Previous Year Question Papers · DEIHI JUDICIAL SERVICE (PRE.) EXAMINATION 2007
DEIHI JUDICIAL SERVICE (PRE.) EXAMINATION 2007
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1. The President of India is elected by
a. The elected members of Legislative Assemblies of the states
b. The elected members of both the houses of parliament as well as elected members of the Legislative assemblies of states
c. The members of the Lok Sabha
d. The elected members of both the houses of parliament
2. The president has the power to commute sentence of any person convicted of any offence
a. In all cases where the punishment or sentence is for an offence against any law relating to a matter to which the executive power of union extends
b. In all cases where the sentence is a capital punishment
c. In all cases where punishment or sentence is by a court martial
d. All of the above
3. Article 368 enables an amendment of the basic structure of Constitution of India by
a. 2/3 majority of both house of parliament in a joint sitting
b. 2/3 majority of both house of parliament in a joint sitting and ratification by the legislature of 2/3 of states
c. Simple majority of both house of parliament in a joint sitting
d. None of these
4. D.P.S.P. have been inspired by the constitution of
a. Canada
b. Ireland
c. U.S.A.
d. None of above
5. Which right is a constitutional right but not a Fundamental Right
a. Right to move freely throughout the territory of India
b. Right to form an association
c. Right to hold property
d. Right to life & liberty
6. Where a judgment debtor dies before a decree is fully satisfied
a. The decree is consigned to the record as not executable
b. The decree is deemed to be fully satisfied
c. The decree may be executed against the legal Representatives of the deceased
d. The decree lapses
7. Where it appears to the court that there exists. elements of a settlement
a. Decree the suit itself on such terms as appear to be reasonable
b. Dismiss the suit with liberty to pt to pursue an alternative remedy
c. It may refer the terms of a possible settlement to arbitration, conciliation or mediation
d. None of the above
8. A court may at any stage of the proceedings order to be struck out or amended any matter in any pleading
a. Which may tend to prejudice embarrass or delay fair trial of the suit
b. Which is otherwise an abuse of the process of the court
c. Which may be unnecessary, scandalous, frivolous and vexatious
d. All the above
9. In a suit for recovery of possession of immovable property a suit may be instituted only
a. Where plaintiff resides
b. In the High Court of the state
c. Where immovable property is located
d. Where defendant resides
10. A court shall hold the following proceedings in camera if a party so desires
a. A suit or a proceeding relating to wills and intestate succession
b. A suit or a proceeding for matrimonial relief
c. A suit or a proceeding for maintenance
d. All of the above
11. A civil court shall have jurisdiction to try
a. A suit for recovery of income tax under Income Tax Act, 1961
b. An industrial disputes under the Industrial Dispute Act 1947
c. A service matter under Administrative Tribunal Act 1985
d. None of the above
12. The jurisdiction of a court is determined by
a. Pecuniary value of the relief claimed
b. Local limits of jurisdiction of the civil court
c. The subject matter in dispute
d. All of the above
13. Every allegation of fact in a plaint (except against a person under a disability) if not denied specifically or by necessary implication, shall be taken to be
a. Denied by non-traversal
b. Irrelevant
c. Admitted
d. None of the above
14. Two parties enters into a contract. They later realized that there was a mistake in their understanding of the law. This makes their contract
a. Void
b. Voidable
c. Negotiable
d. None of the above
15. A stands surety for Z for payment of a sum of Rs 1 lakh to B. Z defaults in payment. A is liable to make the payment to B
a. A is not liable to make any payment to B
b. Z is liable to pay to A to enable him to pay to B
c. Of a sum of Rs 1,00,000/-
d. None of the above
16. Z is a patient in a lunatic asylum for some period of time. He becomes same & enters into a contract. Is the contract valid?
