Previous Year Question Papers · M.P. P.C.S. ‘J.’ Examination, 2001

M.P. P.C.S. ‘J.’ Examination, 2001

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1. Which of the following sports-persons has participated in the Olympics?

(A) Narendra Hirwani

(B) Ashok Patel

(D) Prakash Saini

2. In which district of Madhya Pradesh is one of the regional laboratories of Forest Research Institute, Dehradun Located?

(A) Betul (B) Jabalpur

3. How many districts of M.P. at present are categorised as ‘developed districts’ in terms of the categorisation done in 1990?

(A) 5 (B) 6

4. Which district of M.P. has the least area under the Paddy Crop?

(A) Balaghat (B) Morena

5. Approximately what percentage of the country’s total managanese is' extracted in Madhya Pradesh?

(A) 70% (B) 20%

6. Which poet is regarded as the first poet of the ‘Riti’ period of Hindi poetry?

(A) Padmakar (B) Keshav Das

7. After the coming into existence of Chhattisgarh State, in which district of Madhya Pradesh is the number of electrified villages the least?

(A) Sheopur (B) Dindori

8. In which district of M.P. is the percentage of the gross irrigated area to the gross sown-are the smallest?

(A) Sidhi (B) Shahdol

9. Which district has the lowest literacy in M.P according to the 1991 census?

(A) Sheopur (B) Jhabua

10. When was the ‘Pani Roko Abhiyan’ started in Madhya Pradesh?

(A) 3rd February, 2001

(B) 2nd October, 2000

(D) None of these

11. The next Olympic Games will be—

(A) Twenty Fourth

(B) Twenty Seventh

(D) Twenty Eighth

12. When a ship enters a sea from a river then which of the following statements is true?

(A) It rises a little

(B) It sinks a little

(D) It rises or sinks depending on the material it is made of

13. When does a solar eclipse occur?"

(A) When the Moon is between the Sun and the Earth

(B) When the Earth is between the Sun and the Moon

(D) When the Sun, Moon and the Earth are not in the same line

14. Malaria can be treaed with a durg extracted from which of the following trees?

(A) Belladonna tree (B) Cinchona tree

15. At present Ram is half of his father’s age. Fifteen years ago he was one-third of his father’s age. How old wilt Ra be after 5 years?

(A) 45 years (B) 40 years

16. If the average of fifteen numbers is 41,4, what is the total sum of these fifteen numbers?

(A) 620 (B) 621

17. Two persons start from life same point and walk on a circular path at the same speed, but in. opposite directions. They will be diametrically opposite each other when each has covered -

(A) 1 /8 the distance

(B) 1/4 the distance

(D) 1/16 the distance

18. A certain sum of money given on loan on simple interest, trebles in 25 years. What is the rate of interest?

(A) 10% (B) 8%

19. 25 workers were employed to finish a job in 12 days. Five workers, however, left after working only for 4 days. The rest of the job was completed by remaining 20 workers. In how many days was the total job work completed?

(A) 18 (B) 14

20. In one minute 3/7 of a bucket is filled. How much more time will be required to fill up the rest of the bucket?

(A) 7/3 minutes (B) 4/3 minutes

21. Find the missing link in the following series-

12 ,21,33,13,31,...., 14,41, 55

(A) 39 (B) 35

22. If a clock gains five minutes every hour, the angle traversed by the seconds hand in one minute will be-

(A) 360° (B) 360.5°

23. To which article of the constitution does the decision of the Supreme Court given in September 2001 in respect of the former Chef Minister of Tamil Nadu relate?

(A) Article 102 (B) Article 164

24. What is the position with respect to powers of contempt available to Lokayukta and Uplokayukta of M.P. similar to the powers of the High Court?

(A) The Powers have been given

(B) The matter is under consideration

(D) There are no such proposals

25. What was the cause of deaths reported in September 2001 in village Sapalguda of Orissa and published in the newspapers?

(A) Due to malnutrition .

(B) Due to hunger

(D) Due to poisonous drugs.

26. What opinion has the Chief Minister of Madhya Pradesh expressed regarding teaching of Astrology in colleges?

(A) Should be taught

(B) Should not be taught

(D) No opinion expressed

27. In which of the following districts of M.P. have naxalite activities been reported?

(A) Bhind (B) Morena

28. Who is the Chairman of the' Electricity Regulatory Commission of M-P-?

(A) Justice Gulab Gupta

(B) Justice Sachindra Dwivedi

(D) None of these

29. What is ‘Tehelka’ which was in the news headlines during the year 2001 ?

(A) A newspaper

(B) A secret service orgaisation

(D) None of these

30. For which film has Mira Nair received the ‘Golden Lion’ award in 2001 at the Venice international Film Festival?

(A) Hysterical Blindness

(B) Mississippi Masala

(D) Monsoon Wedding

31 . Which Indian received the ‘Magsaysay Award’ in the year 2001 ?

