JAMMU AND KASHMIR PROSECUTING OFFICER
MOCK TEST-1
1. When did the Prevention of Corruption Act (PC Act), 1988 come into force?
a. 26th July 1988
b. 9th September 1988
c. 1st January 1989
d. 15th August 1947
2. A private citizen (non-public servant) is charged with conspiracy to bribe a public servant. The public servant has died and cannot be prosecuted. Can a Special Judge appointed under Section 3 try the private citizen alone?
a. No, because a Special Judge can only try a private citizen if a public servant is also being tried.
b. Yes, under Section 3(1)(b), conspiracy to commit an offence under the Act is an independent ground for the Special Judge’s jurisdiction.
c. No, the case must be transferred to a Judicial Magistrate First Class.
d. Only if the private citizen is also a government contractor.
3. Which Chapter of the Prevention of Corruption Act (PC Act), 1988 deals with "Appointment of Special Judges"?
a. Chapter I.
b. Chapter II.
c. Chapter III.
d. Chapter IV.
4. Section 18 of the Prevention of Corruption Act (PC Act), 1988 grants the power to inspect which of the following during investigation?
a. Income tax returns only.
b. Bankers' books.
c. Call data records.
d. Medical records of the accused.
5. Is the accused a competent witness for the defense under the Prevention of Corruption Act (PC Act), 1988?
a. No, due to the right against self-incrimination.
b. Yes, under Section 21, but only at their own request.
c. Yes, and the prosecution can force them to testify.
d. Only in cases involving disproportionate assets
6. Which section of the Prevention of Corruption Act (PC Act), 1988 allows a Special Judge to try an offence in a "Summary" manner?
a. Section 4.
b. Section 5.
c. Section 6.
d. Section 20
7. Which section of the UAPA provides the general punishment for participating in or inciting "unlawful activity"?
a. Section 10
b. Section 13
c. Section 15
d. Section 18
8. Where does the Unlawful Activities Prevention Act 1967 apply?
i. All of India
ii. All states except the state of Jammu and Kashmir
a. Only i
b. Only ii
c. Both i and ii
d. None of the above
9. According to Section 43D(5) of the UAPA, when can a court grant bail to an accused?
a. If the trial is not completed within one year.
b. Only if the court is of the opinion that there are reasonable grounds for believing the accusation is prima facie true.
c. Automatically after 90 days of detention.
d. Only if the Public Prosecutor gives written consent.
10. Which of the following statements regarding the disclosure of grounds under Section 3(2) of UAPA is legally accurate?
a. The notification must contain every specific piece of evidence relied upon by the government.
b. The Central Government has absolute immunity from disclosing any grounds to the public.
c. The notification must specify grounds, but the government can withhold specific facts if their disclosure is deemed contrary to public interest.
d. Grounds only need to be disclosed to the Tribunal, not in the Official Gazette.
11. If a terrorist act is committed but does NOT result in the death of any person, what is the minimum term of imprisonment under Section 16(1)(b) of UAPA?
a. 3 years
b. 5 years
c. 7 years
d. 10 years
12. To be admissible under Section 46 of UAPA, the interception of wire, electronic, or oral communication must have been carried out under which authority?
a. A private detective agency
b. The provisions of Section 5 of the Indian Telegraph Act, 1885, or any other law for the time being in force.
c. A verbal order from a Sub-Inspector.
d. The permission of the local Municipal Corporation.
13. Objection as to place of suing shall be allowed in the court of first instance is the essence of:
a. Section 21A of C.P.C.
b. Section 20 of C.P.C.
c. Section 22 of C.P.C.
d. Section 21 of C.P.C.
14. A foreign judgment, not covered by any of the exceptions, under Section 13 of C.P.C., shall be as to any matter thereby directly adjudicated upon between the same parties
a. Persuasive
b. Wholly irrelevant
c. Conclusive
d. Advisory
15. A suit under Order XXXVII of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, can be filed on the basis of
a. Hundi only
b. Bill of exchange only
c. Promissory note only
d. All of the above
16. An agreement entered into or compromise on behalf of a minor without the leave of the Court, under Order 32, Rule 7 of C.P.C. is
a. Valid
b. Void
c. Voidable against all the parties other than the minor
d. None of the above
17. The commission to make local investigation can be issued for the purposes of
1. Collecting evidence on a fact
2. Elucidating any matter in dispute
3. Ascertaining the amount of mesne profit
4. Ascertaining the market value of the property
Which of the above are correct?