a. No
b. Yes
c. Cannot be send
d. None of these
17. A is aware of a material fact when a contract is being entered into, but he keeps silent about it despite his duty to reveal the correct facts. Is the contract voidable because of
a. Fraud
b. Misrepresentation
c. Undue influence
d. Coercion
18. A is an exporter of garments. He enters into a contract with B to sell garments to him. The contract does not specify the kind of garment to be sold. Is the contract between the parties
a. Only for export quality garments
b. Void
c. For the sale of all kinds of garments
d. None of the above
19. A contract is not frustrated
a. By impossibility of govt. restriction or orders
b. By destruction of subject matter of the contract
c. By commercial impossibility
d. All of the above
20. In a contract of sale by sample it is implied that
a. The buyer will have an opportunity to compare the bulk with the sample
b. The goods are free from any defect which is not apparent on a reasonable examination of the sample
c. The bulk will correspond to the sample in quality
d. All of the above
21. A mortgagor in possession of mortgaged property is not liable to a mortgagee
a. For temporary damage to the property
b. For minor destruction of property
c. For normal deterioration of property
d. All the above
22. A gives on lease an immovable property to B for non agricultural purposes; there after, A desires to terminate the lease. The notice given by him to B must
a. Be signed by him or on his behalf
b. Terminate the lease with at least 15 days notice
c. Be in writing
d. All the above
23. A suit for recovery of money is filed 4 years after the cause of action arises. The delay can be
a. Condoned after notice to defendant
b. The delay can't be condoned
c. Condoned ex parte
d. All the above
24. A will bequeathing immovable property
a. Must be compulsorily registered in the place where the testator resides
b. Must be compulsorily registered by executor of will
c. Must be registered at option of testator
d. Must be compulsorily registered in place where the immovable property is situated
25. In computing the period of limitation for filing an appeal, time taken for obtaining a certified copy of the judgment & decree is to be
a. Not excluded even if an application has been made for obtaining a certified copy of judgment and decree
b. Time taken for obtaining a certified copy of judgment and decree is irrelevant
c. Excluded if an application has been made for obtaining a certified copy of judgment & decree
d. None of the above
26. Under the Juvenile Justice (Care & Protection of Children, Act 2000 a juvenile is a person under age of
b. 21 years
d. None of these
27. Which of the following statement is incorrect
a. A marriage between two Hindus may be solemnized if both the bride groom & bride are above the age of 18 years but below the age of 21 years
b. A marriage between two Hindus may be solemnized if the parties are not with in degree prohibited relationship unless the custom or usage governing each of them permits of a marriage b/w the two
c. A marriage between two Hindus may be solemnized if the parties are not within the degree of prohibited relationship unless the custom or usage governing each of them permits of a marriage b/w the two
d. A marriage between two Hindus may be solemnized if neither party has a spouse living at time of marriage
28. The S.C. delivers a judgment. The next day a newspaper publishes adversely but fair comments on the judgment in an editorial. Would it be correct to say that
a. The editor has not committed contempt of court
b. The editor has not defamed the court
c. The publisher of the newspaper has committed contempt of court
d. The editor has committed contempt of court
29. A court may grant interim measure^ during pendency of arbitration proceedings. Such interim measures may include
b. Securing amount in dispute in the arbitration proceedings
c. Appointment of a guardian for a minor for purpose of arbi-tration proceeding
Directions: (Questions 30 - 33): There is a statement against each of these questions. Read the statement and confirm whether it is 'True or False'. Mark the answer as
b. if the statement is 'False'.
