Mock Tests · Jharkhand APO Mock Test (Law) English Medium
Jharkahnd APO Mock Test Law Paper - 2
20 min read
JHARKHAND MOCK TEST-2
LAW
1. “Untouchability is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden” is the essence of which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution?
a. Article 14
b. Article 15
c. Article 16
d. Article 17
2. The judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by-
a. The President
b. The Prime Minister
c. The Chief Justice of India
d. None of them.
3. Which part of the Constitution deals with Supreme Court?
a. Part III
b. Part IV
c. Part V (Articles124-147)
d. None of these.
4. The Constitution of India was adopted in
a. 1949
b. 1950
c. 1960
d. None of these.
5. Which Article deals with Right to Equality i.e equality before law?
a. Article 14
b. Article 13
c. Article 15
d. Article 16
6. By which Amendment Act Right to Property was deleted?
a. 44th
b. 45th
c. 46th
d. None of these
7. In Indian Constitution the fundamental duties are found in
a. Part III
b. Part II
c. Part IV-A
d. Part IV
8. Which Article of the Indian Constitution empowers the High Courts to issue writs
a. Article 32
b. Article 33
c. Article 226
d. None of these.
9. Election to fill a vacancy in the office of President occurring by reason of his death, resignation or removal, or otherwise, shall be held as soon as possible after, and in no case later than:
a. One month from the date of occurrence of the vacancy
b. Two months from the date of occurrence of the vacancy
c. Three months from the date of occurrence of the vacancy
d. Six months from the date of occurrence of the vacancy.
10. In which of the following cases constitutionality of Section 27 of Indian Evidence Act was challenged for violation of Article 20(3) of the Constitution?
a. State of Bombay v. Kathi Kalu
b. Mirza Akbar v. King Emperor
c. State of U.P. v. Deoman Upadhaya
d. Queen Emperor v. Abdullah
11. In the case of Golaknath v. State of Punjab, it was remarked that our "Preamble contains in a nutshell its ideals and inspirations. "Who was the Judge?
a. Justice Mathew
b. Justice Krishna Iyer
c. Justice Subba Rao
d. Justice H.R. Khanna
12. Which of the following cases is related with ‘ban on smoking in public places’?
a. People's Union for Civil Liberty v. Union of India
b. Kishore Singh v. State of Rajasthan
c. Triveni Ben v. State of Gujarat
d. Murli Deora v. Union of India
13. By which of the following Amendments of the Constitution, Service Tax has been added?
a. 83rd Amendment
b. 84th Amendment
c. 87th Amendment
d. 88th Amendment
14. A Proclamation under Article 356 is required to be approved by resolutions of both Houses of Parliament by
a. Simple majority within one month
b. Special majority within one month
c. Special majority within two months
d. Simple majority within two months
15. Which one of the following is NOT a privilege under Article 105?
a. Freedom from arrest on a criminal charge
b. Right to exclude strangers from its proceedings
c. Right to regulate internal proceedings
d. Right to punish for contempt
16. Who among the following declares National Emergency in India?
a. President
b. Prime Minister
c. Central Council of Ministers
d. Supreme Court of India
17. To become a member of the Rajya Sabha a person should be at least _____ years old.
a. 18
b. 30
c. 36
d. 24
18. Which Article of the Constitution of India states that the executive power of the state shall be vested in the governor?
a. Article 154
b. Article 155
c. Article 156
d. Article 157
19. Which article of the constitution states the tenure of the members of the defence services, the civil services of the Centre and the all-India services?
