniform Civil Code has been given?

a. 43

b. 44

c. 46

d. 47

 

71. Which of the following is/are not within the jurisdiction of Right to Information Act?

1. The Supreme Court of India

2. Rajiv Gandhi Foundation

3. President of India

Choose All the correct answer: —

a. All of the above

b. Only (1)

c. Only (2)

d. Only (3)

 

72. 'A' with guilty intention abets 'P' a child of six years to commit theft in 'B's house. The act is not committed. Here 'A' is:

a. Guilty of theft

b. Guilty of no offence

c. Guilty for abetting theft

d. Guilty of attempt to commit theft

 

73. Which among the following is not a fact admitted?

a. Facts which the parties agree to admit at the hearing

b. Facts which the parties agree in writing to admit before the hearing

c. Facts which by any rule of pleading are deemed to have been admitted

d. Facts which are uncontested by the opposite party

 

74. Which one of the following Sections of the BSA says "facts admitted need not be proved"?

a. Section 18

b. Section 21

c. Section 55

d. Section 53

 

75. The sentence of an imprisonment for a term is not set off against the period of detention undergone by the person during trial of the same case when such a sentence:

a. is for the offence of rape

b. is for sedition

c. is in default of payment of fine

d. none of the above

 

76. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. An appeal may lie from an original decree passed ex parte

2. No appeal shall lie from a decree passed by the Court with the consent of parties

3. No appeal shall lie on a question of law

a. Only (1)

b. Only (2)

c. Only (3)

d. Both (1) and (2)

 

77. 'A' is accused of defaming 'B' by publishing an imputation intended to harm the reputation of 'B'. The fact of previous publication by 'A' respecting 'B', showing ill-will on the part of 'A' towards 'B' is relevant—

a. Because it proves the preparation for harming 'A's' reputation

b. As it is necessary to explain fact in issue

c. As proving intention to harm 'B's' reputation

d. As it is the effect of relevant fact

 

78. A and Z agree to fence with each other for amusement. This agreement implies the consent of each to suffer any harm which, in the course of such fencing, may be caused without foul play. A while playing fairly, hurts Z and as a result Z dies. A is liable:

a. For causing hurt to Z

b. For murder to Z by negligence

c. For no offence

d. For culpable homicide not amounting to murder

 

79. Which Fundamental Right is available to all per-sons?

a. Right to form Union

b. Protection of life and personal liberty

c. Right to assemble peaceably

d. Right to move freely throughout the territory of India

 

80. Mark the incorrect statement:

a. The court must be competent to try the suit at the time of filing of the suit Subsequent change in value does not affect the jurisdiction.

b. It is the plaintiff’s valuation in the plaint that determines the jurisdiction of the court and not the amount for which ultimately the decree may be passed by the court.

c. If the pecuniary jurisdiction of the court is Rs. 10,000 and the plaintiff files a suit for accounts and finally the court finds on taking the account that Rs. 15,000 are due, the court is not deprived of its jurisdiction to pass a decree for that amount.

d. If the plaintiff undervalues or overvalues the claim for the purpose of choosing the forum, it is not the duty of the court to return it to be filed in the proper court.

 

81. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

a. Abetment of an abetment is not an offence

b. Abetment of illegal omission may be an offence

c. c. To constitute the offence of abetment    the effect requisite to constitute the offence need not be caused

d. The person abetted need not be capable by law of committing an offence

 

82. Under which section of BSA, the opinion relating to relationship is relevant?

a. Section 45

b. Section 46

c. Section 32(5)

d. Section 44

 

83. A, B and C are charged for robbery and after trial convicted by 1st class Magistrate, thereafter whether for the same fact they can be charged and tried for dacoity:

a. Yes

b. No

c. Barred under section 300 BNSS

d. There will be illegality

 

84. A decision in a suit may operate as res-judicata against persons not expressly named as parties to the suit by virtue of explanation

a. Ill to Section 11 of CPC

b. V to Section 11 of CPC

c. VI to Section 11 of CPC

d. IV to Section 11 of CPC

 

85. The nature of Revision under Code of Civil Procedure is that

a. it operates as a stay of the proceeding

b. it operates as a stay of proceedings and suit both.

c. it operates as a stay of suit.

d. it shall not operate as a stay of the suit or proceedings except where such suit or proceedings is stayed by the High Court.