30. A foreigner can be appointed as an arbitrator in a dispute between two Indian parties
31. There is no difference between arbitration & mediation proceeding
32. The provisions of the Limitation Act 1963 apply to arbitration proceeding as they apply to criminal proceedings
33. If an arbitral award is not challenged, it is enforceable as a decree
a. May conduct the conciliation proceed ings in such a manner as he considers appropriate
b. May make proposals for a settlement of dispute
c. Shall assist parties in an independent and impartial manner in their attempt to reach an amicable settlement of their dispute
35. Conciliation proceedings terminate
a. By a written declaration of the conciliator to effect that further efforts at conciliation are no longer justified
b. By a written declaration of the parties addressed to the conciliator that the conciliation proceedings are terminated
c. By a written declaration of a party to the other party and the conciliator that the conciliation proceedings are terminated
d. By the signing of settlement agreement by parties
36. The maxim ‘Injuria Sine damno’ has explained in
37. The scope of availability of the defence of volenti non -fit injuria
a. Has been restricted by Unfair Contract Term Act 1977 in England
b. Can not be restricted except in cases of consent without free will
c. Has been restricted in rescue cases
d. Both(A)&(C)
38. The doctrine of vicarious liability applies when there is
b. Relationship of master & servant
c. Relationship of principal & agent
d. All of the above
39. A Hindu undivided family is entitled to enter into an agreement of partnership with
40. The max. no. of partners in a partnership has been provided under
d. Indian Partnership Act, 1932
41. Which of the following is a strong evidence for test of the partnership
42. As per Section 14 of Partnership Act, the property of*a firm does not include
a. Secret profits made by a partner or property acquired by a partner inbreach of his duty of good faith
b. Property belonging to any partner by use of same for partnership business
d. All property & rights & interests in property
43. Mark the incorrect statement in relation to implied authority of a partner under Section 19
a. A partner can acquire immovable property on firm's behalf or transfer immovable property (e.g. sale, mortgage, lease or gift) belonging to the firm
b. A partner can admit any liability in a suit or proceeding against the firm
c. A partner can always enter into partnership on behalf of firm
d. All are correct
44. In which of the following cases the specific performance of a contract is not possible?
a. An agreement by an eminent professor of constitutional law to deliver a course of lectures at Delhi University
b. A contract to supply B with all the goods of a certain class which B may require in future
c. A contract to give in marriage
45. Which of the following is not correct?
a. The jurisdiction to decree specific performance is discretionary & the court is not bound to grant such relief merely because it is lawful to do so
b. The ordinary rule is that specific performance should be granted
c. Relief of specific performance is not equitable
d. The court shall not refer to any party specific performance of a contract merely on the ground that the contract is not enforceable at the instance at other party
46. A Partnership firm consist of 3 partners A, B, C and owe ‘R’ sum of Rs 15000/- A wants to retire. It is agreed amongs' all the three partners & R that after retirement of A, B & C as continuing partners shall be liable for the dues of R. After retirement of A, R sues ‘A’ for recovery of Rs 15,000/-
a. R has a right to sue 'A' to the extent of Rs 5000/ being portion attributable to 'A'
b. R has no right to sue 'A' as after retirement of 'A' a new agreement came into being b/w R and the firm & 'A' stood discharged of his liability towards 'R'
c. 'Rz can sue firm consisting of B & C along with 'A' as liability of all the partners is joint & several
d. R has an option to sue firm consisting of B & C or retired partner A
47. X agreed to supply 1000 ton of iron at Rs 100/- per ton to Y to be delivered not later than 31.1.05; *X’ also entered into a contract with ‘A’ for purchase of 1000 ton of iron at Rs 30/- per ton telling A clearly that the iron is needed before 31.1.05 for supply to Y to fulfill the contract with Y. A fails to supply iron to X who in turn failed to supply the same to Y. In an action by X against A
a. X can recover damages for the loss of profit he would have earned by timely supply to Y & also the damage which Y might have paid to Y on account of breach of contract
b. X can recover damages which X might have paid to Y on account of breach of contract
c. X can recover damages in the form of penalty
d. X can recover damage for the loss of profit at the rate of Rs 20/- per ton i.e. the loss of profit
48. A partnership for which no period of duration is fixed under Partnership Act 1932 is known as