(A) Anil Agrawal

(B) Rajendra Singh

(D) None of these

32. What is NCA?

(A) National Capital Area

(B) Nature Conservation Agency

(D) National College of Aviation

33. For which name of rice has an American company got the patent of Basmati rice?

(A) Basmati (B) Ricetek

34. What is the name of the recently published book written by the famous French writer Dominique Lapierre?

(A) Bhopal Express

(B) The Bhopal Midnight

(D) It was Five Past Midnight in Bhopal

35. What is the name of India’s surface to air missile which was successfully test fired in Aug.1994?

(A) Naag (B) Prithvi

36. For which purpose out of the following has the ‘Lohani CommitteeMjeep. consitituted in M.P.?

(A) For area division between M.P. and Chhattisgarh

(B) For recommending sources of finance for the Panchayats

(D) None of the above

37. Who was the Chief Minister of M.P. when Phoolan Devi surrendered?

(A) Motilal Vora

(B) Digvijay Singh

(D) Arjun Singh

38. When was the much talked of ‘Economic Reforms’ programme introduced in India?

(A) 1990 (B) 1991

39. Who has raised the demand for ‘Harit Pradesh’?

(A) Rajnath Singh

(B) Ajit Singh

(D) Kalyan Singh

40. What does the 91st constitution amendment bill, recently passed by the Lok Sabha deal with?

(A) Freezing the number of seats of Lok Sabha only

(B) Freezing the number of Lok Sabha and State Assembly seats upto the year 2026

(D) None of the above

41. Raising the height of which dam, is being opposed by the Narmada Bachao Andolan?

(A) Indira Sagar (M.P.)

(B) Omkareshwar (M.P.)

(D) Nona of these

42. Who is known as Britain’s ‘Iron Lady’?

(A) Queen Elizabeth

(B) Margaret Thatcher

(D) Queen Victoria

43. Where is the headquarters of ‘Rajiv Gandhi Rashtriya Yuva Vikas Sansthan’?

(A) New Delhi

(B) Amethi (U.P.)

(D) Bareilly (U.P.)

44. With which game is the ‘Uber Cup’ associated?

(A) Badminton (B) Cricket

45. What is the colour of the ring representing Asian continent in the emblem of the Olympics?

(A) Green (B) Blue

46. Where did India win its first Gold Medal in the Olympics?

(A) Berlin (B) Rome

47. What is the name of the athlete who refused the national level Arjuna Award for life time achievement in sports?

(A) Malkhan Singh (B) Milkha Singh

48. When did Asian games start in India?

(A) 1948 (B) 1951

49. For which game the 1990-9VVikram Award winner Ku. Seema Tare, given the award?

(A) Kho-Kho

(B) Swimming

(D) Table Tennis

50. When was the National Cadet Corps (N.C.C.) constituted?

(A) 1948 (B) 1950

51. How many wickets did Sri Lanka’s bowler Mutthiah Muralidharan fake in the test series of cricket played between India and Sri Lanka in August 2001?

(A) 40 (B) 30

52. What is the targeted average annual growth rate for the Ninth Five-Year Plan?

(A) 7% (B) 6.5%

53. What was the approximate overall industrial growth rate in India during 2000-2001?-

(A) 10% (B) 8%

54. What is the targeted production of food grains for India for the Ninth Five Year Plan?

(A) Approximately 23 crore tons

(B) Approximately 20 crore tons

(D) None of the above

55. With which subject Rajamannar Committee was concerned?

(A) Industrial licensing

(B) Direct Taxes

(D) Monetary system

56. For which of the following areas is a Lead Bank responsible under the ‘Lead Bank Scheme’?

(A) Village (B) Town

57. Income of which of the following taxes is not shared by the Central Government with the States?

(A) Union Excise Duties

(B) Customs Dufy

(D) Estate Duty

58. After the expiry of how when years is the next Finance Commission constituted?

(A) 3 (B) 5

'59. Through which of the following Banks does the Reserve Bank of India help finance India’s foreign trade?

