Jharkhand APP Exam., 2012

Jharkhand APP Exam., 2012

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1. Who is the ex officio Chairman of the Planning Commission of India?

(a) President of India

(b) Finance Minister of India

(c)Prime Minister of India

(d) Vice President of India

2. ICDS was launched on

(a) 2nd October, 1981

(b) 2nd October, 1975

(c) 14th November, 1982

(d) 14th November, 1991

3. Which of the following ports of India was developed soon after Independence?

(a) Haldia

(b) Paradwip

(c) New Mangalore

(d) Kandla

4. Jharkhand Area Autonomous Council was set up in the year

(a)1976

(b) 1996

(c) 1997

(d) 1995

5. Wilkinson's rule is applicable in which areas of Jharkhand?

(a) Poraiyahat

(b) Kolhan

(c) Damin-i-Koh

(d) None of the above

6. Which of the following is the heaviest planet in the solar system?

(a) Earth

(b) Jupiter

(c) Mars

(d) Saturn

7. A black hole is

(a) a region of space-time with very high gravity

(b) a region of space-time with vacuum

(c) a spot in the sun

(d) a dying star

8. Which constitutional amendment in India made Right to Education as Fundamental Right?

(a) 87th

(b) 85th

(c) 86th

(d) 92nd

9. What is Jadopatiya?

(a) Bhil dance

(b) Santhal painting

(c) Toda's music instrument

(d) Oraon song

10. Which of the following countries. shares the longest land frontier with India?

(a) China

(b) Pakistan

(c) Bangladesh

(d) Myanmar

11. Which one of the following States has the largest population?

(a) West Bengal

(b) Bihar

(c) Uttar Pradesh

(d) Andhra Pradesh

12. The first Indian who won a medal in Badminton Tournament in the Olympic Games is

(a) Gopichand

(b) Prakash Padukone

(c) Saina Nehwal

(d) Jwala Gutta

13. The founder of the weekly newspaper Al-Hilal was

(a) Abul Kalam Azad

(b) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan

(c) Mohammad Ali Jinnah

(d) Rafi Ahmad Kidwai

14. The first European sailor to land on the western coast of India belonged to

(a) England

(b) France

(c) Spain

(d) Portugal

15. According to the Meemamsa System of Philosophy, liberation is possible by means of

(a) Karma

(b) Bhakti

(c) Yoga

(d) Jnana

16. Who was the first Indian to become a member of the British Parliament?

(a) Dadabhai Naoroji

(b) M. Malabari

(c) D. E. Wacha

(d) W. C. Bonnerjee

17. The development of architecture in India was at the peak during the reign of

(a) Guptas

(b) Cholas

(c) Pandyas

(d) Nandas

18. The committee which recom-mended Panchayati Raj System in India was the

(a) Ashok Mehta Committee

(b) Balwant Rai Committee

(c) Atulya Ghosh Committee

(d) Bhism Narayan Committee

19. Todas mainly live in the

(a) Jharkhand

(b) Andaman Islands and Nicobar

(c) Lakshadweep

(d) Nilgiris

20. SEBI was established in

(α) 1994

(b) 1993

(c) 1991

(d) 1992

21. Who was the originator of Ahmadiya Movement?

(a) Sir Sayyid Ahmad

(b) Mirza Ghulam Ahmad

(c) Dadu Miyan

(d) Maulana Hussain Ahmad

22. Which among the following minerals is found in native form?

(a) Gold

(b) Sodium

(c) Calcium

(d) Potassium

23. The author of Religion of Man is

(a) Mahatma Gandhi

(b) Rabindranath Tagore

(c) S. Radhakrishnan

(d) Sri Aurobindo

24. The highest gallantry award in India is

(a) Bharat Ratna

(b) Param Veer Chakra

(c) Ashok Chakra

(d) Shaurya Chakra

25. Martello Tower, the symbol of struggle of Santhals against British, is located in

(a) Dumka

(b) Godda

(c) Pakur

(d) None of the above

26. Which physical force is used to separate cream from milk?

(a) Gravitational force

(b) Frictional force

(c) Centripetal force

(d) Centrifugal force

27. Which is the oldest football tournament in India?

(a) Durand Cup

(b) IFA Shield

(c) Santosh Trophy

(d) Federation Cup

28. The study of fossils is known as

(a) geoecology

(b) petrology

(c) paleontology

(d) ornithology

29. The best source of vitamin A is

(a) carrot

(b) honey

(c) apple

(d) peanut