a. Article 310
b. Article 311
c. Article 312
d. Article 313
20. The Fundamental Duties of citizens were added to the Constitution of India by which amendment?
a. 40th Amendment Act, 1976
b. 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
c. 44th Amendment Act, 1978
d. 52nd Amendment Act, 1985
21. How many Fundamental Duties are mentioned in the Constitution of India at present?
a. 10
b. 11
c. 12
d. 9
22. Which of the following is NOT a qualification for being elected as President?
a. Must be a citizen of India
b. Must have completed 35 years of age
c. Must be qualified for election as a member of the Lok Sabha
d. Must be a member of either House of Parliament
23. Under which Article does the President have the power to promulgate ordinances?
a. Article 56
b. Article 123
c. Article 148
d. Article 356
24. Which Article of the Constitution deals with the election of the President?
a. Article 54
b. Article 60
c. Article 61
d. Article 74
25. Which article empowers the Parliament to form a new state by the separation of territory from any state?
a. Article 1
b. Article 2
c. Article 3
d. Article 4
26. "A" under the influence of unsoundness attempt to kill "B". "B" in attempting to defend himself caused grievous hurt to "A". Here: -
a. "A" is liable for attempt to murder and "B" is liable for causing hurt
b. "A" commits no offence and "B" is liable for grievous hurt
c. "B" commits no offence and "A" is liable for attempt to murder
d. Both "A" and "B" are excused from liability
27. Which of the following is not a "sine qua non" for making a person criminally liable: -
a. Actus reus
b. Mens rea
c. Motive
d. All the above
28. When a woman was taking bath in her bathroom, "X" captures the image in his mobile and upload it on her facebook page. What offence has been committed by "X”: -
a. Sexual assault
b. Insulting the modesty of a woman
c. Voyeurism
d. Stalking
29. The right of private defence does not extend to cause death of the offender, in which of the following offences: -
a. Rape
b. Kidnapping
c. Gratifying un-natural lust
d. Causing miscarriage
30. Which of the following sections have been inserted in the Indian Penal Code, 1860 by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013, namely: -
a. Section 376 A
b. Section 376 B
c. Section 166 A, 166 B, 354 C
d. All of the above
31. The term "Harbour" defined under Indian Penal Code 1860, does not include-
a. Supplying a person with shelter
b. Supplying a person means of conveyance
c. Assisting a person to evade apprehension
d. Prior to the commission of the offence, facilitating the commission thereof
32. The offence of destruction of electronic record to prevent it's production as an evidence is punishable under Indian Panel Code 1860 under-
a. Section 204
b. Section 201
c. Section 200
d. Section 202
33. Voluntarily throwing or attempting to throw acid is an offence punishable under Indian Penal Code 1860, under: -
a. Section 326A
b. Section 326B
c. Section 228A
d. Section 228
34. A demand or request for sexual favour from a woman is punishable offence under Indian Penal Code 1860, under: -
a. Section 354A
b. Section 354C
c. Section 354B
d. Section 354D
35. Transgender has been recognised as third gender with all rights and a right to reservation by the Supreme Court in the case of: -
a. NAZ Foundation Vs. Govt. of NCT (Delhi)
b. Baljit Singh Vs. State of Haryana
c. NALSA Vs. Union of India
d. Vajresh Venkatray Anvekar Vs. State of Kamataka
36. "X" who stole jewellery from a jeweller's shop caused fear of instant hurt to "Z" who tried to stop him while carrying away the stolen watch. Here "X" can be held liable for the offence of: -
a. Extortion
b. Robbery
c. Theft
d. Dacoity
37. "Necessity" as a defence cannot be claimed when the act has been done: -
a. With good faith
b. Without criminal intent
c. With inherent risk of causing harm
d. For avoiding other greater harm
38. The "appropriate government" may commute the sentence of death of an accused person to any other sentence: -
