CHATTISGARH CIVIL JUDGE PRELIMS 2016

1When did Indian Penal Code 180 come in to force?(A) 1860(B) 1861(C) 1862(D) 18633The Indian Penal Code was enacted in 1860, and came into force on January 1, 1862.

2Which section of the IPC provides for punishment for subjecting women to cruelty?(A) Section 498(B) Section 498A(C) Section 498B(D) Section 3752Section 498A of the Penal Code, 1860 lays the provision against a husband or relative of husband of a woman subjecting her to cruelty.

3Section 124A of IPC prescribes punishment for(A) Sedition(B) Waging war against the Government of India(C) Abetting mutiny(D) Aiding escape of a prisoner1Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC).

4Voyeurism has been criminalized in India by virtue of which amendment to IPC?(A) 20151983(C) 187020134The act of voyeurism was not a crime in India until the year 2013. The offence was added in the aftermath of the Nirbhaya case through the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013, which introduced Section 354-C to the Indian Penal Code.

5What is not an offence under IPC?Marital rape BigamyAffrayMischief1marital rape is not recognized as an offense in India under the Indian Penal Code (IPC).

6In order to Constitute theft, what is not an ingredient in IPC?(A) Dishonest intention(B) Moving of the property(C) Common intention(D) Movable property3Theft' is defined under Section 378 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, which states that any person with a dishonest intention to take any movable property out of the possession of a person without the person's consent to whom it belongs moves that property is said to commit theft.

7Which of the following statement is not a correct one?(A) An assembly which was not unlawful when it assembled, may subsequently become an unlawful assembly(B) Kidnapping shall be punished with imprisonment which may extend to seven years(C) It is not defamation to make an imputation on the character of another person provided that the imputation be made in good faith(D) A riot involves minimum of three persons4Rioting is defined under Section 146 of the Indian Penal Code as an offence that involves the use of force or violence by an assembly of five or more persons, or the use of criminal force by an individual.

8 Whoever does anything with the intention of causing wrongful gain to one person or wrongful loss to another person is said to do that thing:(A) Fraudulently(B) Dishonestly(C) Wrongfully(D) Mischievously2According to Section 24 of the Indian Penal Code of 1860, "dishonestly" is the term used to describe someone who intends to cause wrongful gain to one person or wrongful loss to another.

9 Under Section 51 of CPC, which one is not a method to enforce execution of the decree?(A) by appointing a receiver(B) by sale with out attachment(C) by arrest and detention(D) by appointing a commission4Section 51 refers to powers of Court to enforce the execution and prescribed certain procedure in execution.

10 "10. Which of the following statement is correct?

(1) An appeal may lie from an original decree passed ex parte

(2) No appeal shall lie from a decree passed by the Court with the consent of parties

(3)No appeal shall lie on a question of law"Only(l) Only (2)Only (3)Both (1) and (2)4Section 96 – Appeal from original decree​​ No appeal shall lie, except on a question of law.

11 Under Section 115 of CPC, the High Court has the power of:(A) Revision(B) Review(C) Reference(D) Vary or reverse any order whatsoever1Section 115 of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) of 1908.

12 Which of the following statement is incorrect?(A) Where there are more defendants than one, service of the summons shall be made on each defendant.(B) Service of the summons shall be made by tendering a copy thereof signed by the lawyer.(C) Summons for the defendant cannot be served on his servant.(D) Defendant may empower agent to receive summons.2The service of such summons shall be effected by or on behalf of such plaintiff by delivering or tendering to the defendant personally a copy thereof signed by the Judge or such officer of the Court as he may appoint in this behalf and sealed with th seal of the Court.

13 Order XV of CPC talks about:(A) disposal of the suit at the first hearing(B) settlement of issues(C) attendance of witness(D) notices1Order 15 of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC), 1908, gives civil courts the power to dispose of a suit at the first hearing.

14 An adjournment shall not be granted on the ground:(A) Where the circumstances'are beyond the control of that party(B) Pleader is ill and the party could not engage another pleader in time(C) The pleader of a party is engaged in another court(D) Both where the circumstances are beyond the control of that party apd pleader is ill and the party could not engage another pleader in time3Rule 2(c) of Order XVII provides that the pleader of a party is engaged in another Court shall not be a ground for adjournment.