30. From which Indian State was the National Rural Livelihood Mission launched recently?

(a) Orissa

(b) Maharashtra

(c) Haryana

(d) Rajasthan

31. The number of agroclimatic zones in India is

(a) 35

(b) 25

(c) 15

(d) 10

32. The National Food Security Mission (NFSM) of India does not cover

(a) rice

(b) coarse cereals

(c) pulses

(d) All of the above

33. Which of the following categories of workers were included under Rastriya Swasthya Bima Yojana in India?

(a) Railway porters

(b) Beedi workers

(c) Carpenters

(d) Masons

34. Which of the following indexes was coined by economist Arthur Okun?

(a) Corruption Perception Index

(b) Network Readiness Index

(c) Terrorism Risk Index

(d) Misery Index

35. Which automobile company has manufacturing facilities at Manesar and Gurgaon?

(a) Hyundai India

(b) Maruti Suzuki

(c) Tata Motors

(d) Hindustan Motors

36. Who was awarded Dada Saheb Phalke Award of 2012?

(a) Manna Dey

(b) Dilip Kumar

(c) Yash Chopra

(d) Soumitra Chatterjee

37. Who among the following played a vital role in the integration of Princely States in the Indian Union?

(a) J. L. Nehru and Mahatma Gandhi

(b) J. L. Nehru and Sardar Patel

(c) Sardar Patel and V. P. Menon

(d) Sardar Patel and G. B. Pant

38. The Vice President of India is elected by

(a) the electoral college that elects the President

(b) the members of the State Legislative Assemblies

(c) the members of the two Houses of the Parliament

(d) the members of the Rajya Sabha

39. To whom does the President of India address his resignation?

(a) The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court

(b) The Vice President

(c) The Prime Minister 

(d) The Speaker

40. Marykom is related with which of the following sports?

(a) Cricket

(b) Boxing

(c) Wrestling

(d) Weightlifting

41. Evaporation rate does not depend upon

(a) velocity of the air

(b) relative humidity of the air

(c) mass of the air

(d) temperature of the air

42. According to the Juvenile Justice Act, 2000, a person is considered 'child' or juvenile' if he or she has not completed the age of

(a) 18 years

(b) 16 years

(c) 14 years

(d) None of the above

43. What is the unit of force?

(a) Gram

(b) Kilogram

(c) Newton

(d) Litre

44. Which of the following is not a way of preserving food?

(a) Washing

(b) Freezing

(c) Drying

(d) Salting

45. The study of living things in relation to each other and to their habitat is called

(a) geology

(b) sociology

(c) ecology

(d) biology

46. Sound travels faster in

(a) air

(b) water

(c) vacuum

(d) steel

47. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(a) Nana Saheb-defeated at Kanpur

(b) Tantya Tope carried on guerrilla warfare

(c) Bahadur Shah-made a prisoner

(d) Bakht Khan-fled to Nepal

48. India's Second Five-Year Plan was based on

(a) Gandhian model

(b) Harrod model

(c) Mahalanobis model

(d) Lakadawala model

49. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(a) Lepchas-Sikkim

(b) Bhils-Rajasthan

(c) Todas-Tamil Nadu

(d) Moplahs-Assam

50. Which of the following States of India has the largest area under forest?

(a) Madhya Pradesh

(b) Uttar Pradesh

(c) Himachal Pradesh

(d) Assam

51. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?

(a) Bakreshwar-Telecommuni-cation Complex

(b) Balasore Missile Testing Range

(c) Haldia-Petrochemical Complex

(d) Kayather-Wind Power Plant

52. Light year is a unit of

(a) time

(b) power

(c) distance

(d) intensity of light

53. Who among the following is the authority to decide whether a Bill presented to the Parliament is a Monetary Bill or not?

(a) Prime Minister

(b) President

(c) Finance Minister 

(d) Speaker

54. Who won the Women's Singles Title in Wimbledon, 2012?

(a) Venus Williams

(b) Serena Williams

(c) Maria Sharapova

(d) Sania Mirza

55. Which two rivers of Jharkhand flowing separately in the State meet near Rourkela and form a single river called Brahmani?