 

86. If the Directive Principles of State Policy is infringed-

a. There is remedy in the court

b. There is no remedy by Judicial proceedings

c. There is remedy in Lok Adalat

d. There is remedy in the court of Special Executive Magistrate

 

87. In case where an inquiry, trial or other proceedings have been conducted in a wrong place:

a. The inquiry, trial or other proceedings shall be void ab initio

b. The inquiry, trial or other proceedings cannot be set aside as void unless it has occasioned in failure of justice

c. The inquiry, trial or other proceedings, cannot be set aside even if it has occasioned in failure of justice

d. Either (a) or (c)

 

88. Additional Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass a sentence of imprisonment extending upto:

a. 5 years

b. 7 years

c. 3 years

d. 10 years

 

89. Section 96 of the BSA, applies to the:

a. Patent ambiguity

b. Latent ambiguity

c. Both (a) and (b)

d. None of these

 

90. Which provision deals with determination of question relating to discharge, satisfaction etc. of the decree?

a. Section 48 of the Civil Procedure Code

b. Section 46 of the Civil Procedure Code

c. Section 47 of the Civil Procedure Code

d. Section 21 of the Civil Procedure Code

 

91. Point out correct statement:

a. A private person may arrest or cause to be arrested any person who in his presence commits a non-bailable and cognizable offence

b. An Executive or Judicial Magistrate may himself arrest or order any person to arrest the offender when any offence is committed in his presence and within his jurisdiction

c. Any police officer may arrest any person without an order from a Magistrate and without a warrant who has been concerned in any cognizable offence

d. (a), (b) and (c) are correct

 

92. The general rule in relation to fixing the amount of any Bond under provisions as to Bail and bonds of BNSS is that it should not be:

a. oppressive

b. unreasonable

c. excessive

d. meager

 

93. Consider the following statements:

1. Investigation is made by a police officer

2. The object of police investigation is to collect evidence

3. Investigation is a judicial proceeding

4. Investigation is not a judicial proceeding

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a. 1, 2 and 3

b. 1, 2 and 4

c. 2, 3 and 4

d. 1, 3 and 4

 

94. Who can withdraw a case from prosecution under Sec. 360 BNSS?

a. The State Government

b. The Public Prosecutor Incharge of a case with the permission of the Court

c. The Public Prosecutor incharge of a case even without permission of the Court

d. All the above

 

95. A workman throws snow from a roof giving warning. A passer by is killed. The workman is:

a. Guilty of murder

b. Guilty of culpable homicide not amount murder

c. Guilty of causing death by negligence

d. Not guilty since death was accidental

 

96. 'Infancy' as an exception has been provided under Section __________ BNS

a. 18

b. 19

c. 20

d. 21

 

97. In which case, the Supreme Court declared that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution?

a. Golak Nath case

b. Berubari case

c. Kesavananda Bharati case

d. all the above cases

 

98. An inscription on a metal plate or stone is a document:

a. Wrong

b. Right

c. Documents always on paper only

d. There are only archaeological things

 

99. A Court, when it has signed its judgment or final order disposing of a case, may……….

a. correct a clerical or arithmetical error

b. alter findings of law

c. review findings of fact

d. alter or review ratio

 

100. In which of the following case the Supreme Court held that Article 16(4-A) providing for reservation in promotions is a enabling provision?

a. Keshvanand Bharti v. State of Kerala

b. M. Nagraj v. Union of India

c. State of Kerala v. NM. Thomas

d. TM. Pai Foundation v. State of Karnataka

 

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