JHARKHAND APP MOCK TEST-1
LAW
1. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution provides ‘Protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech, etc.’ to Indian citizens?
a. Article 18(2)
b. Article 18(1)
c. Article 19
d. Article 20
2. The Proclamation of Emergency under Article 352 must be approved by both the houses of Parliament within from the date of issue.
a. One month
b. Two months
c. Three months
d. Six months
3. Who presides over the Lok Sabha?
a. Speaker
b. President of India
c. Prime Minister of India
d. None of these
4. Article 368 of the Constitution provides
a. procedure for amendment
b. power and procedure for amendment
c. power for amendment
d. None of the above
5. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court held that 'Right to Sleep' is a fundamental right?
a. Naaz Foundation Case
b. In Re Ramlila Maidan Case
c. Anna Hazare Case
d. None of these
6. According to which Article, the Supreme Court can issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights?
a. Article 32
b. Article 34
c. Article 39
d. None of these.
7. Directive Principles of State policy are found in
a. Part I
b. Part II
c. Part III
d. Part IV
8. Which is not now a Fundamental Right?
a. Right to equality
b. Right to freedom
c. Right to property
d. None of them.
9. The Governor of a state is appointed by-
a. The President
b. The Prime Minister
c. The Chief Justice of India
d. None of them.
10. The money bill can be introduced only in the-
a. Lok Sabha
b. Rajya sabha
c. High Court
d. None of these.
11. Which article of the Indian Constitution provides for a high court for each state?
a. Article 213
b. Article 214
c. Article 215
d. Article 216.
12. The organization of village panchayat is found in
a. Article 38
b. Article 40
c. Article 41
d. Article 42.
13. Which of the following Article guarantee the right to religious freedom?
a. Article 20-22
b. Article 23-24
c. Article 25-28
d. None of these.
14. Who is the Guardian of the Constitution?
a. President
b. Parliament
c. Supreme Court
d. None of them.
15. The scope of expression "procedure established by law" occurring in Article 21 was expanded in the case—
a. A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
b. Charanjit Lai Chowdhury v. Union of India
c. K.A. Abbas v. Union of India
d. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
16. In the impeachment of the President, the charge can be preferred by:
a. A resolution with fourteen. Days' notice moved by one-fourth of the members of the house present and voting
b. A resolution moved in the rajya sabha after at least fourteen days' notice passed by one-third members
c. A resolution moved in either house of parliament after at least fourteen days' notice in writing signed by not less than one fourth of the total membership of the house which is passed by a majority of total membership of the house
d. A resolution passed in each house of the parliament by a majority of total membership of that house and by a majority of not less than two thirds of the members of that house present and voting
17. Article 262 of the Constitution of India relates to:
a. Adjudication of disputes relating to waters of inter-State rivers or river valleys
b. Provisions with respect to an inter-State Council
c. Consolidated Funds and Public Accounts of India and of the States
d. Contingency Fund
18. Sixth Schedule of the Constitution applies to which of the following States?
a. Assam, Tripura, Meghalaya, Mizoram
b. Assam, Manipur, Nagaland, Tripura
c. Assam, Tripura, Mizoram, Nagaland
d. Assam, Meghalaya, Manipur, Nagaland
19. All-India Services is created by
a. The Rajya Sabha
b. The Lok Sabha
c. Both the Houses of the Parliament
d. The Union Public Service Commission
20. Which one of the following statements is correct?
An appeal shall lie to the Supreme Court from any judgment, decree or final order in a civil proceeding of a High Court in the territory of India if the high Court certifies under Article 134A that the case involves
a. A question of law
b. A question of law or fact
c. A substantial question of law or fact of public importance
d. A substantial question of law of general importance
21. Part VI, chapter VI of the Indian Constitution dealing with subordinate courts are:-
a. Articles 232-239
b. Articles 233-237
c. Articles 233-238
d. Articles 231-237
22. In which one of the following cases did the Supreme Court uphold the law which had prohibited a person from contesting panchayat elections if he/she had more than two living children?
a. Javed v. State of Haryana
b. Jat Singh v. State of Rajasthan
c. Quareshi v. State of Bihar
d. Air India v. Nargesh Mirza
23. Which Article of constitution deals with Reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the House of the People?
a. Article 331
b. Article 330
c. Article 335
d. Article 339
24. Which Article of constitution deals with the official language of the Union shall be Hindi in Devanagari script?
a. Article 342(1)
b. Article 344(1)
c. Article 341(1)
d. Article 343(1)
25. How long can a person continue to be a Minister without being a member of either house of Parliament?
a. Three months
b. Six months
c. One year
d. There is no time limit prescribed
26. A abets B to murder D. B in pursuance to the instigation stabs D. D recovers from the wound. In this case
a. A is liable for abetment of murder of D
b. A is liable for abetment of attempt to murder D
c. A is liable for abetment of causing wound to D
d. A is liable for no offence
27. Under which one of the following Sections of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 promoting enmity between different groups on grounds of religion, race, place of birth, residence, language, etc. and doing acts prejudicial to maintenance of harmony has been dealt with?