49. Where a partner is authorised to recover dues of the partnership & spend the same for the business of the partnership & if he does not deposit the money so collected in the bank, the partner is
a. Accountable civilly to other partner
c. Both(A)& (B)
d. Either (A) or (B)
50. When an outsider dealing with a partner, does not know or does not believe that he is contracting with a partner, but an individual only
a. The firm incurs no liability even if benefits of the contract has gone to the firm
b. The firm incurs liability even if the benefits of the contract has not gone to the firm
c. The firm incurs liability if the benefits of contract has gone to the firm
51. What are the obligation of a person making an arrest
a. To inform the arrested person of his right
b. To make an entry in a book kept in the police station that information as required by (1) above has been given
c. To inform any friend, relative or nominee of arrested person of the arrest & place of detention
d. None of the above
52. If a court has reason to believe that a person against whom a warrant has been issued & that person is either absconding or concealing himself so that the warrant can’t be executed, then a court may issue a proclamation against him. That person should be
c. An accused person
d. All of the above
53. A search warrant may be issued
a. Where the court does not know if a document is in possession of a person
b. Where the court consider that purpose of any inquiry or trial will be served by a general search
c. Where a court has reason to believe that a person would not produce a requisitioned document
d. All of the above
54. If any person having sufficient means neglects or refuse to maintain his father or mother, a magistrate may
b. Forfeit his source of income
c. Punish him for contempt of court
d. Direct that person to pay a monthly allowance to his father or mother
55. While recording a confessional statement, a magistrate shall ensure
a. That a police officer is present near by so that person making the confession does not run away
b. That if the person does not make a full & true confession he is kept in the custody of police until he makes a proper confession
c. That a video camera is recording the confession
d. That he explain to the person making the confession that he is not bound to make a confession
56. If an investigation into an offence is not completed within 24 hrs then, depending on the nature of the case the magistrate can order a person to remain in custody for
b. 90 days
c. 15 days
d. All the above
57. A magistrate may take cognizance of an offence
a. Upon a police report of such facts
b. Upon information received from any person other than a police officer or upon his own knowledge that such offence has been committed
c. Upon receiving a complaint of facts which constitute such offence
d. All of the above
58. If a public servant acting in discharge of his public duties makes a complaint to a magistrate, then the magistrate
b. May dismiss his complaint if there is no witness present on his behalf
c. Must examine him & his witnesses on oath before issuing process
d. Must examine him on oath about the content of his complaint
59. Classification of offence into compoundable & non-compoundable is provided in
60. An application for plea bargaining can’t be made by an accused person
a. Where the offence has been committed against women
b. Where the offence has been committed against child before the age of 14 years
c. Where the offence is punishable with imprisonment for a term exceeding 7 years
61. The participant in a plea bargain must include
c. The I.O. who investigate the case
d. All of the above
62. In a case triable by a court of session, if an accused does not have sufficient means to engage a pleader the court shall
a. Proceed with the case ex-parte
b. Assign a pleader for his defence at expense of state
c. Refer the case to state legal service Authority
d. Adjourn the case until the accused can arrange a pleader for himself
63. No court shall take cognizance of an offence after the period of limitation, which is
a. One year, if the offence is punishable with imprisonment for a term not exceeding one year
b. 3 years if the offence is punishable with imprisonment for a term exceeding one year but not exceeding 3 years
c. Six months, if the offence is punishable with fine only
64. An offence punishable with imprisonment for a term exceeding two years is triable as a
b. Summons case
d. None of the above
65. A Metropolitan Magistrate may pass a sentence not exceeding
b. 7 years
d. None of the above
66. Where a person is convicted of an offence which provides for imprisonment & fine then in default of payment of fine the max. further imprisonment that can be awarded by a court is
a. 1/4 the max. sentence for the offence
b. 1/2 max. sentence for offence
67. An act committed by a child is not an offence if he has not attained sufficient maturity of understanding to judge the nature & consequences of his conduct on that occasion & if he is