a. With the consent of the accused
b. With the consent of relatives of accused
c. With the consent of advocate of the accused
d. Without the consent of the accused
39. The plea of "sudden and grave provocation" under Section 300 Exception (1) of the Indian Penal Code 1860 is a: -
a. Question of law
b. Question of fact
c. Mixed question of law and fact
d. Presumption under law
40. The maxim" ignorantia juris non excusat" means: -
a. Ignorance of law is no excuse
b. Ignorance of fact is no excuse
c. Ignorance of law is an excuse
d. Ignorance of fact is an excuse
41. Section 379 of the Indian Penal Code deals with: -
a. Defines offence of theft
b. Provides punishment of theft
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of these
42. Offence of robbery includes: -
a. Theft only
b. Extortion only
c. Either (a) or (b)
d. None of these
43. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I List - II
A. Delivery of Property 1. Criminal breach of trust
B. Taking of Property 2. Criminal misappropriation of property
C. Entrustment of Property 3. Theft
D. Convertibility of property got
innocently to one's own use 4. Extortion
choose the correct Codes:
a. ABCD
4312
b. ABCD
3412
c. ABCD
4231
d. ABCD
3124
44. Match List-I with List-ll and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists-
List-I List-II
A. Section 463 IPC 1. Criminal trespass
B. Section 445 IPC 2. Forgery
C. Section 441 IPC 3. Criminal intimidation
D. Section 503 IPC 4. House breaking
Choose the correct Code-
a. (A)-2, (B)-4, (C)-1, (D)-3
b. (A)-2, (B)-4, (C)-3, (D)-1
c. (A)-2, (B)-1, (C)-3, (D)-4
d. (A)-1, (B)-2, (C)-4, (D)-3
45. Match list-I with list-ll and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists-
List-I List-II
A. Causing death by negligence 1. Section 309 IPC
B. Dowry death 2. Section 306 IPC
C. Abetment to suicide 3. Section 304A IPC
D. Attempt to commit suicide 4. Section 304 IPC
choose the correct Code-
a. (A)-3, (B)-4, (C)-2, (D)-1
b. (A)-1, (B)-2, (C)-4, (D)-3
c. (A)-2, (B)-4, (C)-1, (D)-3
d. (A)-4, (B)-2, (C)-3, (D)-1
46. Assertion (A): A is a child of nine years. He intentionally killed B. A may be proved guilty.
Reason (R): Child below the age of twelve year exempted from criminal liability.
Select the correct answer-
a. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
c. (A) is true but (R) is false
d. (A) is false but (R) is true
47. Which of the following is an offence of continuing under Indian Penal Code, 1860?
a. Rape
b. Theft
c. Abetment
d. Abduction
48. In which case the Supreme Court of India has said that the time has come when Section 309 of the I.P.C. should be deleted by Parliament?
a. Aruna Ramchandra Shanbaug V. Union of India
b. Gian Kaur Vs. State of Punjab
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above
49. The offense of "cheating by personation" is defined under which section of the IPC?
a. Section 415
b. Section 416
c. Section 417
d. Section 419
50. To constitute an offence of criminal conspiracy, what is a necessary condition to be proved?
a. There must be a prior meeting of two or more persons.
b. An agreement between two or more persons to do an illegal act by illegal means.
c. A person does an illegal act with the help of two or more persons.
d. Two or more persons commit a crime on sudden provocation with a guilty mind.
51. Res Gestae is allowed as an exception to:
a. Confession
b. Dying declaration
c. Hearsay evidence
d. Documentary evidence
52. Even a student may be treated as an expert under Section 45 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, it was held by the Apex Court in-
a. Bhoginbhai Hirbhai V. State of Gujarat
b. Kanpur University V. Samir Gupta and other.
c. Ram Prakash V. State of Punjab
d. Nathu Singh V. State of U.P
53. "A confession even consists of conversation to oneself, for it is not necessary for the relevancy of a confession that it should be communicated to some other person", was held in the case of
a. Shankaria V. State of Rajasthan
b. Boota Singh V. State of Punjab
c. Sahoo V. State of U.P.