(a) Subarnarekha and Kharkai

(b) South Koel and Sankh

(c) Deo and Sankh

(d) South Koel and Deo

56. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

(a) Brahmo Samaj-Dayanand Saraswati

(b) Arya Samaj-Vivekananda

(c) Ramakrishna Mission-Raja Ram Mohan Roy

(d) Veda Samaj-C. Sridharulu Naidu

57. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(a) Lahore Declaration-1929

(b) Tashkent Declaration-1962

(c) Creation of Bangladesh-1971

(d) Shimla Agreement-1972

58. Which of the following revolutions is related to the thirteen English colonies?

(a) Russian Revolution

(b) Industrial Revolution

(c) French Revolution

(d) American Revolution

59. The headquarters of the Indian Small-scale Industries Development Bank, established in 1990, is in

(a) Mumbai

(b) Lucknow

(c) Delhi

(d) Kolkata

60. Ganga Narain led which of the following revolts in Jharkhand?

(a) Tamar

(b) Kherwar

(c) Bhumij

(d) Paharia

61. Lapsa Buru in Jharkhand has one of the richest deposits of

(a) copper

(b) manganese

(c) kyanite

(d) iron ore

62. In Jharkhand, Tana Bhagat Rebellion occurred in

(a) 1902

(b) 1914

(c) 1871

(d) 1917

63. The Crocodile Breeding Centre at Muta near Ranchi was established by the State Forest Department in

(a) 1982

(b) 1985

(c) 1992

(d) 1998

64. The author of The God of Small Things is

(a) Kamala Das

(b) Taslima Nasreen

(c) Kiran Desai

(d) Arundhati Roy

65. Who led the Indian sports contingent Olympics, 2012? at London

(a) Abhinav Bindra

(b) Sushil Kumar

(c) Saina Nehwal

(d) Deepika Kumari

66. A large reserve of methane gas exists in Jharkhand near

(a) Roro river at Chaibasa

(b) Subarnarekha Jamshedpur river at

(c) Damodar river near Bokaro

(d) Kharkai river near Seraikela

67. Which ancient Indian scholar was first to introduce negative numbers?

(a) Brahmagupta

(b) Bhaskar II

(c) Aryabhatta

(d) Barahamihira

68. Kitab-ul-Hind was written by

(a) Al-Masudi

(b) Al-Biruni

(c) Al-Idrisi

(d) Ibn Batuta

69. What will be the time at Green-wich, when the local time of Allahabad (82°30′ E) is 10:30 am.?

(a) 6:30 a.m.

(b) 5:00 a.m.

(c) 8:30 a.m.

(d) 7:30 p.m.

70. Bhitar Kanika Sanctuary in Orissa is noted for the

(a) olive ridley turtles

(b) Royal Bengal tigers

(c) elephants

(d) crocodiles

71. Gary Kirsten is the coach of South Africa Cricket team. Who is the bowling coach?

(a) Allan Donald

(b) Fanie de Villiers

(c) Lance Klusener

(d) Shaun Pollock

72. Who used the term Pakistan' for the first time?

(a) Choudhari Rahmat Ali

(b) Md. Iqbal

(c) M. A. Jinnah

(d) Sayyid Ahmad

73. Which of the following launched its global 'GROW campaign' for a hunger-free world in India recently?

(a) OXFAM

(b) Food and Agriculture Organisation

(c) Coalition Against Hunger

(d) World Food Program

74. According to a notification issued by the Government of India, which professionals now can legally practise anywhere in the world?