a. Section 153A
b. Section 153
c. Section 153AA
d. Section 153B
28. A, a revenue officer tortures Z in order to compel him to pay certain arrears of revenue due from Z. A is guilty of an offence under section?
a. 331 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860
b. 335 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860
c. 330 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860
d. 338 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860
29. Revealing the identity or name of victim of rape is punishable under which of the following sections of the Indian Penal Code 1860:-
a. Section 354D
b. Section 376E
c. Section 229
d. Section 228A
30. Which of the following factors separate robbery from dacoity:-
a. Time
b. Property
c. Number
d. Place
31. Voyeurism is defined under which Section of the Indian Penal Code?
a. Section 354-A
b. Section 354-B
c. Section 354-C
d. Section 354-D
32. ‘A' who was entrusted by 'B' with certain blocks for printing a catalogue, prints catalogue of rival's firm with the same block. 'A' is guilty of:
a. Criminal breach of trust
b. Criminal misappropriation
c. Cheating
d. Theft
33. ‘A' with intent to murder, administered a fatal dose of poison to 'Z', and then while 'Z' was still alive, a stranger 'B', without A's knowledge attacked 'Z' and shot him dead.
a. 'A' and 'B' both would be guilty of murder
b. 'A' would be guilty of culpable homicide and 'B' would be guilty of murder
c. 'A' would be guilty of an attempt to murder and 'B' would be guilty of murder.
d. 'A' would be guilty of instigating 'B' to commit murder and 'B' would be guilty of murder.
34. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court has remarked that 'husband is not the master of his wife'?
a. Joseph Shine V. Union of India
b. Sarla Mudgal, President, Kalyani V. Union of India.
c. Lily Thomas V. Union of India
d. Kailash Singh V. Priti Pratihar
35. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
a. Navtej Singh Johar V. Union of India - Section 498A, I.P.C.
b. K. N. Mehra V. State of Rajasthan - Section 378, I.P.C.
c. Niharendu Datt Majumdar V. Emperor - Section 124 - A, I.P.C.
d. State of Haryana V. Raja Ram. Section 361, I.P.C.
36. Which one of the following sections of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 is an extension of the principle of 'respondeat superior' to criminal law?
a. Section 154
b. Section 153
c. Section 152
d. Section 151
37. Which one of the following sections of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 defines the word 'Act'?
a. Section 32
b. Section 33
c. Section 34
d. Section 31
38. A' Incites a dog to spring upon 'Z' without Z’s consent with the Intention to annoy "Z", Here 'A' has committed an offence of
a. Criminal force
b. Criminal assault
c. Grievous hurt
d. Defamation
39. In which one of the following sections of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 Lurking House Trespass has been defined?
a. Section 442
b. Section 441
c. Section 443
d. Section 440
40. In which one of the following sections of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 punishment for wrongful confinement has been provided?
a. Section 341
b. Section 340
c. Section 344
d. Section 342
41. Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 came into force from
a. 25th December, 1983
b. 26th December, 1986
c. 25th December, 1987
d. 25th December, 1988
42. Under Indian Penal Code, 1860 the defence of 'Consent' is not available in cases of
a. Consent to cause death
b. Consent to cause grievous hurt
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of the above
43. A hangman who hung the prisoner pursuant to the order of the court is exempted from criminal liability by virtue of
a. Section 77 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860
b. Section 78 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860
c. Section 79 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860
d. Section 72 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860
44. The principle of doll incapex under Indian Penal Code, 1860 is an exception to criminal liability in which one of the following sections?
a. Section 81
b. Section 82
c. Section 89
d. Section 85
45. Section 34 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860: -
a. Creates a substantive offence
b. Is a rule of evidence
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of the above
46. Under Indian Penal Code, 1860 the offence of affray has been defined in
a. Section 1460
b. Section 154
c. Section 159
d. Section 157
47. 'A' is a national champion of swimming in pond. He could have saved the child, but did not do so. The child drowned. Is 'A' guilty of-
a. Murder
b. Abetment of Suicide
c. Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
d. No offence
48. Which of the following case is related to the defence of necessity?
a. D.P.P. vs. Beard
b. R. vs. Dudley and Stephen
c. R. vs. Lipman
d. Case of McNaughten
49. The expression 'disaffection' used in Section 124-A of the Indian Penal Code includes
a. Disloyalty only
b. Disloyalty and all feeling of enemity
c. All feeling of enemity only
d. Hatred or contempt
50. 'A' commits theft on the property in the possession of 'B' and while committing theft 'A' has a loaded pistol under his garments, kept for the purpose of hurting 'B' in case if 'B' resist. The offence committed by 'A' is defined under which Section of the Indian Penal Code, 1860?