(A) NABARD

(B) Exim Bank

(D) IDBI

60. Where is the Hasedo-Bango Project located?

(A) M.P. (B) Assam

61. When did USA’s President Mr. Bush announce , the lifting of economic sanctions imposed on India by USA?

(A) On 11th September, 2001

(B) On the nighty of Saturday 22nd September, 2001

(D) No such announcement has been made

62. Where does teak grow most abundantly?

(A) The Himalayas

(B) The Western Ghats

(D) Assam and Meghalaya

63. Which of the following is one of the most prominent crops of dry farming in India? '

(A) Paddy

(B) Wheat

(D) Sugarcane

64. Which one of the tributaries of the ‘Ganga System’ flows northwards?

(A) Kosi (B) Ghaghra

65. in which state, according to 2001 census do women outnumber men?

(A) Tamil Nadu (B) Kerala

66. Which countries are separated by the Durand Line?

(A) India and Pakistan

(B) India and Afghanistan

(D) China and USSR

67. How many times has the preamble of the Constitution of India been amended so far?

(A) Not even once (B) Four times

68. Who out of the following remained the Prime Minister of India for the longest period?

(A) Jawaharlal Nehru

(B) Lal Bahadur Shastri

(D) Both (A) and (C)

69. When and by which constitutional amendment were the fundamental duties included in the constitution?

(A) In 1974,': through 34th constitutional amendment

(B) In 1976, through 42nd constitutional amendment

(D) None of the above

70. Which three Indian states were bifurcated to create 3 new states in India?

(A) Orissa, M.P., Bihar

(B) Bihar, M.P., U.P.

(D) U.P., M.P., Wes Bengal

71. in which case did the Supreme Court concede the right of the Parliament to amend the constitution but denied it the right to amend the basic structure of the constitution?

(A) Keshavanand Bharti Case.

(B) Golak Nath Case .

(D) All of these

72. When and where did the Commonwealth Games commence?

(A) 1934, London (B) 1911,London

73. Where were the Winter Olympics held in the year 2002?

(A) Hawaii (B) Salt Lake City

74. Who, in the ladies final of the ‘Toyota Princess CupTournament’ of tennis, played in Tokyo in September 2001, won the title?

(A) Kim Glisters (B) Leone Gracia

75. Who first referred to Mahatma Gandhi as ‘Father of the Nation’?

(A) Jawaharlal Nehru

(B) Vallabhbhai Patel

(D) Subhash Chandra Bose

76. In which country is Angkor What which has a famous Vishnu Temple?

(A) Java

(B) Bali

(D) Surinam

77. Which foreign traveller visited India during the.. reign of Harshavardhana?

(A) Yueh-Chih (B) Fa-Hien

78. What is the subject-matter of the Upanishads?

(A) Religion (B) Yoga

79. During the rule of the Mauryan dynasty which two places were connected by the road which is nowadays known as the Grand Trunk Road?

(A) Khorasan and Varanasi

(B) Taxila and Pataliputra

(D) None of these

80. Who, out of the following persons; established the All India Harijan Sangh?

(A) Mahatma Jyotiba Phule '

(B) Raja Ram Mohan Roy

(D) Mahatma Gandhi

81. Who wrote the book ‘Harshacharit’?

(A) Banabhatta (B) Bhasa

82. Closest to which big city, located at the bank of river Ganga is Sarnath situated?

(A) Gaya (B) Faizabad

83. Which of the following districts of M.P. is the smallest in terms of population?

(A) Datia (B) Umaria

84. The founder of Indian National Congress, Allan Octavian Hume was—

(A) A military officer of the British government

(B) A political worker

(D) A former ICS officer

85. Who represented India in the World Congress of Religions held in Chicago in 1893?

(A) Swami Dayanand

(B) Swami Vivekanand

{D) Swami Ramitrtha

86. What is ‘Gyandoot Schemevstarted in the Dhar district of M.P.?

(A) A Village Education Scheme

(B) A series of discourses of Swami Chinmayanand on Gita

(D) A general knowledge competition .

87. Whose signatures do all other notes except a one-rupee note bear?

(A) The President of India

(B) The Prime Minister of India

(D) The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India .

88. The doctrine of ‘Panchasheel’ was first advocated by—

(A) India arid Myanmar

(B) India and Pakistan

(D) India and Algeria

89. The total number of Tehsils in Madhya Pradesh is—

(A) 354 (B) 459

90. Under which schedule of the Constitution of India are ‘Scheduled Areas’ declared?

(A) Schedule 2

(B) Schedule 9

(D) None of these

91. Under which article of the Constitution of India is ‘Abolition of Untouchability’ provided for?

(A) Article 16 (B) Article 18

92. Which of the following alternatives corresponds to the percentage of the forest area of M.P. to the state’s total geographical area?