(a) Architects

(b) Doctors

(c) Lawyers

(d) Engineers

75. Where is the North-East Biodiversity Gallery located?

(a) Gangtok

(b) Guwahati

(c) Shillong

(d) Bhubaneshwar

76. Which of the following blocks is not included in the Fifth Schedule in Jharkhand?

(a) Poraiyahat

(b) Boarijore

(c) Silli

(d) Garu

77. Who was the first woman President of Indian National Congress?

(a) Sarojini Naidu

(b) Rajkumari Amrit Kaur

(c) Annie Besant

(d) Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit

78. When did the Government of India declare its New National Forest Policy?

(a) 1982

(b) 1988

(c) 1992

(d) 1996

79. Which Indian scientist received the Fundamental Physics Prize, 2012?

(a) Anil Kakodkar

(b) C. N. R. Rao

(c) Ashoke Sen

(d) J. V. Narlikar

80. Who first of all addressed Mahatma Gandhi as the Father of the Nation?

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru

(b) Subhas Chandra Bose

(c) Rabindra Nath Tagore

(d) Ballavbhai Patel

84. The Indian States through which Konkan Railway passes are

(a) Maharashtra-Goa-Karnataka

(b) Maharashtra-Karnataka-Kerala

(c) Maharashtra-Goa-Kerala

(d) Maharashtra-Goa-Karnataka-Kerala

81. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(a) China

Yuan

(b) Germany

Mark

(c) Denmark

Pound

(d) Mexico

Peso

85. According to Rigveda, on the bank of which river the 'Battle of the Ten Kings' was fought?

(a) Ganga

(b) Parusni

(c) Mahanadi

(d) Kaveri

82. Bharat Kala Bhavan is located in

(a) Ahmedabad

(b) Kolkata

(c) Delhi

(d) Varanasi

83. Which continent is called 'the continent of thirsty lands?

(a) Africa

(b) Australia

(c) Antarctica

(d) Asia

86. The planet of the solar system which does not have a satellite is

(a) Mars

(b) Mercury

(c) Neptune

(d) Uranus

87. For what Nalanda University was famous?

(a) Medical Science

(b) Philosophy

(c) Buddhist Philosophy

(d) Chemistry

90. Who is the author of the book, The Mundas and their Country?

(a) Sarat Chandra Roy

(b) Rakhal Das Haldar

(c) Ramdayal Munda

(d) Kumar Suresh Singh

88. Who was the Captain of the Indian Olympic Hockey Team which won the first Gold Medal for India in 1928

(a) Jaipal Singh

(b) Dhyan Chand

(c) Lal Shah

(d) Kishan Lal

91. Which primitive tribal group has the highest population in Jharkhand (Census, 2001)?

(a) Sauria Paharia

(b) Birhor

(c) Asur

(d) Mal Paharia

89. Which of the following languages in Jharkhand has Dravidian. origin?

(a) Mundari

(b) Khortha

(c) Kurukh

(d) None of the above

92. Leela Samson is a

(a) film star

(b) Bharathanatyam dancer

(c) Kathak dancer 

(d) singer

93. Premlata Agarwal is associated with what?

(a) Lawn tennis

(b) Women's hockey

(c) Mountaineering

(d) Table tennis

94. In which of the following movements did Mahatma Gandhi make the first use of hunger strike as a weapon?

(a) Non-Cooperation Movement, 1920-22

(b) Rowlatt Satyagraha, 1919

(c) Ahmedabad Mill Strike, 1918

(d) Bardoli Satyagraha

95. The Chota Nagpur Tenancy Act was passed in

(a) 1918

(b) 1908

(c) 1929

(d) 1939

96. Which district in Jharkhand reported the highest rural female literacy during Census, 2011?

(a) East Singhbhum

(b) Dhanbad

(c) Gumla

(d) Simdega

97. The First Census in India during British period was held in

(a) 1881

(b) 1891

(c) 1872

(d) 1871

98. Samuel Hahnemann discovered

(a) angular momentum of the heavenly bodies

(b) vaccine for kala-azar

(c) anaemometer

(d) homoeopathy

99. Olympic Games in London have been held in

(a) 1908, 1944 and 2012

(b) 1908, 1948 and 2012

(c) 1912, 1944 and 2012

(d) None of the above

100. Recognition to political parties is accorded by the

(a) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs

(b) Supreme Court

(c) Speaker 

(d) Election Commission

LAW

1. A witness unable to speak gives evidence by sign-gesture Such evidence is

(A) Secondary Evidence

(B) Special Evidence

(C) Circumstantial Evidence

(D) Oral Evidence

2. The Supreme Court has recognized the presumption of innocence as a

(A) Fundamental Right

(B) Statutory Right

(C) Human Right

(D) Customary Right

3. Which of the following in not a secondary evidence 7

(A) Certified copies

(B) Copies made from original

(C) Where number of document are made by one uniform process

(D) Copies compared with original

4 Which one of the following is not a leading case on dying declaration

(A) Kushal Ras Vs. State

(B) Moti Singh Va. State

(C) Deep Chand Va. State

(D) R.Vs. Jenkis

5. A is tried for murder of B by poison. The fact that before the death of RB, A procured poison similar to that which was administered to Bi

(A) Relevant

(B) Not relevant

(C) Partly relevant

(D) Neither relevant nor irrelevant

6. Facts which are necessary to explain or introduce relevant facts of place, name, date, relationship and identity of parties are relevant under