Code:
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1, 2, 3 and 4
d. 1 and 2
18. A Corporation, under Section 20 of CPC, is deemed to carry on business at:
a. Its principle office in India
b. Its subordinate office in India
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of the above
19. Under Section 32 of CPC, to compel the attendance of a person to whom a summon has been issued under Section 30 of CPC, the Court is empowered to
a. Issue a warrant for his arrest
b. Attach and sell his property
c. Impose a fine not exceeding Rs. 5,000
d. Either (a) or (b) or (c)
20. Order XXIII of the Civil Procedure Code applies to the following:
a. Withdrawal of suits
b. Appeals
c. Execution proceeding
d. All the above
21. Under Order IV Rule 1, sub rule (1) of CPC, a suit is instituted when:
a. A copy of plaint is presented to the court
b. A plaint in duplicate is presented to the court
c. A plaint in triplicate is presented to the court
d. The court takes the plaint in consideration
22. Under Civil Procedure Code, in which of the following cases the Court cannot reject the plaint?
a. Where the relief claimed is undervalued, and the plaintiff, on being required by the court to correct the valuation within a time to be fixed by the Court, fails to do so.
b. Where the suit appears from the statement in the plaint to be barred by any law.
c. When the plaint is insufficiently stamped and the plaintiff on being required by the Court to supply the requisite stamp-paper within a time to be fixed by the court, fails to do so.
d. Where the plaint discloses a cause of action.
23. The rule of "Feeding the Grant by Estoppel" is found in which section of TPA, 1882 :
a. Section 35
b. Section 43
c. Section 52
d. Section 100
24. Under Section 106 of TPA, 1882 a notice to quit for a month-to-month lease must be of:
a. 7 days
b. 15 days
c. 30 days
d. 6 months
25. An "Onerous Gift" (Section 127 of TPA, 1882) is one where:
a. The donor is a minor
b. The property is burdened by obligations or debts
c. The property is very valuable
d. The gift is made to a charity
26. Section 17 of TPA, 1882 deals with "Direction for Accumulation." The maximum period for which income can be accumulated is:
a. 10 years
b. 18 years or the life of the transferor
c. 21 years
d. Forever
27. Under Section 58(f) of TPA, 1882 a "Mortgage by Deposit of Title Deeds" is also known as:
a. Simple Mortgage
b. English Mortgage
c. Equitable Mortgage
d. Anomalous Mortgage
28. The default interest rate payable under Section 63 and 63A of TPA, 1882 for improvements or accessions is:
a. 6%
b. 9%
c. 12%
d. 18%
29. 'A' enters into a contract to sell a house to 'B'. 'B' pays ₹5 Lakhs as earnest money. 'A' subsequently breaches the contract and refuses to sell. 'B' then transfers his rights to 'C' via a written instrument. Which of the following accurately describes the legal validity of this transfer under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?
a. The transfer of the right to recover the ₹5 Lakhs earnest money is valid as an actionable claim, but the transfer of the right to claim additional unliquidated damages for the breach is void.
b. Both the right to recover the earnest money and the right to claim damages are valid actionable claims and can be transferred together under Section 130.
c. The entire transfer is void because any claim arising from a contract involving immovable property must be registered as a non-testamentary instrument.
d. The right to recover the earnest money is a "mere right to sue" and cannot be transferred, while the claim for damages is an actionable claim.
30. A property is subject to three mortgages in order: M1, M2, and M3. 'X', a subsequent purchaser of the equity of redemption, pays off the first mortgage (M1) but does not take a formal registered agreement of subrogation. Later, a dispute arises with the holder of M2 who claims priority over 'X'. Under the provisions of the Transfer of Property Act, which statement accurately reflects 'X's rights?
a. 'X' can claim priority over M2 because 'X' is subrogated to the rights of M1 by operation of law under Section 92 TPA.
b. 'X' cannot claim priority because conventional subrogation requires a registered instrument to be valid against M2.
c. 'X' has extinguished the M1 mortgage and now stands in the place of the mortgagor, ranking subsequent to M2.
d. 'X' is only entitled to recover the amount paid for M1 but has no right of subrogation without a court decree.