15 Which is not a decree?(A) Rejection of a plaint(B) Order of dismissal for default(C) Determination of any question within section 144 of CPC(D) Conclusive adjudication that determines the rights of the parties with regard to all of any of the matters in controversy in the suit2According to the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, an order of dismissal for default is not a decree.

16 Section 21 of the CPC deals with(A) pecuniary and Territorial jurisdiction(B) subject matter and personal jurisdiction(C) personal and admirality jurisdiction(D) probate and summary jurisdiction1Section 21 of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) deals with objections to jurisdiction raised before appellate or revisional courts. It covers both territorial and pecuniary jurisdiction.

17 A consideration is unlawful:(A) if it is opposed to public policy(B) if it is immoral(C) if it is unethical(D) both if it is opposed to public policy and if it is immoral4According to Section 23 of the Indian Contract Act of 1872, a consideration is unlawful if it is immoral, opposed to public policy.

18 A person who finds goods belonging to another, and takes them into his custody, is subject to the same responsibility as a:(A) Bailee(B) Bailor(C) Agent(D) Pledgee1The Section 71 of The Indian Contract Act, 1872, talks about, 'Responsibility of finder of goods' which means that "A person who finds goods belonging to another, and takes them into his custody, is subject to the same responsibility as a bailee."

19 A continuing guarantee may at any time be revoked by the surety by notice to the creditor:(A) as to future transactions(B) as to past transactions(C) as to the past as well as future transactions(D) a continuing guarantee cannot be revoked at all1Section 130 of the Indian Contract Law-1872.

20 Which of the following statement is incorrect?(A) The authority of an agent may be implied(B) Consideration is necessary to create an agencyOnly a person of majority can become an agent(A) In emergency, an agent has authority to do all acts for the purpose of protecting his principal2According to section 185 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, no consideration is necessary to create an agency.

21 Where persons reciprocally promise, firstly to do certain things which are legal, and, secondly under specified circumstances, to do certain other things which are illegal, then(A) both sets of promise are contract(B) both sets of promise are void(C) the first set of promise is a contract and the second is a void agreement(D) both sets of promise are voidable3Section 57 in The Indian Contract Act, 1872.

22 Contingent agreements to do or not to do anything, if an impossible event happens(A) are void if the impossibility of tne event is known to the parties at the time when it is made(B) are void if the impossibility of the event is not known to the parties to agreement at the time when it is made(C) are void, whether the impossibility of the event is known or not to the parties to the agreement at the time when it is made(D) are voidable at the option of the parties3Section 36 of Indian Contract Act, 1872.

23 A proposal cannot be revoked:(A) by failure of the acceptor to fulfil a condition precedent to acceptance(B) by lapse of the time prescribed in the proposal for its acceptance(Q by insanity of the proposer, if the fact of insanity comes to the knowledge of the acceptor before acceptance(A) after the communication of its acceptance is complete4A proposal may be revoked at any time before the communication of its acceptance is complete as against the proposer, but not afterwards.

24 Section 170 of Indian Contract Act deals with:(A) General lien (B) Particular lien(A) Wharfinger lien (D) Broker's lien2Section 170 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 deals with a particular lien while Section 171 deals with General Lien.

25 Which is not a public document?(A) Documents forming the records of the Acts of foreign country(B) Documents forming the records of Tribunal(C) Documents forming the records of the Commonwealth(D) Documents forming the records of will written by Governor of a State4Section 74 in The Indian Evidence Act, 1872.

26 Section 90 of the Indian Evidence Act creates presumption as to documents that are years old. -- 5 30 7 12 2 "Section 90 in The Indian Evidence Act, 1872

Presumption as to documents thirty years old."

27 How many minimum numbers of witnesses are required to proof any fact?(A) No particular number of witnesses is required for the proof of any fact(B) 32(A) 4 .1Section 134 in The Indian Evidence Act, 1872.

28 From the following which is an exception to section 23 of the Evidence Act?(A) Section 126 of the Evidence Act(B) Section 162 of the Evidence Act(C) Section 125 of the Evidence Act(D) Section 152 of the Evidence Act1section 126 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is an exception to section 23 of the same act.