(A) Section 8

(B) Section 9

(C) Section 10

(D) Section 11

7. A confession made by a conspirator involving other members is relevant against the co-conspirator jointly tried with him and is admissible under

(A) Section

(B) Section 10

(C) Section 30

(D) Section 50

8. Oral evidence of a fact invalidating the document is admissible under Indian Evidence Act, 1872

(A) Proviso 1 to Section 92

(B) Proviso 2 to Section 92

(C) Proviso 4 to Section 92

(D) Proviso 6 to Section 92

9. The Code of Criminal Procedure 1973 came into force on

(A) 1 January, 1973

(B) 1 April, 1974

(C)1 October, 1974

(D) December, 1974

10. Which among the following chapters of the CrPC, 1973 does not apply to the state of Nagaland and the tribal areas

(A) Chapter VIII

(B) Chapter IN

(C) Chapter X

(D) Chapter XI

11. Section (d) of CrPC, 1973 defines

(A) Charge

(B) Cognizable offence

(C) Complaint

(D) Inquiry

12. Under which Section of CrPC, 1973 that court my under the accused to pay compensation?

(A) Section 354

(B) Section 355

(C) Section 3568

(D) Section 357

13. Who can issue search warrant to search persons wrongfully confined?

(A) D.M.

(B) SDM.

(C) Magistrate

(D) All of these

14. Warrant case" means a cave relating to an offence punishable with death, imprisonment of life of imprisonment for a term

(A) Exceeding 2 years

(B) Exceeding 3 years

(C) Exceeding 4 years

(D) Exceeding 5 years

15. A proclaimed person whose property has been attached can claim the property or proceed of sale on appearance within

(A) 6 months

(B) 2 years

(C) 3 years

(D) 1 year

16. Provision regarding inquest has been mentioned under CPC, 1973 

(A) Section 171

(B) Section 172

(C) Section 173

(D) Section 174

17. Linder which section of CrPC, 1973 the District Magistrate has been empowered to issue order in urgent case of nuisance or apprehended danger?

(A) Section 142

(B) Section 143

(C) Section 144

(D) Section 145

18. Provision regarding Pleahargaining has been mentioned under of CrPC, 1975.

(A) Chapter XX

(B) Chapter XXI

(C) Chapter XXI A

(D) Chapter XXII

19. Person once convicted or acquitted not to he tried for same offence. The provision is mentioned under CrPC, 1973

(A) Section 300

(B) Section 301

(C) Section 303

(D) Section 304

20. Second Clam Magistrate authorised by the High Court can try summarily any office which is punishable with imprisonment for a term

(A) Nut exceeding 3 months

(B) Not exceeding 6 months

(C) Not exceeding 1 year

(D) Not exceeding 7 yours

21. In which of following section cognizable offences has been defined?

(A) Section 2(a) CrPC

(B) Section 2(b) CrPC

(C) Section 2(c) CrPC

(D) Section 2(1) CrPC

22. Public Posecutors are appoined by the

(A) Central Goverment after consultation with High Court

(B) State Government after cosultation with High Court

(C) Both (A) & (B)

(D) None of these

23. Inherent power of High Court has been dealt und CPC, 1973. of the

(A) Section 481

(B) Section 483

(C)Section 483

(D) Section 460

24. Which among the following is tut correct about FIR ?

(A) It is an information given to the police officer

(B) It must relate to cognizable offence.

(C) It is an information first in point of time 

(D) It can be lodged both in cognizable & non-cognizable offences

25. Any dispute relating to the possession of immovable property is decided by

(A) Judicial Magistrate

(B) Executive Magistrate

(C) Either by Judicial Magistrate or by Executive Magistrate

(D) Neither by Judicial nor Executive Magistrate

26. An Assist Session Judge may pa any sentence except

(A) A sentence of death, life imprisonment or imprisonment or a term exceeding 7 years

(B) A sentence of death life imprisonment or imprisonment for a term exceeding 10 years

(C) A sentence of death, life imprisonment or imprisonment for a term exceeding 12 years