a. Section 382
b. Section 383
c. Section 380
d. Section 384
51. Which one of the following Sections of the Indian Evidence Act provides questions lawful in cross-examination to be asked?
a. Section 146
b. Section 148
c. Section 147
d. Section 142
52. Which of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act applies to the pleaders relating to professional communications?
a. Section 128 and 125
b. Section 129 and 130
c. Section 126 and 127
d. Section 131 and 132
53. The provisions relating to the 'Burden of proof' have been provided under:
a. Section 91-100 of Indian Evidence Act
b. Section 84-90 of Indian Evidence Act
c. Section 101-114 A of Indian Evidence Act
d. Section 115-118 of Indian Evidence Act
54. Section 6 of the Indian Evidence Act deals with
a. Relevancy of fact forming part of same transaction.
b. Admission.
c. Opinion of expert.
d. Conclusive proof.
55. Section 133 of the Indian Evidence Act is related to
a. Number of witnesses
b. Accomplice
c. Oral evidence
d. Relevancy of facts
56. In which Section of the Indian Evidence Act, "Presumption as to dowry death" is provided?
a. Section 111-A
b. Section 112
c. Section 113-A
d. Section 113-B
57. ‘A' is tried for the murder of 'B' by intentionally shooting him dead. The fact that A was in the habit of shooting at people with intent to murder them is
a. Relevant fact
b. Irrelevant fact
c. Neither relevant nor irrelevant
d. Fact in issue
58. A fact, which is neither proved nor disproved is said to be
a. Proved
b. Disproved
c. not proved
d. None of the above
59. Which of the following case is not related to the confession?
a. Pulukuri Kotayya V. King Emperor
b. State of U.P. V. Devman Upadhyay
c. State of Bombay V. Kathi Kaloo
d. T.J. Ponnam V. M.C. Verghese
60. Choose the correct option under the Indian Evidence Act-
a. Judicial notice - Section 87
b. Private document - Section 75
c. Admission - Section 48
d. Accomplice - Section 132
61. The case, 'Queen Empress V. Abdullah' is related with
a. Burden of proof
b. Privileged communication
c. Confession
d. Dying declaration
62. "Hostile witness" is dealt in Indian Evidence Act under:
a. Section 154
b. Section 153
c. Section 152
d. Section 151
63. Which one of the following cases is directly related to Section 32(1) of the Indian Evidence Act?
a. Pulukuri Kotayya V. Emperor
b. State of Maharashtra V. Damu Gopinath Shinde
c. Palvinder Kaur V. State of Punjab
d. Pakala Narayan Swami V. Emperor
64. Under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act, admissibility of evidence shall be decided by the Judge?
a. Section 135
b. Section 134
c. Section 132
d. Section 136
65. Which Section of the Indian Evidence Act, removes the bar of doctrine that husband and wife are one person in law?
a. Section 122
b. Section 120
c. Section 121
d. Section 123
66. Section 112 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 provides for-
a. Presumption of life
b. Presumption of marriage
c. Presumption of legitimacy
d. Presumption of death
67. Which one of the following under the Indian Evidence Act, is not a kind of estoppel?
a. Estoppel by will
b. Estoppel by deed
c. Estoppel by conduct
d. Estoppel by record
68. Under the Indian Evidence Act, power of the Judge to put questions and order of production of document or thing in the court has been provided in
a. Section 162
b. Section 163
c. Section 164
d. Section 165
69. Under Indian Evidence Act, leading questions may generally be asked in
a. Cross-examination
b. Examination in-chief
c. Re-examination
d. All of these
70. Which one of the following Section under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 has been inserted by Section 92 and Schedule II of the Information Technology Act, 2000?
a. Section 65
b. Section 154(2)
c. Section 67-A
d. Section 67
71. Under Section 85-C of the Indian Evidence Act, the presumption as to electronic signature certificates correctness, the court:
a. May presume
b. Shall presume
c. Shall not presume
d. May not presume
72. Which one of the following will be called as 'Primary evidence'?
a. Photograph of original
b. Certified copies
c. Oral account of a document
d. Hand written letter
73. Important case related to 'Identification Parade' is
a. Ramnathan V. State of Tamil Nadu
b. Ram Lochan V. State of West Bengal
c. Queen Empress V. Abdullah
d. All of these
74. The case "Doodhnath Pandey V. State of U.P." is related to-
a. Res-Gestae
b. Plea of alibi
c. Admission
d. Accomplice
75. Which one of the following is not a competent witness to testify under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
a. Persons capable of understanding the questions put to them by the court
b. Unchaste woman
c. Witness unable to speak
d. Idiot
76. Which section of the Criminal Procedure Code provides that all offences under the Indian Penal Code, shall be investigated, inquired into according to the provisions of Criminal Procedure Code?