29 An evidence given by a dumb witness in an open court is(A) a documentary evidence(B) an oral evidence(C) inadmissible(D) deemed to be no evidence2Evidence so given shall be deemed to be oral evidence.Section 119 in The Indian Evidence Act, 1872.

30 Presumption as to absence of consent in certain prosecutions of rape cases is raised by(A) Section 114 of the Evidence Act(B) Section 114B of the Evidence Act(C) Section 376 of the IPC(D) Section 114 A of the Evidence Act4114-A. Presumption as to absence of consent in certain prosecutions for rape. [Inserted by Act 43 of 1983, Section 6.]

31 Which statement is incorrect?(A) In cross examination a witness may be asked questions which tend to discover what is his position in life.(B) In cross examination a witness may be asked questions which tend to test his veracity,^ „(C) Witnesses to character shall not be re­examined.(D) In cross examination a witness may be asked questions which tend to discover who he is.3Section 140 – Witnesses to character. Witnesses to character may be cross-examined and re-examined.

32 Which of the following statement is correct with respect to an accomplice?(A) An accomplice shall not be a competent witness against an accused person(B) An accomplice shall be a competent witness against an accused person(C) No conviction shall be made based on the uncorroborated testimony of an accomplice(D) An accomplice's testimony shall always be corroborated2According to Section 133 of the Indian Evidence Act (IEA) of 1872, an accomplice is considered a competent witness against an accused person.

33 Tenth schedule of the Constitution provides for:(A) Disqualification on grounds of defection(B) Union listi (C) Administration of tribal areas-(D) Allocation of seats in council of states110th Schedule of Indian Constitution talks about anti-defection.

34 Which article makes Hindi in Devnagari Script as the official language of the Union?.(A) Article 342(B) Article 343(1)(A) Article 343(2)(D) Article 343(3)2Article 343(1) of the Constitution of India states that Hindi in Devanagari script is the official language of the Union.

35 Article 243ZE of the Constitution of India provides for(A) Municipalities(B) District Planning Committee(C) Metropolitan Planning Committee(D) Finance Commission3Article 243ZE of the Constitution of India establishes a Metropolitan Planning Committee (MPC) in every metropolitan area.

36 The minimum number of judges required for the purpose of hearing any reference by President of India is852152Article 145(3) of Indian Constitution says that there should at least five judges to hear cases that involve " a substantial question of law as to the interpretation" of the constitution.

37 The quorum to constitute a meeting of either House of Parliament is?(A) One-fifth Of the total number of members of the House(B) One-fourth of the total number of members of the House(C) One-third of the total number of members'of the House(D) One-tenth of the total number of members of the House4Article 100 of the Constitution of India stipulates that at least 10% of a total number of members of the House must be present to constitute the quorum to constitute a meeting of either House of Parliament. The quorum of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha is one-tenth of the total membership of each house.

38 Which statement is correct as to the President of India?(A) He can resign by writing under his hand addressed to the Vice President(B) He can continue to hold office even after expiration of his term until his successor enters upon his office(C) He can resign by writing under his hand addressed to the Vice President and can continue to,hold office even after expiration of his term until his successor enters upon his off ice •(D) He shall not be impeached3Article 56, Constitution of India 1950.

39 Which Amendment Act to the Constitution inserted fundamental duties to the Constitution?42nd 48th72nd 24th1The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added 10 Fundamental Duties to the Indian Constitution.

40 The Constitution of India deals with provisions for maternity relief under: Article 40 Article 43 Article 42 Article 41 3 "Article 42, Constitution of India 1950

The State shall make provision for securing just and humane conditions of work and for maternity relief."

41 Section 85 of Cr.P.C. does not cover with respect to attached property:Release -SaleRestoration Resale4Section 85 in The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 .

42 Under Section 142 of Cr.P.C. a Magistrate is empowered to issue:(A) Injunction pending inquiry(B) Show cause notice(C) Notice of forfeiture of property(D) Order for local inspection1Section 142 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 empowers a magistrate to issue an injunction pending inquiry.