(D) None of these

27. A confession under Section 164 of CIPC 1973 can be recorded by

(A) Metropolitan/Judicial Magistrate

(B) Executive Magistrate

(C) Police Officer

(D) Prosecution Officer

28. An Executive Magistrate can grant remand under Section 167 of CrPC , 1973 for a period of maximum

(A) 5 days

(B) 7 days

(C) days

(D) 15 days

29. Fir an offence punishable with fine only, the period of limitation prescribed under Section 468 of CPC is

(A) 3 months

(B) 6 months

(C) 1 year

(D) 3 years

30. Any police officer may arrest any person without warrant who has been concerned in cognizable offence. This has been provided under

(A) Section 40 CPC

(B) Section 41 CrPC

(C) Section 43 CrPC

(D) Section 57 CrPC

31. Provision eregarding alteration of charges has been mentioned under of the CrPC 1973

(A) Section 215

(B) Section 216

(C) Section 217

(D) Section 218

32. There shall be no appeal by a convicted person where a Magistrate of the first class passes only a sentence of fine not exceeding

(A) 500

(B) 300

(C) 200

(D)100

33. Who among the following can issue order against a person for maintaining his with under Section 125-CPC, 19737

(A) Judicial Magistrate II Class

(B) Judicial Magistrate 1 Class

(C) Executive Magistrate 

(D) All of these

34. Which of the following sections give extra-territorial operation under IPC, 1860?

(A) Sections 3 &4

(B) Sections 56

(C) Sections 70

(D) Sections 10

35. R. Vs. Hicklin is related to

(A) Bribery

(B) Culpable Homicide

(C) Obscenity

(D) Rape

36. What should be the minimum person to commit the offence of robbery"

(A) One

(B) Two

(C) Three

(D) Four

37. Gang Rape has been made punishable under which section of IPC, 1860 ?

(A) Section 376 A

(B) Section 376 B

(C) Section 376 C

(D) Section 376 D

38. Which of the following section of IPC, 1860 defines Dishonestly?

(A) Section 23

(B) Section 24

(C) Section 25

(D) Section 26

39. In which of the following offence the "mens ieu" is not necessary to make the offender criminally liable

(A) Culpable Homicide

(B) Wrongful Confinemest

(C) Kidnapping

(D) Criminal Conspiracy

40. In which of the following case Section 107 of IPC, 1860 has been declared unconstitutional

(A) Bachan Singh Vs. State

(B) D.K. Basu Va. Stane

(C) Joginder Kumar Vs. State

(D) Mithu Singh Vs. State

41. Necesity may be pleaded as defence under

(A) Section 79

(B) Section 80

(C)Section

(D) Section 12

42. McNaughton-case is related to

(A) Insanity

(B) Accident

(C) Necessity

(D) Private Defence

43. Giving false evidence in a judicial proceeding is punishable under which section of IPC, 1860

(A) Section 191

(B) Section 192

(C) Section 193

(D) Section 194

44. Punishment engarding voluntarily causing grievous hurt by acid attack contained

(A) Section 354 A

(B) Section 154 A 

(C) Section 326 A

(D) Section 228 A

45. How many persons are required to form an unlawful assembly

(A) Two persons

(B) Three persons

(C) Four persons

(D) Five persons

46. Criminal Conspiracy has been defined under which section of IPC 1860.

(A) Section 120

(B) Section 120 A

(C) Section 120 B

(D) Section 121

47. The word takes in Section 361 of IPC signifies.

(A) Taking by force

(B) Taking by fraud

(C) Physical taking

(D) All of these

48. Right of private defence is available against

(A) an offence

(B) as offender

(C) both offence and offender

(D) an accused

49. Kedarnath Singh Vs. State of Bihar AIR 1962 SC 955 has decided the constutional validity of IPC, 1860

(A) Sec 124 A

(B) Sec 505

(C) Se 124 A and 505 

(D) Sec 121

50. Aveck Sarkar Vs. State of West Bengal (2014) 4 SCC 257 deals with

(A) Sec 153 A

(B) See 292 A

(C) Sec 292

(D) Sec 354 A

51. A hangman who hangs the prisoner to the order of the court is exempt from criminal liability by virtue of

(A) Section 77 IPC

(B) Section 78 IPC

(C) Section 79 IPC

(D) Section BI IPC

52. For abetment

(A) It is necessary that the set abetted should be committed successfully

(B) It is necessary that the act abetted should be committed though unsuccessful

(C) It is not necessary that the act abetted should be committed

(D) Both (A) and (B)

53. The case of S. Varadrajan Vs State relates to which of the following provisions of IPC, 18607

(A) Section 366

(B) Section 365

(C) Section 364

(D) Section 363

54. Disclosure of identity of a victim of rape is punishable under which of the following section of IPC, 18607

(A) Section 229

(B) Section 228

(C) Section 376

(D) Section 228 A

55. Difference between common intention" and "similar intention was made in which of the following cases

(A) B.K. Ghosh Vs. Emperor

(B) Mehboob Shah Vs. Emperor

(C) Kirpal Singh. Vs. State

(D) Mithu Vs. State

56. The wind legal is defined under which section of IPC. 18607

(A) Section 32

(B) Section 33.