31. Property is transferred to 'A' for life, then to 'B' if 'B' marries 'C', and if 'B' does not marry 'C', then to 'D'. While the life estate of 'A' is subsisting, 'B' marries 'C'. What is the legal status of the interests held by 'B' and 'D' at the moment of the marriage?
a. 'B' holds a vested interest which is now heritable, while 'D'’s interest is extinguished.
b. 'B' still holds a contingent interest because 'A' is still alive and possession has not passed.
c. 'B' holds a vested interest, but 'D' holds a 'Spes Successionis' which can still be realized if 'B' dies before 'A'.
d. Both 'B' and 'D' hold contingent interests until the death of 'A', as the termination of the prior estate is the primary condition
32. The "Residuary Article" UNDER LIMITATION ACT for suits not provided for elsewhere in the Schedule is:
a. Article 15
b. Article 65
c. Article 113
d. Article 137
33. A "Counter-claim" is deemed to have been instituted on the date:
a. The original suit was filed
b. The counter-claim is made in court
c. The defendant received the summons
d. The written statement was drafted
34. Easement rights against the Government require a period of:
a. 20 years
b. 30 years
c. 60 years
d. 12 years
35. Under Section 19, a fresh period of limitation begins from the time:
a. A debt is fully paid
b. A part-payment of debt or interest is made
c. A suit is filed
d. A notice is sent
36. Under Section 15 of LIMITATION ACT, the time during which an injunction or stay order was in force is:
a. Included
b. Excluded
c. Doubled
d. Halved
37. A plaintiff intends to file an appeal against a Civil Court decree. The judgment was pronounced on March 1, 2025. The plaintiff applied for a certified copy on March 5, 2025, and it was ready for delivery on March 15, 2025. The plaintiff collected the copy on March 20, 2025. When calculating the limitation period for the appeal under the Limitation Act, 1963, which dates would be excluded, and under which section?
a. The period from March 1, 2025, to March 15, 2025, is excluded under Section 5.
b. The period from March 5, 2025, to March 15, 2025, is mandatorily excluded under Section 12(2).
c. Only the date of the judgment (March 1, 2025) and the collection date (March 20, 2025) are excluded under Section 12(1) and 12(2) respectively.
d. The entire period from March 1, 2025, to March 20, 2025, can be excluded if "sufficient cause" is shown under Section 14.
38. When did the POCSO Act, 2012 come into force?
a. 1st April 2012
b. 14th November 2012
c. 15th August 2012
d. 26th January 2013
39. Under Section 2(d) of the POCSO Act, a "child" is defined as any person below the age of:
a. 14 years
b. 16 years
c. 18 years
d. 21 years
40. The POCSO Act is described as "gender-neutral" because:
a. It only protects female children.
b. It applies to both male and female children as victims.
c. Only men can be offenders.
d. It does not recognize gender at all
41. Special Courts for trial of offences under POCSO are designated under:
a. Section 25
b. Section 28
c. Section 30
d. Section 32
42. Under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, a Special Court took cognizance of a case on January 1, 2025. Due to the unavailability of the public prosecutor, the child's evidence was not recorded by February 1, 2025. Which of the following statements is legally accurate regarding this situation?
a. The trial must be dismissed due to exceeding the mandatory 30-day limit for recording evidence.
b. The court has acted lawfully, as a 15-day grace period is allowed for unforeseen administrative delays.
c. The court must record the specific reasons for the delay in writing, as the 30-day period has elapsed.
d. The court can proceed without recording reasons, as the delay was due to the public prosecutor's schedule, not the court's actions.
43. In light of Sections 23 and 33(7) of the POCSO Act, 2012, which of the following scenarios constitutes a permissible disclosure of a child victim's identity?
a. A media outlet publishes the child's photograph after obtaining written consent from the child's parents, as they believe public awareness will help find the perpetrator.
b. The Special Court permits disclosure via a written order, explicitly stating that revealing the child's school name is necessary to ensure the child’s best interest.
c. A police officer records the child's identity in the public FIR to ensure the case is properly tracked by administrative records.
d. A social welfare organization publishes the child’s neighborhood details in a community safety report to warn other parents of potential risks.
44. Scenario: An individual creates a website that looks identical to a popular bank's login page. They send emails to thousands of users, tricking them into entering their passwords. They use these passwords to transfer funds to various accounts.