43 When the Magistrate may, in his discretion, discharge the accused?(A) At any time before the charge has been framed and the complainant is absent on any day fixed for the hearing of the case(B) Offence is lawfully compounded or is not a cognizable offence(C) Both at any time before the charge has been framed and the complainant is absent on any day fixed for the hearing of the case and offence is lawfully compounded or is not a cognizable offence(D) At any time after the charge has been framed with respect to cognizable and compoundable offence.3CrPC Section 249 - Absence of complainant .

44 Which of the following may not be a particular in record in summary trials as per section 263? (A) Parentage of the accused — . (B) Parentage of the complainant (C) The finding (D) The date on which proceedings terminated 2 "CrPC Section 263 - Record in summary trials-

the name, parentage and residence of the accused."

45 Which section of Cr.P.C. provides protection against double jeopardy or autrefois convict?Section 400Section 403Section 300Section 3013Section 300 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC).

46 A Court, when it has signed its judgment or final order disposing of a case, may(A) correct a clerical or arithmetical error(B) alter findings of law(C) review findings of fact(D) alter or review ratio1" Section 362 of the Code mandates that no Court, when it 10 has signed its judgment or final order disposing of a case shall alter or review the same except to correct a clerical or arithmetical error.

47 Which of the following conviction is appealable?(A) Conviction by a High Court in a case wherein accused pleaded guilty(B) Conviction in petty cases by High Court with a sentence of 4 months imprisonment(C) Conviction in petty cases by court of Session with a sentence of 4 months imprisonment(D) Conviction in petty cases passed by a Magistrate of the first class only with a i fine of one hundred rupees3CrPC Section 376 - No appeal in petty cases.

48 Judgbs in Court of Session are appointed by:(A) District Judge(B) Law Minister(C) Supreme Court(A) High Court4Every Court of Session shall be presided over by a Judge, to be appointed by the High Court.

49 Police may not arrest without warrant any person:(A) who has in his possession with lawful excuse any implement of house­breaking(B) who hasbeen proclaimed as an offender by order of the State Government(C) who obstructs a police officer while in the execution of his duty ;who is reasonably suspected of being a deserter from any of the Armed Forces of the Union1Section 41 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.

50 A' warrant-case means:(A) A case relating to an offence punishable with death, imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a term exceeding six months(B) A case relating to an offence punishable vyith death, imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a term exceeding three years(C) A case relating to an offence punishable with death, imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a term exceeding five yearsA case relating to an offence punishable with death, imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a term exceeding two years4“warrant-case” means a case relating to an offence punishable with death, imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a term exceeding two years.

51 According to section 7 of the Court Fees Act, in suits for maintenance and annuities or other sums payable periodically-according to the value of the subject-matter of the suit; such value shall be deemed to be the amount claimed to be payable for one year.ten timesfour timesfive times three times1Section 7 in The Court-fees Act, 1870.

52 Section 17 of the Court Fees Act deals with:(A) suit for easements(B) multifarious suits(C) declaratory decree suits(D) suit for annuities2Section 17 of the Court Fees Act, 1870 deals with multifarious suits, which are suits that join two or more separate causes of action and seek separate relief for each.

53 Which is not an exempted document under section 19 of the Court Fees Act?(A) Probate of a will(B) Power-of-attomey to institute or defend a suit when executed by a member of any of the Armed Forces of the Union(C) Written statements called for by the Court after the first hearing of a suit(D) Memorandum of appeal4Section 19 in The Court-fees Act, 1870.

54 The Court Fees Act 1870 was enforced on:(A) April 11,1870 .(B) March 11,1870(C) April 1,1870(D) March 1,18703The Court-fees Act, 1870 was passed by the Legislature on March 11, 1870 and came into force on April 1, 1870.

55 Which section requires showing/exposing the process fees chargeable for service and execution in English and Vernacular languages in a conspicuous part of each Court?(A) Section 20 of the Court Fees Act 1870(B) Section 22 of the Court Fees Act 1870 (Q Section 21A of the Court Fees Act 1870(A) Section 21 of the Court Fees Act 18704Section 21 in The Court-fees Act, 1870.

56 " Where an application for a review of judgment is admitted and on the rehearing, the Court reverses its former decision on the ground of mistake in law the applicant shall be entitled to get certificate from the Court authorizing him to receive back from the so much

of the fee paid on the application as exceeds the fee payable on any other application to such Court under the second Schedule to Court Fees Act, No. 1, clauses (b) or (d)."(A) Collector(B) Treasury(C) Court clerk(D) Registrar1 Collector.