(C) Section 43

(D) Section 37

57. Section 304-A was added in IPC. 1860 in

(A) 1870

(B) 1880

(C) 1890

(D) 1913

58. Which men rea element expressly used in Section 495-A af IPC, 18607

(A) International conduct

(B) Negligent conduct

(C) Wilful conduct

(D) Reason to believe

59. According to Constitution of India, 1950 the residuary power under Article 2418 can be exercised by

(A) Union Government

(B) Parliament

(C)Legislature of States

(D) Judiciary

6. Under which Article of the Constitution NIAC had been created?

(A) Article 124A

(B) Article 1248

(C) Artcile 1240

(D) None of these

61. A Constitutional amendment in India can be challenged in

(A) International Court of Justice

(B) Supreme Court

(C) High Court

 

(D) Supreme Court & High Court both

67. Article 368 of the Constitution deals with

(A) Amendment of Constitution

(B) Finance Commission

(C) Election Commision

(D) Judicial Review

63. Article 102 of the Constitution permite restriction on the freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse in public interest by

(A) Imen-State Council

(B) State Legislature

(C) Parliament

(D) World Trade Organization

64. The MPs and MLAs are mandated w take oath to preserve sovereignty and integrity of the nation under which Constitutional amendment

(A) 1 Constitutional Amendment, 1951

(B) 16 Constitutional Amendment, 1963

(C) 42 Constitutional Amendment, 1976

(D) 73 Constitutional Amendment, 1992

65. Justice, serial, economic and political words are used in the Constitution under

(A) Preamble 

(B) Fundamental Rights

(C) Directive Principles of State Policy

(D) Preamble as well as Directive Principles of State policy

66. In Shreya Singhal Vs. Union of India, Section 66% of formation Technology Act, 2000 was declared illegal under

(A) Article 14

(B) Article 19(1)

(C) Articles 14 &19(1)

(D) Articles 14, 1991)&21

67. The Constitution of India, 1950 recognizes international relation in

(A) Articles 51 & 253

(B) Articles 51 & 254

(C) Articles 504253

(D) Articles 504 254

68. The provisions relating to privileges and immunities are contained under which Articles of the Constitution

(A) Articles 105 & 106

(B) Articles 194 & 195

(C) Articies 105, 106, 194 195

(D) Articles 104, 105, 195 196

69. The distribution of subject-matter is contained under

(A) Fifth Schedule to Constitution

(B) Seventh Schedule Constitution

(C) Ninth Schedule to Constitution

(D) Eleventh Schedule Constitution 

70. Santhanam Committer led to establishment of

(A) CVC

(B) CHI

(C) SIT

(D) CID

71. The nature and function of Chief Information Commissioner is

(A) Judicial

(B) Quai Judicial

(C) Administrative

(D) Constitutional

72. Provision relating to Finance Commission is contained under

(A) Article 279

(B) Article 279A

(C) Article 280

(D) Article 283

73. Which Article of the Constitution provides safeguards against as post facts law 7

(A) Article 20(1)

(B) Article 20(2)

(C) Article 20(3)

(D) Article 19(1)(4)

74. Which among the following fundamental rights available only to the citizen of India?

(A) Right to equality

(B) Right to Freedom of speech and expression

(C) Right life and personal liberty

(D) Protection against double jeopardy

75. The doctrine of precedent is incorporated under which Article of Constitution ?

(A) Article 140

(B) Article 141

(C) Article 142

(D) Article 143

76. Who decides Whether a Bill in Money Bill or not ?

(A) President of India

(B) Finance Minister

(C) Lok Sabha Speaker

(D) Prime Minister

77. The Organisation of Village Panchayats is contained under

(A) Article 40

(B) Article 41

(C) Article 42

(D) Article 43

78. The provision relating to constitution of election commission is

(A) Article 323 B

(B) Article 324 (2)