a. Section 3
b. Section 4
c. Section 5
d. Section 6
77. Which section of the Criminal Procedure Code provides that the High Court could be criminal court?
a. Section 6
b. Section 8
c. Section 7
d. Section 9
78. Who has the authority to establish courts of session in a district?
a. Governor
b. High Court
c. State Government
d. All of these
79. Which of the following sentences a High Court can pass?
a. Death sentence
b. Imprisonment for life
c. Rigorous imprisonment
d. Any sentence authorised by law
80. How much maximum punishment of imprisonment could be given by Chief Metropolitan Magistrate?
a. Upto 10 years
b. Upto 7 years
c. Upto 5 years
d. Upto 3 years
81. The famous case of "D.K. Basu Vs. State of West Bengal" contains the guidelines in what respect?
a. Arrest of persons
b. Right to fair and speedy trial
c. Grant of anticipatory bail
d. All of these
82. Before which of the following courts matters relating to the maintenance under Section 125 of the Criminal Procedure Code would be filed?
a. Court of Session
b. Judicial Magistrate First Class
c. Judicial Magistrate Second Class
d. Family Courts
83. At what stage of a criminal case confession statement of a person under Section 164 of the Criminal Procedure Code could be recorded?
a. During Investigation
b. During Inquiry
c. During Trial
d. At any stage of the case
84. Under Section 154 of the Criminal Procedure Code, who can give information relating to the commission of a cognizable offence?
a. The victim himself only
b. The dependant of victim only
c. Relative of victim only
d. Any person
85. Where the relevant procedure in the Criminal Procedure Code has been provided in case when investigation can’t be completed within 24 hours?
a. Section 57
b. Section 157
c. Section 167
d. All of these
86. Under which section of the Criminal Procedure Code, the jurisdiction of criminal court has been given for offences committed outside India?
a. Section 177
b. Section 179
c. Section 183
d. Section 188
87. What are the modes for taking cognizance of offences by the Magistrates in Criminal Procedure Code?
a. Upon receiving a complaint only
b. Upon police report only
c. Upon information other than police report only
d. All of these
88. Which Section of the Criminal Procedure Code restricts the courts of session from taking cognizance of any offence as a court of original jurisdiction unless the case has been committed to it by a magistrate?
a. Section 193
b. Section 194
c. Section 195
d. Section 196
89. Which of the following cases relates to the principles with regard to anticipatory bail?
a. Raghunath Das Vs. State of Orissa
b. Gurubaksh Singh Sibbia Vs. State of Punjab
c. Ramesh Kumar Ravi Vs. State of Bihar
d. Waman Nade Vs. State of Maharashtra
90. Under which provision of the Criminal Procedure Code, the legal aid to the accused has been permitted at the expenses of the state?
a. Section 301
b. Section 303
c. Section 304
d. Section 305
91. Under the Criminal Procedure Code, who among the followings is empowered to decide as to what would be the language of the Court?
a. State Government
b. Governor
c. High Court
d. District Criminal Court
92. Which provision of the Criminal Procedure Code, provides that an accused person shall be a competent witness for the defence and may give evidence on oath?
a. Section 310
b. Section 315
c. Section 311
d. Section 319
93. Who can frame the 'charge' according to the Criminal Procedure Code?
a. Court
b. Public Prosecutor
c. Office-in-charge of the concerned police station
d. All of these
94. In summary trial, which trial procedure the court should follow-
a. Procedure for session trial
b. Procedure for warrant trial
c. Procedure for summons trial
d. No specific procedure is prescribed.
95. Which of the following Sections of the Criminal Procedure Code, relates to release of offenders on probation of good conduct?
a. Section 260
b. Section 350
c. Section 356
d. Section 360
96. Under which one of the following Sections of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, an assault or criminal force used in attempting to commit theft of property is punishable?
a. Section 379
b. Section 381
c. Section 384
d. Section 356
97. Which one of the following Section of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 is related to juveniles jurisdiction?
a. Section 25
b. Section 26
c. Section 27
d. Section 28
98. Under which one of the following provisions of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973, gives statutory definitions of F.I.R.?
a. Section 154
b. Section155
c. Section 156
d. Not defined
99. Provisions relating to health and safety of arrested persons have been provided under which one of the following Sections of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973?
a. Section 50A
b. Section 53A
c. Section 55A
d. Section 60A
100. After enactment of the Muslim Woman (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986, the jurisdiction under Section 125 of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 to grant maintenance to Muslim women
a. Retained
b. Ceased
c. Limited
d. None of the above