57 In determining the amount of any compensation awarded under section 21 of the Specific Relief Act, the court shall be guided by the principles specified in section of the Indian Contract Act, 1872707372712section 21 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 states that when determining the amount of compensation, the court must consider the principles in section 73 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872.

58 Section 12 of the Specific Relief Act deals with:(A) Rectification of instrument(B) Personal bars to relief(C) Specific performance of part of contract(D) Cancellation of instruments3Section 12 of the Specific Relief Act .

59 Rescission may not be adjudged by the court where:(A) The contract is voidable or terminable • by the plaintiff(B) The contract is unlawful for causes not apparent on its face and the defendant is more to blame than the plaintiff(C) Any person interested in a contract may sue to have it rescinded(D) Where the plaintiff has expressly or impliedly ratified the contract4Section 27 in The Specific Relief Act, 1963.

60 Specific relief is granted for enforcing:(A) Individual civil rights(B) Penal laws(C) Both individual civil rights and penal ' laws.(D) 'personal criminal liability1Specific relief is a form of judicial redress that can be granted by a court to enforce individual civil rights, but not to enforce penal laws.

61 Under section 7 of the Specific Relief Act, a person entitled to the possession of specific movable property may recover it in the manner provided by which legislation:(A) The Limitation Act(B) The Evidence Act(C) The Code of Civil Procedure(D) The Transfer of Property Act3section 7 of the Specific Relief Act.

62 Which of the following is a contract that cannot be specifically enforceable?(A) A contract which is in its nature determinable(B) A contract which is so dependent on the personal qualifications(C) Both a contract which is in its nature determinable and also dependent on the personal qualifications(D) Where the suit is for the purchase of a share of a partner in a firm3Section 14 in The Specific Relief Act, 1963-The following contracts cannot be specifically enforced.

63 Which of the following statement is correct?(A) An easement cart be transferred apart from the dominant heritage(B) A mere right to sue cannot be transferred(C) A right to future maintenance can be transferred(D) The salary of a public officer after it has become payable can be transferred2According to section 6(e) of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, a mere right to sue cannot be transferred.

64 Under section 9 of the Transfer of Property Act, transfer of property with a condition restraining alienation is:(A) Void(B) Voidable(C) Illegal(D) Partially legal1section 9 of the Transfer of Property Act.

65 Which section creates exception to the restrictions in sections 14,16 and 17 of the Transfer of Property Act? 15 19 17A 18 4 "Section 18 of Transfer of Property Act, 1882-

Section 18: Transfer in Perpetuity for Benefit of Public."

66 Section 54 of the Transfer of Property Act deals with:(A) Sale(B) Discharge of encumbrances(C) Marshalling by subsequent purchaser(D) Mortgage1Section 54 of the Transfer of Property Act.

67 A mortgages a certain plot of building land to B and afterwards erects a house on the plot. For the purposes of his security, B is_ entitled to:(A) The house as well as the plot(B) Only the house(C) Only the plot(D) Neither the plot nor the house1Section 70(b) in The Transfer Of Property Act, 1882.

68 From the following who cannot sue for redemption of the mortgaged property (A) The mortgager(B) The mortgagee(C) Surety for the payment of the mortgage ­debt (D) Creditor of the mortgagor who has in a suit for the administration of his estate obtained a decree for sale of the mortgaged property2section 91(a) clearly confers the right of redemption on any other person than the mortgagee who has an interest .

69" A, the lessor, gives B, the lessee, notice to quit the property leased. The notice expires, and B remains in possession. A gives to B as lessee a second notice to quit. Then4."(A) both the notices will be effective(B) the second notice is ineffective(C) only the first notice will be effective(D) the first notice is waived4Section 113 in The Transfer Of Property Act, 1882.

70 Which section in the Transfer of Property Act deals with Universal donee?Section 127Section 128Section 129Section 1302Section 128 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 deals with the concept of a universal donee.

71 As per section 2(c) of the Limitation Act a bill of exchange includes(A) Promissory note and bond(B) Promissory note(C) A hundi and a cheque Bond3section 2(c) of the Limitation Act.