(C) Article 331

(D) Article 334

79. Article 21 protects the right to life and personal liberty of citizens not only from executive action but also from legislative action. It was observed in

(A) Minerva Mill case

(B) A.K. Gopalan case

(C) Maneka Gandhi can

(D) Keshva Nanda Bharti case

80. Which of the following writs can be issued only against the judicial or quasi-judicial authorities?

(A) Mandamus

(B) Habeas Corpus

(C) Certiorari

(D) Quo Warranto

81. The executive power of the Union is vested in the

(A) Union Cabinet

(B) Prime Minister

(C) President

(D) Chief Justice of India

82. What is imperative to show the requisites respect to National Anthem?

(A) Sing only

(B) Stand respectfully

(C) Sing and Stand respectfully

(D) To bow only

83. The idea of Preamble in Indian Constitution has been borrowed from

(A) USA

(B) Canada

(C) USSR

(D) UK

84. Indian Evidence Act, 1872 came into force on

(A) 1 March, 1872

(B) 1 April, 1872

(C) 1 September, 1872

(D) 1" October, 1872

85. Law of Evidence is

(A) Lex Laci Contractus

(B) Lex Fori

(C) Lex Laci Solutionis

(D) Lex Situs

86. In which of the following case the Supreme Court held that the tape recorded conversation is admissible if relevant to matter?

(A) Lishu Ling Va. R

(B) R.Vs. Richardson

(C) R.M. Malkani Va. Maharastra State

(D) Bhola Ram Kushwaha Vs. M.P. State

87. In which of the following case the Supreme Court held that recording of video conferencing is admissible under the Indian Evidence Act, 18727

(A) State of Maharashtra Vs. P. Bala Desai

(B) Harihar Prasad Singh Vr. Balmiki Prasad Singh

(C) Queen Empress Vs. Abdallah

(D) Pakala Narayan Swami Vs. Emperor

88. Which among the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is an exception to the general rule 'hearsay evidence is no evidence'?

(A) Section 6

(B) Section 11

(C) Section 17

(D) Section 25

89. Mirza Akbar Vs. King Emperor is related w

(A) Section 9

(B) Section 10

(C) Section 11

(D) Section 13

90. Whose admission will not be relevant under Section 18-20 of the Indian Evidence Act, 18727

(A) Admission by party to the proceeding

(B) Admission by servant

(C) Admission by agent

(D) Admission by person having lateral in the subject-matter of the suits. 

91. "A confession is an admission made by any time by a person charged with crime stating of suggesting the inference that he committed that crime Who has given this definition?

(A) Stephen

(B) Atkin

(C) Macaulay 

(D) Millet

92. Which of the following has got been included in the definition of Court under the lndian Evidence Art. 1872

(A) All Judges

(B) All Magistrates

(C) All persons legally authorised t take evidence

(D) Arbitrator

93. in which of the following case the Supreme Court held that the court must accept confession as whole and cannot accept only inculpatory and reject the exculpatory part ?

(A) Palvinder Kaur Vs Punjab State

(B) Pakala Narayan Swami Vs Emperor

(C) Veera Ibrahim Va. Maharashtra State

(D) Nathu Singh Vis. Jagdish Singh

94. A confession made by any person while in police custody will he relevant if it has been made

(A) Immediately in the presence of

(B) Immediately in the presence of superintendent of police

(C) Immediately in the presence of medical officer

(D) None of the above is correct

95. in which of the following subjects an expert is competent to testify?

(A) Foreign Law

(B) Matter of Science

(C) Question of An

(D) All of these

96. Which section of the Indian Evidence Ant, 1872 mentions the facts regarding which the court must take judicial notice

(A) Section 57

(B) Section 67

(C)Section 68

(D) Section

97. Provision regarding public document has been mentioned under which section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 ?

(A) Section 73

(B) Section 74

(C) Section 75

(D) Section 76

98. Landing questions' can be asked in

(A) Examination in chief

(B) Cross examination

(C) Re-examination with the permission of court

(D) All of the above

99. Which section of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 provides about "Hostile witness"?

(A) Section 1

(B) Section 145

(C) Section 154

(D) Section 161

100. Bhushan Sahu Vs. King is related to Which section of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 ?

(A) Section 115

(B) Section 133

(C) Section 122

(D) Section 126

 

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