(A) 40% (B) 23.76%

93. During which Five-7 scheme ‘Food for Work’ started?

(A) Fourth Five-Year Plan

(B) Fifth Five-Year Plan

(D) Eighth Five-Year Plan

94.. Which of the following books has not been written by R.K. Narayan?

(A) Swami And Friends

(B) The Serpent And the Rope

(D) Waiting For the Mahatma

95. During which decade was the average annual growth rate of population of India less than 1%?

(A) 1921-31 (B) 193141

96. When was the ‘Family Planning Programme’ launched by the Govt, of India?

(A) 1947 (B) 1951

97. When did World Trade Organisation come into existence?

(A) 1990

(B) 1991

(D) None of these years

98. Jaundice occurs due to malfunctioning of which part of the body?

(A) Kidney (B) Liver

99. In the year 2000 the world population has become approximately equal to which of the following numbers?

(A) 4 Billion (B) 5 Billion

100. How many Lok Sabha seats are there in M.P.?

(A) 40 (B) 29

1. A person shall be eligible to be appointed as an Additional Public Prosecutor only if he has been in practice as an advocate for not less than—

(A) Five years (B) Six years

2. The Central Government or the State Government may appoint for the purposes of any case or class of cases, a person who has been in practice as advocate for not less than—

(A) Five (B) Seven

3. The Court of a Magistrate of first class may pass a sentence of imprisonment for a term not exceeding—

(A) Three years (B) Five years

4. The Court of a Magistrate of the second class may pass a sentence of fine not exceeding rupees.

(A) One thousand

(B) Three thousand

(D) Ten thousand

5. If a person in lawful custody escapes, the person from whose custody he escaped may, immediately pursue and arrest him—

(A) Within local limits of the police station concerned

(B) Within local limits of the district

(D) In any place in India

6. In proceeding under Section 107 of Code of Criminal Procedure an Executive Magistrate may require to execute a bond for keeping peace for such period, not exceeding—

(A) One year

(B) Two years

(D) Six months

7. In reference of information relating to the commission of a cognizable offence, which of the following statements is not correct?

(A) It may be given orally to an officer incharge of a police station

(B) It is reduced to writing by or under the direction of the officer incharge of the police station

(D) Copy of information cannot be given, free of cost, to the informant

8. Any person, who has accepted a tender of pardon made under Section 306 or Section 307, has, either by willfully concealing anything essential or by giving false evidence, not complied with the condition on which the tender was made. Who will certify this fact?

(A) District Magistrate

(B) Sessions Judge

(D) Chief Judicial Magistrate

9. When the person who would otherwise be competent to compound an offence under Section 320 of Code of Criminal Procedure is dead then—

(A) Offence cannot be compounded

(B) Offence can be compounded by any of the eye-witnesses person may be with drawn with the consent of the Court by—

(D) Person aggrieved by the offence

11. Magistrate by whom the case is heard may award such compensation, not exceeding—

(A) One hundred

(B) Five hundred

(D) One thousand rupees to be paid to any person groundlessly artested by the person so causing the arrest.

12. There shall be no appeal by a convicted person where a Magistrate of the first class passes only a sentence of fine not exceeding—

(A) One hundred

(B) Two hundred

(D) Two hundred and fifty rupees.

13. No Court shall take cognizance of an offence punishable with fine only, after the expiry bf the period of limitation of—

(A) Two months (B) Three months

14. Three years period of limitation is prescribed for taking cognizance of the offence punish able with imprisonment for a term not exceeding—

(A) One year (B) Three years

15. That there are certain objects arranged in a certain order in a certain place—

(A) Is a fact (B) Is an opinion

16. An inscription on a metal plate or stone—

(A) Is a fact (B) Is a document

17. ‘A’ is accused of waging war against the Government of India by taking part in an armed insurrection in which property is destroyed, troops are attacked and goals are broken open. ‘A’ is not present at all of them yet the occurrence of these facts is relevant because—

(A) They constitute a motive for relevant fact

(B) They show preparation for relevant facts

(D) They form part of the general transaction

18. ‘A’ sues ‘B’ for a libel imputing disgraceful conduct to ‘A’. ‘B’ affirms that the matter alleged to be libelous is true.The position and relations of the parties at the time when the libel was published may be relevant—

(A) As constituting a motive for fact in issue

(B) As conduct influenced by fact in issue

(D) A§ preparation for fact in issue

19. The question is, whether ‘A’ committed a crime at Calcutta on a certain day. The fact that, on that day, ‘A’ was at Lahore is relevant—