72 Under section of the Limitation Act, a minor includes a child: (A) Below the age of 15 (B) Below the age of 18 (C) Below the age of 14 (D) In the womb ; 4 "Section 6 in The Limitation Act, 1963

—For the purposes of this section, 'minor' includes a child in the womb."

73 In computing the period of limitation for/any suit, the day from which such period is to be reckoned, shall be:(A) excluded included(Q either be included or excluded as per the discretion of the court(A) either be included or excluded as per the option of the party1Section 12(1) provides that in computing the period of limitation for any suit, appeal or application, the day from which such period is to be reckoned shall be excluded.

74 For the price of work done by the plaintiff for the defendant at his request, where no time has been fixed for payment, the period of limitation is: ,(A) one yeartwo yearsthree years twelve years3 "For the price of word done by the plaintiff for the defendant at his request where no time has been fixed for payment. Three years.

75 By a landlord to recover possession from a tenant, the period of limitation is:one yeartwo yearsthree years twelve years4recovery of possession from a tenant is concerned, the period of limitation is provided under Article 67 of the Schedule to the Limitation Act, which is twelve years from the time when the tenancy is determined.

76 The limitation period to restrain waste begins from:(A) when the waste begins(B) when the knowledge of waste comes to the knowledge of the petitioner(C) no limitation is provided in the Act(D) from the beginning of the calendar year1article 89. To restrain waste. Three years When the waste begins.

77 "77. Which of the following is exempted from the purview of Registration Act?

(1) Document issued by any officer engaged in making a settlement of land-revenue, and which form part of the records of settlement

(2) Documents which, under any law for the time being in force, are filed periodically in any revenue-office by patwaris

(3)Leases of immovable property from year to year"Only(l) Only (2)Only (3)Both (1) and (2)4Section 17 in The Registration Act, 1908.

78 For which of the following registration is compulsory under the Registration Act?(A) Non-testamentary instruments which acknowledge the receipt or payment of any consideration on account of the creation, declaration, assignment, limitation or extinction of any such right, title or interest(B) Grant of immovable property by government(C) Order granting a loan or instrument of collateral security granted under the, Land Improvement Act, 1871(D) Certificate of sale granted to the purchaser of any property sold by public auction by a civil or revenue-officer1Section 17 in The Registration Act, 1908.

79 "79. For which of the following document registration is optional?

(1) Instruments acknowledging the receipt or payment of any consideration on account of the creation, declaration, assignment, limitation or extinction of any such right, title or interest

(2) Leases of immovable property for any term not exceeding one year

(3)Sanads, inam, title-deeds and other documents purporting to be or to evidence grants or assignments by government of land or of any interest in land"Only(l) Only (2)Both (1) and (2) Only (3)3Section 18. Documents of which registration is optional.

80 As per section 23 of the Registration Act, wherever exemption is not applicable documents must be presented for registration to the proper officer within from the date of its execution.(A) one year (B) three months(C) forty five days(D) four months4Section 23 in The Registration Act, 1908 .

81 Under section 11 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, a promissory note, bill of exchange or cheque drawn or made in India, and made payable in, or drawn upon any person resident in India is(A) Inland instrument(A) Foreign instrument(B) Negotiable instrument(C) Indorsement1According to section 11 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, a promissory note, bill of exchange, or cheque drawn or made in India and made payable in, or drawn upon any person resident in India is considered an inland instrument.

82 If the indorser signs his name and adds a direction to pay the amount mentioned in the instrument to a specified person, the indorsement is said to be:(A) Indorsement in blank(B) Indorsement in full(C) Indorsement in part(D) Indorsement in specific2NIA Section 16 - Indorsement in "blank" and "in full".

83 " Every promissory note or bill of exchange which is not expressed to be payable on demand, at sight or on presentment is at maturity on the day after the day

on which it is expressed to be payable."5th(A) 15th(B) 30th(C) 3rd4On the 3rd day after the day on which it is expressed to be payable.

84 As per the provisions of section 2 of the Negotiable Instruments Act:(A) A minor may draw instrument so as to bind all parties including himself(B) A minor shall not draw instrument so as to bind any party(C) A minor may draw instrument so as to bind all parties except himself(D) A minor shall not indorse instruments3section 2 of the Negotiable Instruments Act.