b. Between age of 7 years & 14 years
c. Between age of 7 years & 12 years
68. An Unlawful assembly must consist of at least
b. 7 persons
c. 3 persons
d. None of the above
69. Section 320 of I.P.C. explains what is Grevious hurt. Which of the following is grevious hurt?
a. Hurting religious sentiment
c. Hitting some one with hockey stick
70. A child of ten years of age does not have any parents or any lawful guardian. He is whisked away by some body. That person is said to have committed an offence of
71. If a man has voluntary sexual intercourse with a married woman, he is guilty of adultery. The married woman is liable to be tried as an
b. Co-accused
d. None of the above
72. When a Criminal act is committed by several persons in furtherance of a Common Intention then
a. Each person is liable for that act as if it were committed by him alone
b. Each person is liable for, to his role in commission of the offence
c. Each person is liable for that act
73. Under sec 498A of the IRC cruelty includes
a. Any wilful conduct that is likely to cause grave injury or danger to limb of a woman
b. Harassing a woman for her inability to meet an unlawful demand for property
c. Any wilful conduct that is likely to drive a woman to suicide
74. The maxim “Ignorantia juris non excusat” means
a. Ignorance of law is not an excuse
b. Ignorance of law is an excuse
c. Ignorance of law is not an excuse
d. Ignorance of law is an excuse
75. If five persons attack a person and take away his wallet at knife point. They are guilty of
b. Robbery
c. Theft
d. All the above
76. Culpable homicide is not murder if it Is committed under
c. Grave & sudden provocation
77. An expert witness is one who
c. Is specially skilled in the subject in respect of which he has been called upon to testify
d. Can speak very fluent English
78. Judicial notice can be taken of
a. M.F. Hussain being a great artist
b. Amitabh Bachchan being a great actor
c. Jeremy Benthem being a great jurist
79. Secondary evidence includes
a. Copy made from or compared with original
b. Oral a/c of a document from a person who has himself seen that document
c. Certified copy of a court order
d. None of the above
80. Which of the following document are public document
a. Document forming the acts or records of the act of public officer
b. Document forming the acts or records of the acts of judicial officer
c. Document forming the acts or records of the acts of tribunals
81. An inscription on a metal plate is
b. An opinion
c. A motive
d. A document
82. A is accused of committing the murder of B which of these is a relevant fact?
a. A told his friend that he would avenge his father's death
b. A was seen running away just before the arrival of police
c. A was seen going to a field with a weapon of offence
83. To be admissible a D.D. may be made to
a. Must be made before a magistrate
b. Must be made before the Investigating officer
c. Must be made before the doctor treating him
84. The burden of proving a crime is on
c. It is for the court to decide
d. The accused who must show his innocence
85. T.I.P. should be conducted by
a. A police officer not below rank of Sub Inspector
86. X is found in possession of some currency notes recently stolen from a bank. Is it correct to presume
a. That X has received the currency knowing it to be stolen
b. That X has stolen the money
c. Both (A) and (B)
d. None of the above
(Questions 87 - 95 True & false)
87. Under the rules of the Delhi High Court, the cause list is kept in an electronic form. There is a presumption of its genuineness
88. The I.P.C. applies to an Indian citizen who commits an offence outside India
89. Whosoever, being under a sentence of imprisonment for life, commits a murder, shall be punished with death
90. Making preparation for committing dacoity is an offence under the I.P.C
91. Solitary confinement is permissible in India
92. In a Criminal case, the fact that a person has a good character is relevant
93. the Indian Evidence Act. 1972 provides for the admissibility of the electronic records
94. A non secure digital signature of a subscriber is required to be proved
95. Documentary evidence includes electronic records produced for the inspection of the court
96. On what date was the Constitution of India adopted
c. 2nd Oct
d. 26th Jan
97. The D.P.S.P. are
b. Negotiable
d. None of the above
98. A judge of High court is appointed by the
c. Chief Justice of High Court
99. When the S.C. exercise its power of judicial review
a. Reviews the functioning of the judiciary in India
b. Examines the correctness of an adm action or the validity of a statute
c. Appoints a committee to review the working of constitution
100. Every person arrested & detained in custody shall (excluding time for journey) be produced before a magistrate
a. Within 14 days of the arrest
b. Only when his bail application is listed for hearing
c. Within 24 hrs of the arrest
Directions: (Questions 101 -126): In each of the following sentences, there is a missing word or phrase. From the four selections given, you are required to select the word or phrase that best completes the sentence.