(A) As a motive for fact in issue

(B) As introductory to fact in issue

(D) As it makes the existence of fact in issue highl/improbable

20. ‘A’ is accused of defaming ‘B’ by publishing an imputation intended to harm the reputation of ‘B’.The fact of previous publication by ‘A’ respecting ‘B’, showing ill-will on the part of ‘A’ towards ‘B’ is relevant—

(A) Because it proves" the preparation for harming ‘A’s’ reputation

(B) As it is necessary to explain fact in issue

(D) As it is the effect of relevant fact

21. Which of the following statements is correct?

(A) Admissions could be oral only

(B) Admissions could be documentary only

(D) Admissions are conclusive proof of the matters admitted

22. Which of the following statements is not correct?

(A) No fact of which the Court will take notice need be proved

(B) Facts admitted need not be proved

(D) Oral evidence must be direct

23. A document is said to be in the handwriting of ‘A’ That document is produced from proper custody, if the document is purporting or proved to be—

(A) Thirty (B) Fifteen

24. A witness who is unable to speak, gives his evidence by writing in open Court. Evidence so given shall be deemed»to be—

(A) Oral evidence

(B) Documentary evidence

(D) Secondary evidence

25. The examination, after the cross-examination of a witness by the party who has called him, is called—

(A) Main examination

(B) Additional Cross-examination

(D) Recross-examination

26. A person summoned to produce a document when produces the document then—

(A) He becomes a witness

(B) He is cross-examined by both the parties

(D) He does not become witness' and cannot be cross-examined unless and until he- is called as a witness

27. Any question suggesting the answer which the person putting it wishes or expects to receive is called—

(A) Indecent question

(B) Scandalous question

(D) Leading question

28. ‘Accommodation’ means any building or part of building whether residential or non- residential and does not include—

(A) Garden appurtenant to such building

(B) Grounds appurtenant to such building

(D) Any furniture supplied by the landlord for use in such building

29.. Suit against a tenant for his action from any accommodation could be filed on the ground that the tenant has neither paid nor tendered the whole of the arrear of the rent legally recoverable from him within—

(A) Thirty days

(B) Two months

(D) Sixty days

of the date on which a notice of demand for the arrears of rent-has been served on him by the landlord in the prescribed manner.

30. Suit for eviction on the ground under Section 12(1) (d) of M.P. Accommodation Control Act is filed if the accommodation has hot been used without, reasonable cause for which it was let, for a continuous period of—

(A) Three months

(B) Six months

(D) Two months immediately preceding the date of the filing of suit for the recovery of possession thereof.

31. Where an order for the eviction of a tenant is made on the ground that the accommodation is required bonafidely the landlord for occupation as a residence for himself, the landlord shall not be entitled to obtain possession thereof before the expiration of period of—

(A) Two months (B) Three months

from the date 5 of order.

32. if after the tenant has delivered possession on or before the date specified in the order under clause (g) or clause (h) of sub-Section (1) Of Section 12 of the M.P. Accommodation Control Act, landlord fails to commence the work of repairs or building or rebuilding within—

(A) Two months

(B) Three months

(D) Six months of the specified date on an application made to it. Court may order landlord to place the tenant in occupation of the accommodation or part thereof.

33. When an application for eviction of a tenant on the ground of bonafide requirement is filed before the Rent Controlling Authority and summons in prescribed form is served on the tenant, he shall not contest the prayer for eviction from accommodation unless he files application, in prescribed manner, to obtain leave to contest within—

(A) Thirty days (B) One month

from the date of service of the summons and obtains leave from the Rent Controlling Authority as provided.

34. A landlord making false and frivolous application "under Section 23(A) of M. P. Accommodation Control Act, may be saddled with compensatory costs not exceeding—

(A) Six month’s

(B) Nine month’s

(D) One year’s

rent of the accommodation at a time.

35. The stay of the operation of the order of eviction passed by a Rent Controlling Authority or by the High Court shall not be for a total period of more than—

(A) Two months, (B) Four months

(d) Six months (D) Sixty days

36. Every tenant shall pay rent within the time fixed by the contract or in absence of any such contract by the—

(A) Sixteenth day (B) Twenty-first day

37. Essential supply enjoyed by a tenant in respect of the accommodation, let to him is cut-off by the landlord, who will make an order to restore such supply?