Question: Which specific section, introduced via the 2008 Amendment, would most directly apply to the "cheating by personation" aspect of this crime?
a. Section 66B
b. Section 66C
c. Section 66D
d. Section 67
45. Which section provides legal recognition for "Electronic Records" of Information Technology Act, 2000?
a. Section 3
b. Section 4
c. Section 5
d. Section 6
46. Which section deals with "Cyber Terrorism" and provides for life imprisonment?
a. Section 66C
b. Section 66E
c. Section 66F
d. Section 70
47. What is the time limit to file an appeal in the High Court against an order of the Appellate Tribunal under the Information Technology Act, 2000?
a. 30 days
b. 45 days
c. 60 days
d. 90 days
48. Which landmark case led the Supreme Court to strike down Section 66A of Information Technology Act, 2000?
a. Mphasis BPO Fraud Case
b. Shreya Singhal v. Union of India
c. Syed Asifuddin Case
d. K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India
49. Punishment for "Violation of Privacy" is covered under which section of Information Technology Act, 2000:
a. Section 66C
b. Section 66E
c. Section 67A
d. Section 72
50. The NDPS Act extends to:
a. Only Union Territories
b. Whole of India
c. Whole of India and Indian citizens outside India
d. Only North-Indian States
51. Which section of the NDPS Act defines "Cannabis (hemp)"?
a. Section 2(i)
b. Section 2(iii)
c. Section 2(v)
d. Section 2(vii)
52. Under the NDPS Act, "Small Quantity" and "Commercial Quantity" are defined based on notifications issued by:
a. The State Government
b. The Central Government
c. The Narcotics Control Bureau
d. The Supreme Court
53. Section 8 of the NDPS Act prohibits which of the following activities?
a. Cultivation of opium poppy
b. Sale and purchase of psychotropic substances
c. Export and import of narcotic drugs
d. All of the above
54. Punishment for the consumption of any narcotic drug or psychotropic substance is provided under which section?
a. Section 20
b. Section 25
c. Section 27
d. Section 30
55. Under Section 37 of NDPS, what are the "twin conditions" for granting bail in cases involving commercial quantities?
a. Accused must be a first-time offender and provide heavy surety.
b. Opportunity for Public Prosecutor to oppose and court's satisfaction of "reasonable grounds" that accused is not guilty and unlikely to reoffend.
c. Medical emergency and no flight risk.
d. Investigating officer’s consent and 180 days of custody completion.
56. Which of the following statements regarding the 'Basic Structure' doctrine is/are correct?
1. It was first explicitly propounded in the Golaknath case.
2. It limits the constituent power of Parliament under Article 368.
3. The Supreme Court has defined "Basic Structure" in the 42nd Amendment Act.
Options:
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
57. In the context of Article 31C, which statement holds true after the Minerva Mills (1980) judgment?
a. All Directive Principles take precedence over Fundamental Rights.
b. Only Articles 39(b) and 39(c) can override Articles 14 and 19.
c. Article 31C was completely struck down as it violated Judicial Review.
d. Directive Principles are superior to Fundamental Rights in case of a conflict.
58. Under the Indian Constitution, the "Doctrine of Pith and Substance" is primarily used to:
a. Determine the validity of a law that encroaches on the legislative sphere of another.
b. Ensure that the executive does not exercise legislative powers.
c. Interpret the Preamble in light of the Directive Principles.
d. Protect the fundamental rights from being abridged by retrospective laws.
59. Consider the following regarding the 'Office of Profit':
1. It is defined in the Constitution of India.
2. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification.
3. The power to decide on disqualification lies with the President, whose decision is final after obtaining the opinion of the Election Commission.
Options:
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
60. The 'Writ of Quo-Warranto' can be issued against:
a. A lower court exceeding its jurisdiction.
b. A private individual holding a private office.
c. A person holding a substantive public office of a permanent character created by statute or Constitution.
d. The government
61. Which of the following is NOT a ground for the Proclamation of a National Emergency under Article 352?
a. War
b. External Aggression
c. Armed Rebellion
d. Internal Disturbance
62. Regarding the 'Governor’s power to reserve a Bill for the President', which is correct?
a. It is a discretionary power.
b. It is mandatory if the bill endangers the position of the State High Court.
c. The President can return a Money Bill for reconsideration.
d. Both a and b.
63. The 10th Schedule (Anti-Defection Law) does not apply in which of the following cases?
a. If a member voluntarily gives up membership of the party.
b. If a member votes against party directions and it is condoned within 15 days.
c. If an independent candidate joins a political party after election.
d. If a nominated member joins a party after 6 months.
64. In S.R. Bommai v. Union of India, the Supreme Court held that:
a. Secularism is a part of the Basic Structure.
b. The President's Proclamation under Article 356 is beyond judicial review.
c. The State Assembly should be dissolved immediately upon the proclamation.
d. A floor test is not necessary to prove majority.