101. lam glad that you want to be a lawyer. I hope you know that you must very hard for years,
102. The first day of Dushehra is
103. I don’t know how long she will be away from home. She living in London since March
b. Is
d. Had been
104. Don’t make remarks that are not the topic
b. Relevant to
d. Relevant with
105. Sorry, I won’t be here when Mr. Raman visits this weekend when he please convey my regards to him
b. Would come -
d. Will come
106. Astronomy is a field in which amateurs can make significant contributions
c. Like in most other sciences
107. I am afraid we’ll have to take an autorikshaw; the last bus
d. Has just left an hour ago
108. Last year he told his wife that bad manners
a. I have been hating you for your
c. He was hating her
109. You must put off this work any longer; let it
b. Should have been done by now
111. He will win the race if he running regularly
b. Will Practice
c. Will be practised
d. Practices
112. He killed the tigera rifle
b. by
c. from
d. with
113. I can’t remember wheremy coat
114. I was shocked to learn that he _______with his brother
c. What will the reason
116. It has been raining for five days. 1 wish it
117. Had Gita come into the room, she
a. Would see the child eating paper
b. Has seen the child eating paper
c. Would have seen child eating paper
b. Till 5 years
d. For 5 years
119. If more teams withdraw, the tournament
c. Would cancel
120. I am definitely not the exams
121. The chief wanted to know done the job
122. He could not cut the grass today, because the handle of the machine
b. Has broken
d. Broken
123. Our country needs a no. of ___ socialworkers
b. Disinterested
c. Interesting
d. Interested
124. The chief minister has been guilty of a _______ abuse of power
b. Bad
d. Fragrant
125. She has been living in Paris 1979
b. After
d. None of above
126. He seemed to be to losing the election and he did not campaign extensively
b. Accepted
d. Content
Directions: (Questions 127-136): There is a sentence with underlined parts against each question. Mark the answer as
a. if the first underlined part is wrong
b. if the second underlined part is wrong.
c. if the third underlined part is wrong.
d. None of the underlined part is wrong.
127. To bake a good caka, you need flour, eggs margarine baking powder & the small quantity of sortie essence
128. He read the question paper real slowly & carefully
129. After hearing our side of story, the judge ruled that my brother and me should be released.
130. He Is the new principle of that institution
131. For all of us to succeed in this work, everybody must do their level best,
132. When two aunt meet, they will gossip with one another for a long time
133. This time, the school team consists of Raman. Suresh &J.
134. Many a mariner jumped into the sea when they saw that the flames showed no sign of abatement.
135. The end was come, as the end of such matter generally comes, by gradual decay
136. Mr. Ram works in the personnel Dept of that company
Direction (137-145):- Each Questions has a sentence with an idiom used therein. Identify the idom used.
137. There was a virtual sea of humanity at cine awards functions
b. Lack of order
c. Total confusion
d. Too many people
138. The news of his death came to me as a rude shock
b. Causing waves
d. Sudden grief
c. nowhere
141. Revocation of President’s rule is a set back
142. This election proved to be his Waterloo
b. Causing famine
d. End of the career
143. Hawala case ended in a fiasco
c. Waste of time & money
b. Nuisance
d. Injustice
145. Indian agriculture is a gamble with monsoon
(Questions 146 -150) a word/group of words underlined. Choose the option which can substitute the underline word