(A) Collector

(B) Civil Court

(D) Municipal Corporation or Municipality as the case may be

38. If the essential supply enjoyed by the tenenat is found to be cut-off by the landlord without just and sufficient cause, Rent' Controlling Authority may direct that compensation not exceeding—

(A) One hundred rupees

(B) Three hundred rupees

(D) Fifty rupees

to be paid by the landlord to the tenant.

39. No court shall take cognizance of an offence punishable under the M.P. Accommodation Control Act, unless the complaint in respect of the offence has been made within—

(A) Six months (B) One year

40. Provisions of Transfer of Property Act shall be applicable—

(A) Where property is transferred in execution of decree of the Court

(B) WhereThe property of insolvent vests in Receiver by the order of the Court

(D) To intestate succession

41. ‘Attested’ in relation to an instrument means and shall be deemed always to have mean attested by at least—

(A) One witness

(B) Two witnesses

(D) Four witnesses

42. Which one of the following statements is not correct, in context of ‘transfer of property’ ?

(A) It means an act by which a living person conveys property

(B) He conveys property in present or in future

(D) He cannot transfer property to himself and one of more other living persons

43. To be competent to transfer property it is not essential that—

(A) Person be major

(B) Person be of sound mind

(D) Transferable property is his own

44. How many types of mortgages are there in Section 58 of Transfer of Property Act?

(A) Four (B) Five

45. A mortgagor who has executed two or more mortages in favour of the same mortgagee, in absence of a contract to the contrary—

(A) Is bound to redeem all such mortgages together

(B) Is not entitled to redeem any one such mortgage separately

(D) Be entitled to redeem any one such mortgage separately, or any two or more of such mortgages together

46. A lease of immoveable property from year to year is terminable, on the part of either lessor or lessee, by—

(A) One month (B) Six months

notice expiring with the end of a year of the tenancy.

47. A lease of immoveable property from year to year, can be made by—

(A) Oral agreement

(B) Oral agreement accompanied by delivery of possession

(D) Only by a registered instrument

48. Where a lease of immoveable property is made by a registered instrument, such instrument shall be executed—

(A) By lessor only

(B) By leassee only

(D) By both the lessor and the lessee

49. What is not required in ‘Gift’?

(A) Donor and donee

(B) Consideration

(D) Transfer and acceptance

50. For the purpose of making a gift of immoveable property, the transfer must be affected—

(A) By delivery of possession

(B) By a registered instrument signed by or on behalf of the donor and duly attested

(D) By simple instrument accompanied by delivery of possessfon

51. A gift comprising both existing and future property—

(A) Is void

(B) Is valid

(D) Is void as to the future property

52. A patient in a lunatic asylum, who is at intervals of sound mind—

(A) May not contract

(B) May contract

(D) May contract only after he becomes completely of sound mind

53. Number of ingredients of ‘Promise’ is—

(A) Two (B) Three

54. A proposal when accepted —

(A) Becomes a promise

(B) Becomes an agreement

(D) Becomes a consideration

55. A contract without consideration will be—

(A) Voidable (B) Void

56. ‘A’ promises to paint a picture for ‘B’—

(A) ‘A’ may employ a competent person to ^perform the promise

(B) Representatives of ‘A’ may employ a competent person for the purpose

(D) ‘A’ must perform /this promise ' personally

57. Every agreement in restraint of the marriage of any person other than a minor—

(A) Is voidable

(B) Is illegal

(D) Is valid

58. In the case of ah alternative promise, one branch of which is legal and the other illegal—

(A) Such a promise can be enforced

(B) Any of its branch cannot be enforced

(D) With the permission of the court, both the branches can be enforced

59. A contracts to sing for B at a concert for 1,000 rupees which are paid in advance. A is too il] losing— 1

(A) A is bound only to make compensation to B for the loss of the profits Which B would have made if A had been atilg to sing but not bound to refund 1,000 paid in advance

(B) A is neither bound to refund \,i)00 rupees paid in advance nor is bound to make compensation to B for the loss of profits which B would have made if A had been able to sing '

(C) A is not bound to make compensation to B for the loss of profits which B. would have made if A had been able to sing, but must refund to B the 1,000 rupees paid in advance

(D) A is not bound to make compensation to B for the loss of profits which B would have made if A had been able to sing but must refund to B half of the amount paid in advance

60. A leaves a cow in the custody of B to be taken care of. The cow has a calf. In the absence of any contract to the contrary—

(A) B is bound to deliver only the cow to. A

(B) B is bound to deliver the calf as well as the cow to A

(D) B is bound to deliver the calf as well as

the cow if he is paid one-third of the price of the calf

61. Finder of a lost thing which is commonly the subject of sale, may sell it when the lawful charges of the finder, in respect of the thing found amount to—

(A) One-fourth

(B) Half

(D) Two-thirds of its value.