65. Which Article of the Constitution empowers the Supreme Court to pass such decree or order as is necessary for doing "complete justice"?
a. Article 131
b. Article 137
c. Article 141
d. Article 142
66. Section 107 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 deals with abetment of suicide for specific vulnerable individuals. Which group is covered?
a. Under 18 years
b. Mentally ill
c. Delirious or intoxicated
d. All of the above
67. Which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 deals with punishment of dowry death?
a. Section 79
b. Section 80(1)
c. Section 80(2)
d. None of the above
68. A falsely informs a public servant that Z has contraband salt in a secret place, knowing such information to be false, and knowing that it is likely that the consequence of the information will be a search of Z’s premises, attended with annoyance to Z. A has committed the offence under which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
a. Section 218
b. Section 215
c. Section 216
d. Section 217
69. Which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 deal with “Sale of drug as a different drug or preparation”?
a. Section 151
b. Section 268
c. Section 278
d. Section 260
70. What is the offence under Section 228 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
a. Threatening a witness
b. Giving false evidence verbally
c. Creating a false entry in a record to be used as evidence
d. Obstructing a public servant
71. As per Section 197 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, publishing imputations that certain groups cannot be loyal to the Constitution is considered prejudicial to:
a. Public order
b. National integration
c. Religious sentiments
d. Individual liberty
72. Under which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 “Fraudulently intention" has been defined as "doing anything with the intention to defraud but not otherwise"?
a. Section 2(4)
b. Section 2(5)
c. Section 2(8)
d. Section 2(9)
73. Which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 deals with Cohabitation caused by man deceitfully inducing belief of lawful marriage?
a. Section 80
b. Section 82
c. Section 81
d. Section 84
74. A enters a passenger train, which qualifies as a transport vehicle under the BNS. A finds an unattended bag and dishonestly moves it with the intention of taking it. What offense has A committed?
a. Simple theft under Section 303.
b. Theft in a dwelling house, transport vehicle, or place of worship under Section 305.
c. Criminal trespass with the intent to commit theft.
d. Petty organized crime if it is part of a series of similar acts.
75. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, criminal conspiracy is defined in which section?
a. Section 45
b. Section 50
c. Section 61
d. Section 106
76. Which courts have the authority to direct a Magistrate to levy the amount due on a bond for appearance or attendance under Section 496 of the BNSS, 2023?
a. Any court in the Sessions division.
b. The High Court or Court of Session.
c. Only the High Court.
d. The Magistrate's court itself.
77. Under Section 420 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, an accused person can appeal to the Supreme Court if the High Court has reversed an acquittal and imposed a sentence of:
a. Life imprisonment
b. Imprisonment for a term of ten years or more.
c. The death penalty.
d. All of the above.
78. In a rape trial conducted in camera, can any person be allowed to remain in the courtroom?
a. No, no one is ever allowed inside.
b. Yes, if the presiding Judge thinks fit or upon an application by either party.
c. Yes, but only with the consent of both the victim and the accused.
d. Yes, if the person is a relative of the victim.
79. Under Section 239 of the BNSS, a court can alter or add to any charge. When can this power be exercised?
a. Only before the commencement of the trial.
b. At any time before the judgment is pronounced.
c. Only with the consent of the accused.
d. Within 30 days of the commencement of the trial.
80. Under the BNSS, the maximum duration for which an investigation for an offence punishable with less than 10 years of imprisonment must be completed is:
a. 30 days, extendable by a magistrate to 60 days.
b. 60 days, after which the accused may be entitled to default bail.
c. 90 days, after which the accused may be entitled to default bail.
d. 180 days, after which the accused may be entitled to default bail.
81. Which provision of BNSS, 2023 deals with “Power to postpone or adjourn proceedings”?
a. Section 342
b. Section 346
c. Section 344
d. Section 345
82. Which court can hear an appeal from a person convicted by a Sessions Judge or an Additional Sessions Judge under Section 415(2) of the BNSS?
a. The Supreme Court
b. The High Court
c. The Chief Judicial Magistrate
d. The District Magistrate
83. As per Section 301 of BNSS, for the purposes of Chapter XXIV, what does the term "prison" include?
a. Only Central jails.
b. Any reformatory, Borstal institution, or other similar institution.
c. Only jails designated by the Central Government.
d. Only high-security prisons.