d. Nishikant Jha V. State of Bihar
54. Which of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with conclusive proof?
a. Sections 41, 112 and 113
b. Section 112
c. Section 113
d. Section 112 and 113
55. Law of Evidence is-
a. Lex Tellienis
b. Lex Fori
c. Lex Loci
d. Lex Situs
56. Which of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 does not deal with the criminal matters: -
a. Section 23
b. Section 27
c. Section 53
d. Section 133
57. The term "Judicial notice" under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, means: -
a. Notice given by the court
b. Information given to the court
c. To ask for evidence
d. To recognise without proof something as existing
58. Court can presume about the legality of digital signature on electronic record under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 when it is: -
a. 30 years old
b. 15 years old
c. 5 years old
d. 12 years old
59. "Presumption of fact" under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872: -
a. Is based on logic, human experience and natural events and law of nature
b. Is based on provisions of law
c. Cannot be ignored by the court
d. Is of certain and uniform position
60. The contents of electronic records may be proved under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 in accordance with the provisions of-
a. Section 65C
b. Section 65B
c. Section 66B
d. Section 66C
61. Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 a declaration made in course of business is admissible under: -
a. Section 32(7)
b. Section 32(2)
c. Section 32(4)
d. Section 32(1)
62. Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 questions relating to a matter not relevant to the suit or proceedings may be asked under: -
a. Section 145
b. Section 146
c. Section 147
d. Section 148
63. Which kind of jurisdiction is not mentioned under section 41 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872:-
a. Probate
b. Admirality
c. Insolvency
d. Revenue
64. Kaushal Rao Vs. State of Bombay A.I.R-1958 S.C. 22 is related with which topic of the law of evidence:-
a. Confession
b. Admission
c. Dying declaration
d. Estoppel
65. Indian Evidence Act, 1872 does not expressly mention about: -
a. Oral Evidence
b. Documentary Evidence
c. Secondary Evidence
d. Circumstantial Evidence
66. The question is whether "A" was ravished? The fact that without making a complaint, she said that she has been ravished is: -
a. Relevant as conduct
b. Admissible as conduct
c. Not relevant as conduct
d. A subject matter of enquiry
67. Where a document is executed in several parts, there: -
a. Each part is a primary evidence of the document
b. Each part cannot be primary evidence of the document
c. Each counterpart is secondary evidence
d. Only main part is primary while rest is secondary evidence of the document
68. "Nothing in section 23 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 shall be taken to exempt any barrister, pleader, attorney or vakil from giving evidence of any matter of which he may be compelled to give evidence" is provided by the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, under: -
a. Section 127
b. Section 128
c. Section 129
d. Section 126
69. As per preamble of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, the purpose of this Act is: -
a. To provide, define and amend the law of evidence
b. To provide, consolidate the law of evidence
c. To define and amend the law of evidence
d. To consolidate, define and amend the law of evidence
70. Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872, the maxim "SALUS POPULI SUPREMALEX" is related to-
a. Section 122
b. Section 121
c. Section 123
d. Section 124
71. Which one of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act makes relevant the opinion of the certifying authority which issued the electronic signature?
a. Section 45-A
b. Section 47-A
c. Section 53-A
d. Section 73-A
72. Confession of one accused person is relevant against another co-accused person under which following sections of the Indian Evidence Act?
a. Section 26
b. Section 30
c. Section 28
d. Section 29
73. Which of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act deals with secondary evidence?
a. Section 60
b. Section 63
c. Section 62
d. Section 61
74. Dying declaration to be admissible in evidence which one of the following is not necessary?
a. That it should relate to the cause of death of the person making such statement.
b. That the person making of the statement was under the expectation of death.
c. That it relates to the circumstances of the transaction which resulted in his death.
d. All of these
75. In criminal proceedings against any person, the husband or wife of such person, shall be: -
a. Competent witness
b. Incompetent witness
c. Competent witness only if they are major and with the consent of other
d. Competent witness only if they are sane and with the consent of other
76. Which one of the following Sections of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 deals with the language and contents of judgement?
a. Section 353
b. Section 354
c. Section 355
d. Section 356
77. Under which one of the following Sections of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 Magistrate Second Class can conduct summary trial?
a. Section 260
b. Section 261
c. Section 262
d. Section 263
78. Under Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 Section 190(2) who may empower Magistrate of the Second Class to take cognizance of offences?