62. Which of the following statements is correct "irrelation to ‘sub-agent’?

(A) He is employed by the principal in the business of the agency

(B) He is employed by the original agent in the business of the agency

(D) . The agent is not responsible to the principal for the acts of the sub-agent

63. A gives authority to B to sell A’s land and to I pay himself out of the proceeds, the debts due to him from A. In the absence of an express contract—

(A) can revoke this authority

(B) Authority can be terminated by the insanity of A

(D) A cannot revoke this authority, nor can it be terminated by his death or insanity

64. Agriculture’ does not include—

(A)’ Horticulture

(B) The planting and unkeep of orchards

(D) Forest of big bushes

65. ‘To cultivate personally’ does not mean to cultivate on one’s own account—

(A) By the labour of any member of one’s family

(B) By servants on wages payable in crop J share

(D) By hired labour under personal supervision of any member of one’s family

66. (Revenue inspectors, Measurers and Patwaris shall not enter into any building or upon any enclosed court or garden attached to a dwelling house without the consent of— '

(k) Collector

(B) Tehsildar

(D) Occupier thereof

to do acts connected with their duties under M.P. Land Revenue Code.

67. Which Revenue officer cannot make over any case for enquiry and report from his own file to any Revenue Officer subordinate to him?

(A) Sub-divisional Officer

(B) Collector

(D) Tehsildar

68. A party against whom an order has been passed in his absence by a Revenue Officer may apply to have it set-aside within—

(A) Sixty days

(B) Two months

(D) Thirty days from the date of order or knowledge of the order in case summons was not duly served.

69. A Revenue Officer may award costs incurred in any case or proceeding arising under M.P. Land Revenue Code to the extent—

(A) Three hundred rupees

(B) Five hundred rupees

(D) As he thinks fit

70. Which one of the following shall not be taken into account in estimating the cost of cultivation?

(A) Market value of the land

(B) The depreciation of stock and buildings

(D) The money equivalent of the cultivator’s family’s labour and supervision

71. Any person lawfully acquiring any right of interest in land, shall under Section 109 of M.P.L.R.C., report his acquisition of such right to—

(A) Collector

(B) Sub-divisional Officer

(D) Revenue-Inspector

72. All disputes regarding boundaries of villages, survey numbers and plot numbers, where such boundaries have, been fixed under the provisions of Section 124 of M.P.L.R.C. shall be decided—

(A) By Collector

(B) By Sub-divisional Officer

(D) By Tehsildar

73. Where the boundary has been fixed under the provisions of Section 124 of M.P.L.R.C. and if a person holding wrongful possession over .any land has been summarily ejected from such land, he may, within the period of—

(A) Two years

(B) One year

(D) .Four years.

from the date of ejectment, institute a civil suit to establish his title thereto.

74. By whose order the tenancy of an occupancy tenant in his holding can be terminated?

(A) The Collector

(B) The Tehshildar

(D) The Commissioner

75. Allotment of house site under Gramin Avas Yojna to a landless person shall be subject to condition that the allottee shall build a house on such land within a period of—

(A) One year

(B) Three years

(D) Seven years

from the date of allotment.

76. In reference of District Court, which one of the following statements is not correct?

(A) It can transfer any suit, appeal or other proceeding pending before it for trial to any Court subordinate, to it and competent to try or dispose of the same

(B) It can withdraw any suit and appeal or other proceedinig pending in any Court subordinate to it

(C) It can-try or dispose of the suit, appeal or other proceeding withdrawn from any Court subordinate to it or it may transfer the same for trial or disposal to some other Court subordinate to it and competent to try or dispose of the same

(D) Ifi cannot retransfer any suit, appeal or other proceeding to the Court from which it was withdrawn

77. Under Section 34 of Civil Procedure Code, Court can award interest from the date of decree to the date of payment or such earlier date as the Court thinks fit. Rate of such interest shall not exceed per annum.

(A) Nine per cent (B) Ten per cent

78. Any amount which a Court will order to be paid as compensatory costs in respect of false or vexatious claims or defences, shall not exceed the amount of—

(A) Two thousand rupees or the amount with in its pecuniary jurisdiction whichever is less

(B) Three thousand rupees or the amount , within its pecuniary jurisdiction, which ever is less

(D) Five thousand rupees or the amount within its pecuniary jurisdiction which ever is less

79. During the proceeding of execution of a decree, a question arises as to whether any person is or. is not the representative of a party, such question shall be determined by—

(A) The court which passed the decree . ?