84. When the person summoned cannot, by the exercise of due diligence, be found, which section of the BNSS allows for service by leaving the duplicate summons with an adult male or female member of their family residing with them?
a. Section 61
b. Section 64
c. Section 66
d. Section 70
85. Chapter V of the BNSS primarily deals with which aspect of the criminal procedure?
a. Filing appeals in the High Court
b. Arrest of persons
c. Transfer of criminal cases
d. Recording of confessions by magistrates
86. What does Section 530 of The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 primarily authorize?
a. The introduction of plea bargaining in criminal cases.
b. The mandatory physical attendance of the accused in all court proceedings.
c. The conducting of trials and proceedings through electronic means, like video conferencing.
d. The granting of special powers to police officers for making arrests without a warrant.
87. Under the BNSS, a magistrate can authorize police custody for an accused person. Which statement accurately describes the police custody provisions?
a. Police custody of up to 15 days must be taken in a single, continuous block.
b. The total police custody period can be up to 60 or 90 days, depending on the offence, but the 15-day limit applies for police interrogation.
c. The 15-day period for police custody can be spread out across the first 40 or 60 days of the total detention period.
d. The total police custody period cannot exceed 15 days under any circumstances.
88. The BNSS mandates a forensic expert's visit to the crime scene in specific cases. For which category of offences is this mandatory?
a. All criminal offences, regardless of the punishment.
b. Offences punishable with imprisonment of less than 7 years.
c. Offences punishable with imprisonment of 7 years or more.
d. Only in cases where there is a request from the victim's family.
89. In the landmark case of Pakala Narayana Swami v. Emperor, what principle was clarified regarding dying declarations?
a. Dying declarations can only be oral.
b. The declarant must be a police officer.
c. The statement must explain the transaction that resulted in death.
d. Dying declarations are inadmissible in criminal cases.
90. According to Section 3 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, evidence can be given for which of the following?
a. Only facts in issue.
b. Only relevant facts.
c. Both facts in issue and relevant facts.
d. Any fact, whether relevant or not.
91. According to Section 8 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, what is considered relevant in a legal proceeding?
a. Only the existence of a conspiracy
b. Only the overt acts of the conspirators
c. Only the common intention of the conspirators
d. Anything said or done by a conspirator
92. Section 117 of the BSA, 2023, creates a presumption regarding dowry death. This presumption states that if a married woman dies under suspicious circumstances within seven years of her marriage, and it is shown that she was subjected to cruelty by her husband or his relatives, the court:
a. Shall presume that the husband or relatives did not cause her death.
b. May presume that the husband or relatives caused her death.
c. Shall presume that the husband or relatives caused her death.
d. May call for additional evidence before making any presumption.
93. Which provision of BSA, 2023 deals with “Exclusion of evidence to explain or amend ambiguous document”?
a. Section 95
b. Section 96
c. Section 97
d. Section 94
94. What is "Primary Evidence" as defined in Section 57 of the BSA?
a. Copies of the original document.
b. The document itself produced for the inspection of the Court.
c. Oral accounts of the document's contents.
d. Electronic records that are not the original.
95. Under the BSA, what is the best evidence rule related to?
a. Producing any evidence as long as it's relevant
b. Producing the original document unless circumstances prevent it
c. Only oral evidence is considered the best evidence
d. Secondary evidence is always preferred over primary evidence
96. What is the rule regarding the competency of an accomplice as a witness under the BSA?
a. An accomplice is not a competent witness against the accused.
b. An accomplice is a competent witness against the accused person.
c. An accomplice can only testify with the permission of the court.
d. An accomplice can only testify in civil cases.
97. What does the term "conclusive proof" mean under the BSA?
a. A fact is presumed true but can be disproved.
b. A fact is proved, and no evidence can be given to disprove it.
c. A fact is not proved or disproved.
d. A fact may be considered as proved.
98. Under Section 32 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, for a statement of law in a book to be relevant, it must purport to be:
a. Printed by a private publisher
b. Published under the authority of the government
c. A personal opinion of an expert
d. All of the above
99. A final judgment, order, or decree of a competent court is relevant under Section 35 of BSA, 2023 if it is passed in the exercise of which of the following jurisdictions?
a. Probate
b. Matrimonial
c. Insolvency
d. All of the above
100. Section 356 of the BNSS allows for the trial and judgment of a “proclaimed offender.” For such a trial to proceed in the absence of the accused, what is the mandatory timeline?
a. It can begin immediately after the person is declared a proclaimed offender.
b. It can only start 90 days after the framing of charges if there is no prospect of immediate arrest.
c. It requires a special certificate from the State Government confirming the person has fled the country.
d. It is only permitted for offences punishable with death or life imprisonment.