146. Had I realized how close I was to the edge of the valley I would not have earned the bags there
147. By such time you finish that chapter, I will write a letter
c. The time when
148. Any one interested in the use of computers can learn much if you have success to a personal computer
149. She cooks, washes, dishes, does her homework & then is relaxing
150. The chemist hadn’t hardly any of those kind of medicine
a. Had hardly not any of those kind
b. Had scarcely any of those kind
c. Had hardly any of those kinds
151. With which jurist is the expression grund norm usually associated?
b. Jeremy Bentham
d. Hans Kelsen
152. With which jurist is expression sociological jurisprudence associated
b. Julius Stone
d. Roscoe Pound
153. Who among the following was the proponent of the theory of separation of powers?
b. Rousseau
d. Montesquieu
154. Who wrote “My Own Bosewell”
c. Mr. Fall S. Nariman
155. Who wrote “Roses in December”?
c. Mr. Soli J. Sorabjee
156. Who was 1 st Chief Justice of federal court of India
157. Which famous author wrote a book called “Jurisprudence”.
c. Mr. M.P.Jain
a. Community for Elimination of Discrimination against women
b. Council for Elimination of Discrimination against woman
c. Covenant for Elimination of Discrimination against women
d. Convention on Elimination of all forms of Discrimination against women
159. The attorney General for India shall hold office during the pleasure of the
160. The International Criminal Court is located at
a. Geneva
b. New York
d. Hague
161. Which court is associated with Rome statute?
a. International Criminal Tribunal for Yugoslavia
b. International Criminal of Justice
c. International Criminal Tribunal for Rwanda
d. International Criminal Court
162. Who is present chairman of National Hunu n Rights Commission?
163. Who was the chairman of National Commission to review the working of the Constitution
164. Who is recently suspended as Chief Justice of Pakistan?
165. Who said “Justice delayed is Justice denied”
c. J.V.R.Krishna Iyer ""
166. Who is the present Solicitor General of India
167. Which judgment of the S.C. is associated with basic structure doctrine?
b. All India Judges Association
168. Which statute incorporates the Beijing Rules?
b. Prevention of Immoral Trafficking Act
c. The Indecent Representation of Woman (Prohibition) Act
d. Juvenile Justice (Care & Protection of Children) Act
169. When was the Universal Declaration of Human Right Act
a. 1950
b. 1956
d. 948
170. The Headquarter of World Intellectual property organisation are situated in
a. London
b. New York
d. Geneva
171. Who wrote the book concept of law?
172. With what you associated the “Kyotoprotocol”?
173. Which Indian judge was president of Internation Court of Justice?
174. Who is commonly known as the “Father of Int. Law”
b. Rao
c. Mani
d. Grotius
176. Who is the highest law officer of a state?
c. Central Government standing Counsel
177. Who among the following was a great Hindu Law giver
b. Chanakiya
d. Manu
178. Who among these was a famous jurist of medieval India
b. Hemadril
d. RajSekhara
179. What are source of Int. law?
180. When is the Int. Human Right Day celebrated?
b. 31st December
d. 10th December
181. Which is the Judicial organ of U.N.?
a. International Court of Justice
b. European court of Human Right
c. International criminal Court Tribunal for Yugoslavia
d. International Criminal Court
182. Who was the 1 st woman CJ of H.C.
183. International Day of Disabled persons is Celebrated on
a. 3rd December
b. 10th December
d. 2nd December
184. Lok Adalats are created under which statute
a. C.P.C.
d. Legal Service Authority Act
185. The Malimath Committee is associated with reform in
186. Which famous lawyer recently completed his term as a nominated member of Rajya Sabha?
a. Ramjethmalani
b. Ar tin Jaitley
d. SoliJ.Sorabjee
187. Who wrote “The quality of mercy is not strained”?
188. Which of the following is not a constitutional body?
189. Which of the following is an indirect tax
a. Gift tax
b. Wealth tax
d. Excise tax
190. Who was the 1st Chief Justice of India
a. J.B.P. Sinha
b. JJ.CShah
d. J.S.R. Das
191. Which is the law University in India
a. National Law School of India University, Bangalore
b. Indira Gandhi National Open University
c. Andhra Pradesh Open University
192. Who is the Supreme Commander of Defence Forces?
193. Who wrote the book “We the people”?
c. Jamshedji Kanga
194. Who wrote the book “Big Egos Small men”
195. Select the odd word out
b. Quo Warranto
c. Quid Pro Quo
d. Mandamus
196. The great exponent of Mitakshara school of law is
c. Mita
197. The civil law system is based on
c. The hammurabi code
198. The recently appointed Chief Justice of U.S.A, is
a. Burger
b. Rehnquist
d. Warren
199. In a sense, the powers of the President are akin to the power of
a. Soli J. Sorabjee
b. Ashok Desai
c. K.K. Venugopal
d. Milon Banerji