(B) The court executing the decree

(D) A separate suit

80., A judgment-debtor is arrested in execution of a decree for the payment of money and the Judgment-debtor pays the amount of the decree and; the costs of the arrest to the officer arresting him, such officer—

(A) Shall send the judgment-debtor to civil prison '

(B) Shall take judgment-debtor to the court

(D) Shall release him after' taking security from him .

81. Under Section 80 of Civil procedure Code—

(A) Ninety days (B) Sixty days

notice in writing is required tio be delivered before institution of a suit against the Government.

82. *A’ lets a house to ‘B’ at a yearly rent of rupees ( five hundred. The rent for the whole of the years 1905,1906 and 1907 is due and unpaid. ‘A’ sues ‘B’ in 1908 only for the rent due for 1906—

(A) ‘A’ can afterwards sue ‘B’ only for the rent due for 1905

(B) ‘A’ can afterwards sue ‘B’ only for the rent due for 1907

(D) ‘A’ cannot afterwards sue ‘B’ for the rent due for 1905 Or 1907

83.. Any court will order a party who resides without the local limits of the court’s ordinary original jurisdiction, to appear in person, if he resides—

(A) Within India

(B) Within the local limits of that state in which the court is situated

(D) Within certain limits from the place where the court is situated

84. A suit may be dismissed where, after a summons has been issued to the defendant and returned unserved, plaintiff fails to apply for fresh summons for the period of—

(A) Thirty days (B) Sixty days

85. Date appointed by any Court for presenting- list of witnesses by the parties to obtain summons to them for their attendance in. Court, shall not be later than— - '

(A) Ten days (B) Fifteen days .

86. In a suit, plaintiff himself wishes to as a witness. Without any permission of Court, he may so appear-

(a) At any time before evidence from plain tiff's side is over

(b) At any time before evidence from defendant's side is over

(d) Only before any other witness on his behalf has been examined

87. After the passing of a decree for payment of money, on the application of the Judgment debtor, Court shall not order that payment of the amount of decree shall be made by installments-

(a) Without recording evidence of both parties

(b) Without obtaining affidavits from both parties

(d) Without the consent of decree-holder

88. 'A' who is a citizen of India commits murder in Uganda. He is arrested in Delhi. He can be tried and convicted of murder-

(a) Only in Uganda

(b) Only in that country of which the deceased was a citizen

(d) In Delhi

89. Which of the following punishments cannot be awarded under the Indian Penal Code?

(a) Forfeiture of property

(b) Imprisonment with hard labour

(d) Death

90. Where no sum is expressed to which a fine may extend the amount of fine to which the offender may be liable will be-

(a) Not exceeding rupees fifty thousand

(b) Not exceeding rupees twenty-five thousand

(d) Unlimited but not excessive

91. Nothing is an offence which is done by a child under

(a) Eight years

(b) Ten years Seven years

(d) Twelve years

92. Minimum number of persons to form an unlawful assembly' is required

(a) Seven

(b) Five

(d) Six

93. Minimum number of persons required to Commit an affray’ is-

(a) Five

(b) Two

(d) Eleven

94. Y gives grave and sudden provocation to 'A. 'A', on this provocation, fires a pistol at Y, neither intending nor knowing himself to be likely to kill Z. who is near-him, but out of sight. 'A' kills 2. A' is guilty of-

(a) Murder

(b) Culpable homicide

(d) No offence as act falls under general exceptions

95. Any hurt is 'grievous' if it causes the sufferer to be in severe bodily pain or unable to follow his ordinary pursuits during the space of-

(a) Fifteen days

(b) Twenty days

(d) Thirty days

96. How many kinds of kidnapping are there in the Indian Penal Code?

(a) One

(b) Two

(d) Four

97. Whoever kidnaps or abducts any child with the intention of taking dishonestly any movable property from the person of such child shall be punished under Section 369 of 1.P.C. if the age of such child is under-

(a) Ten

(b) Twelve

(d) Fifteen

98. What is minimum number of persons required to commit 'dacolty"?

(a) Five

(b) Six

(d) Ten

99. 'A' has sexual intercourse with an adult married woman whom he knows to be wife of another man, without the consent or connivance of that man but with the consent of that woman 'A' is guilty of-

(a) Rape

(b) Adultery

(d) No offence

100. State Government may, notification declare any area to be a by metropolitan area for the purposes of the Code of Criminal Procedure whose population exceeds

(a) Ten lakhs

(b) Five lakhs

(d) Three lakhs