85 In the case of a promissory note which is not negotiable:(A) Notice of dishonour is compulsory(B) No notice of dishonour is necessary(Q Negotiable Instrument Act is silent on this aspect(D) Indorsement is necessary2In case of dishonor of promissory note, no notice needs to be given. In case of dishonor of Bills of Exchange, notice needs to be given to all the parties by the holder of the instrument.

86 Section 100 of Negotiable Instruments Act deals with:(A) Protest(B) Noting(A) Notice(D) Charge1 Section 100 of Negotiable Instruments Act.

87 What is the retirement age (in years) of a High Court Judge?60) 6258652The retirement age for a High Court judge in India is 62 years, as per Article 217(1) of the Constitution.

88 ‘Evidence’ under Indian Evidence Act means:(A) Ocular evidence based on documents only(B) Documentary evidence(C) Ocular evidence(D) Both Ocular and documentary evidence4according to Section 3 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, evidence includes both oral and documentary evidence.

89 offences of same kind within 12 months can be charged together as per the provisions of Cr.P.C.(A) Three(B) Two(C) Five(D) Four1Section 219 of the CrPC asserts that when a person is accused of more than one offence, but not exceeding three of the same kind, and it is committed within 12 months.

90 Who is the present Comptroller and Auditor General of India?(A) Vinod Rai(B) Raghuram Rajan(C) Shashi Kant Sharma(D) Nasim Zaidi3 Shashi Kant Sharma.

91 " Under Section 9(2) of the Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act, 2011, all proceedings before the Rent Controller shall ordinarily conclude within from the date of first

appearance of the respondent in response to the summons issued for his appearance in the case."five months four monthseleven monthssix months4Section 9(2) of the Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act, 2011.

92 Schedule 4 of the Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act, 2011 provides for:(A) Tenant's Rights(B) Tenant's obligations(C) Landlord's obligations(D) Landlord's Rights2Schedule 4 of the Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act, 2011 .

93 Under Section 10 of the Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act, 2011 the Rent Control Tribunal has no power to:(A) Grant adjournment without written application(B) Review its decision(C) Bring legal representatives on record(D) Examine any person on oath1Section 10 of the Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act, 2011.

94 An Appeal from the order of Rent Controller under the Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act, 2011 lies with:(A) District Court(B) Rent Control Tribunal(C) High Court(D) Supreme Court2sec 13 Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act, 2011 .

95As per section of the Chhattisgarh Excise Act, 1915, nothing in the Chhattisgarh Excise Act, 1915 shall affect the provisions of certain Acts. Which Act is not included under the said provision of section ?(A) The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985(B) The Sea Customs Act, 1878(C) The Indian Traffic Act, 1894(D) Cantonment Act, 19101 The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985.

96 Under Section 7A of the Chhattisgarh Excise Act, 1915, the State Government is empowered to establish which authority for investigating into any case of alleged or suspected evasion of excise revenue?(A) Excise Commissioner(B) Chief revenue authority(C) Flying squads(D) Excise collector3Section 7A of the Chhattisgarh Excise Act, 1915.

97 Whoever assaults or obstructs any excise officer exercising powers under the Chhattisgarh Excise Act, 1915 is liable to be punished with imprisonment which may extend to or with fine which may extend to two thousand rupees.three years five yearsseven yearstwo years4imprisonment which may extend to two years.

98 Which of the following power is not vested with the appellate authority under section 49(3) of Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code?(A) Power to vary the order appealed against(A) Power to remand the case for disposal by Revenue Officer subordinate to it(B) Power to reverse the order appealed against(C) Power to take additional evidence2section 49(3) of Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code.

99 Who is not a revenue officer under Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code?(A) Settlement Officer.(B) Superintendents of Land Records(C) Naib Tahsildars(D) Panchayat Secretary4 Panchayat Secretary is not a revenue officer under Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code.

100 "No appeal shall lie, under the provisions of Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code, to the Board, after the expiration of days

from the date of the order to which objection is made." (A) 60 (B) 30 (C) 45 (D) 90 4 "According to section 47 of the Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code of 1959, no appeal can be filed to the Board after 90 days from the date of an order.

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