a. High Court
b. Court of Session
c. Chief Judicial Magistrate
d. None of the above
79. Warrant case as defined under Section 2(x) of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 is a case relating to an offence punishable with death, imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a term exceeding
a. 3 years
b. 2 years
c. 1 year
d. 5 years but not less than two years
80. Which one of the following Sections of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 prohibits the male police officer from touching the person of a woman while making her arrest?
a. Proviso to Section 41(1)
b. Proviso to Section 42(2)
c. Proviso to Section 46(1)
d. None of the above
81. Under which one of the following Sections of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 trial of cases can be taken before High Court?
a. Section 407
b. Section 474
c. Section 483
d. No trial before High Court
82. Under Criminal Procedure Code, 1973, the date of commencement of the period of limitation has been provided under
a. Section 467
b. Section 468
c. Section 469
d. Section 470
83. Statements under section 161 of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973 are recorded by the police:-
a. During trial
b. Before investigation
c. During investigation
d. During inquiry
84. Under section 190 of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, cognizance of offence is taken by the:-
a. Judicial Magistrate
b. Session Judge
c. High Court
d. District Magistrate
85. During trial, statements of an accused person are recorded by the court under Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, under: -
a. Section 311
b. Section 312
c. Section 313
d. Section 314
86. Under Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, charges may be added or altered under: -
a. Section 211
b. Section 212
c. Section 215
d. Section 216
87. Under Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 in a warrant case instituted on police-report, the trial begins when: -
a. Charges are framed
b. Accused appears
c. Witnesses are examined
d. None of the above
88. In which of the following trials under Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, hearing of the accused on sentence is not necessary: -
a. In Session Trial
b. In trial of summon case
c. In trial of warrant case
d. In all of the above
89. "A" commits robbery on "B" and in doing so voluntarily causes hurt to him. Whether "A" may be separately charged under section 323, 392, and 394 of the Indian Penal Code 1860?
a. Yes
b. No
c. With the permission of Session Court
d. Depends upon the discretion of the court
90. Any dispute relating to the possession of immovable property under Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, is decided by the-
a. Judicial Magistrate
b. High Court Judge
c. Session judge
d. Executive Magistrate
91. An accused person may be a competent witness in his own defence under the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, in: -
a. Section 312
b. Section 313
c. Section 314
d. Section 315
92. Section 91 of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, does not apply to: -
a. The complainant
b. The witness
c. The accused
d. A person who is neither a complainant or accused or a witness
93. A person can be summoned as a witness under section 160 of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, by: -
a. Any police officer
b. The station police officer
c. The police officer investigating the case
d. None of the above
94. Under which section of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, a District Magistrate or Sub-Divisional Magistrate may prevent environmental pollution?
a. Under section 151
b. Under section 133
c. Under section 145
d. Under section 107
95. Treatment of the victim has been incorporated Code of Criminal Procedure 1973 by Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013, under: -
a. Section 198B
b. Section 357B
c. Section 357C
d. None of the above
96. In a First-Information-Report, an offence is cognizable and other is non-cognizable, the whole case shall be deemed to be: -
a. Cognizable
b. Non-Cognizable
c. It is to be seen whether it is a warrant case
d. It is to be seen whether it is a summon case
97. Which of the following statements is true: -
a. State Government shall establish a Court of Session with the consultation of High Court
b. State Government shall establish a Court of Session
c. The High Court shall establish a Court of Session
d. The Supreme Court shall establish a Court of Session
98. The provisions of Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, other than those relating to Chapter VIII, X and XI, thereof shall not apply in which of the following: -
a. State of Tripura
b. State of Assam
c. State of Meghalya
d. State of Nagaland
99. Under Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, a charge shall be written in the: -
a. Language which accused understands
b. Language which witnesses understands
c. Language of the Court
d. Hindi language
100. What is the maximum default sentence that can be awarded in case of non-payment of compensation under section 358 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973: -
a. 60 days
b. 30 days
c. 90 days
d. 120 days