Previous Year Question Papers · Uttarakhand Judicial Service Examination, 2022

Uttarakhand Judicial Service Examination, 2022

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1. Which Article of the UN Charter relates to Domestic Jurisdiction?

(a) Article 23

(b) Article 51

(d) Article 72

2. International Finance Corporation (IFC) comprises of

(a) Board of Governors

(b) Board of Directors

(d) All of the above

3. Uttarakhand Day or State Foundation Day is celebrated on

(a) November 10

(b) November 09

(d) November

4. As per Insurance (Amendment) Act, 2021 the FDI ceiling limit in the insurance sector has been

(a) Increased from 50% to 85%

(b) Decreased from 85% to 54%

(d) Decreased from 49% to 34%

5. Appointment of retired High Court Judges at the sittings of High Courts is provided in Constitution of India, under :-

(a) Article 224A

(b) Article 224

(d) Article 223

6. Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Act. 2019, came into effect from which date?

(a) 31 July, 2019

(b) 19 August, 2018

(d) 19 September, 2018

7. Who was the first Woman Judge in the Supreme Court of India?

(a) Indira Banerjee

(b) Nagarathna

(d) Indu Malhotra

8. Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) Vs Union of India case was decided by how many judges?

(a) 5 Judges

(b) 9 Judges.

(d) 11 Judges

9. By which Constitution Amendment. Clause (k) to Article 51A was added?

(a) The Constitution (86th Amendment) Act, 2002

(b) The Constitution (42nd Amendment) Act, 1976

(d) The Constitution (93rd Amendment) Act, 2005

10. The Highest Civilian Award. 'Bharat Ratna was instituted in the year

(a) 2005

(b) 1954

(d) 1950

11.Who among the following is not the ex-ponent of 'Dualism Theory'?

(a) Triepel

(b) Anzilloti

(d) Duguit.

12. Which one of the following is 1st leading case decided by Supreme Court on delegated legislation after the Constitution came into force?

(a) Re-Delhi Laws Act, 1912

(b) Jatindra Nath Gupta V Province of Bihar

(d) Raj Narayan Singh V. Patria Administration Committee Series

13. Who was the first Attorney General for India?

(a) M.C. Seetalvad

(b) M.H. Kania

(d) K.K. Venugopal

14. The term 'Embargo' of International Law is of which origin?

(a) Latin origin

(b) English origin

(d) Spanish origin

15. Who coined the term 'International Law?

(a) Oppenheim

(b) J.L. Brierly

(d) B.L. Kapoor

16. Who was the first Speaker of Loksabha?

(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(b) G.V. Mavalankar

(d) Dr. Zakir Hussain

17. Which State government recently decided that no 'Gorkha' citizen will be prosecuted under the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 1955?

(a) Assam

(b) Manipur

(d) Nagaland

18. Andaman and Nicobar Islands come under the jurisdiction of which of the following High Court?

(a) Delhi High Court

(b) Goa High Court

(d) Madras High Court

19. In which of the following case the 'Public Trust' doctrine was mentioned by the Supreme Court of India?

(a) Vishakha V State of Rajasthan

(b) D.K. Basu V State of West Bengal

(d) M.C. Mehta V Kamal Nath

20. Which one of the following provision of the Constitution of India imposes duty on the state to preserve and protect the environment?

(a) Article 50

(b) Article 48A

(d) Article 40

21. By virtue of which of the following Article the Constitution may be called The Constitution of India"?

(a) Article 393

(b) Article 390

(d) Article 101

22. Which of the following features of the Indian Constitution has been borrowed from the Irish Constitution?

(a) Post of Prime Minister

(b) Fundamental Duties

(d) Directive Principles of State Policy

23. Who was the first Education Minister of India ?

(a) Kalu Lal Shrimali

(b) Humayun Kabir

(d) M.C. Chhagla

24.Who was the first Chief Justice of India

(a) Justice M.C. Mahajan

(b) Justice HJ. Kania

(d) Justice A.K. Sarkar

25. UN Commission on Human Rights' was replaced by

(a) Human Rights Committee

(b) Human Rights Council

(d) None of the above

26. Where the headquarter of 'International Commission of Jurists' is located?

(a) Geneva

(b) Rome

(d) London

27. Who was the first Law Minister of India?

(a) Sardar Patel

(b) K.M. Munshi

(d) None of these

28. Which specific Article of the Constitution of India makes the provision of the "General Clauses Act, 1897 applicable for interpretation of the Constitution?

(a) Article 366

(b) Article 367

(d) Article 372

29. Who said that "International Law is the vanishing point of jurisprudence"?

(a) Kelson

(b) Black-Stone

(d) Holland Which Union

30. Territory was merged into the other in the year 2020?

(a) Daman and Diu with Dadar and Nagar Haveli

(b) J & K with Leh

(d) Puducherry with Dadar and Nagar Haveli

31. Which Union Territory has been added by the Act of 2019?

(a) Chandigarh

(b) Delhi

(d) Puducherry

32. Which state of the following has High Court of its own?

(a) Arunachal Pradesh

(b) Assam

(d) Mizoram

33. Which is the biggest High Court in India ?

(a) Punjab & Haryana

(b) Uttarakhand

(d) Allahabad

34. How many High Courts are in India?

(a) 28

(b) 29

(d) 27

35. The Lokpal and Lokayukta Act came into force in the year:

(a) 2014

(b) 2021

(d) 2013

36. Universal Declaration of Human Rights was adopted by United National General Assembly on

(a) 10th December, 1947

(b) 15th December, 1948

(d) 20th December, 1947

37. World Trade Organization (WTO) was established on

(a) 10th January, 1994

(b) 15th January, 1997

(d) 1st January, 1995

38. The tenure of the judges of the International Court of Justice is

(a) 5 years

(b) 6 years

(d) 9 years

39. The headquarter of UNESCO is located in

(a) Hague

(b) Paris

(d) New Delhi

40. Total number of members of European Union are ?

(a) 28

(b) 25

(d) 30

41. The Surrogacy (Regulation) Act, 2021 has received the assent of the President

(a) 24th December, 2021

(b) 25th November, 2021

(d) 25th December, 2021

42. Which of the following is a series of military tribunal held following World War Il by the allied forces under International Law and Law of War?

(a) Neuremberg Trials

(b) Tokyo Trials

(d) Peleus Trial

43. In which of the following cases, it was held that "right not to be deported' is concomitant to Article 19 and available only to Indian Citizens?

(a) B.K. Pavitra & others V Union of India

(b) Joseph Shine V Union of India

(d) Shayara Bano V Union of India

44. Usha Rao Monari of India was ap- pointed as Under Secretary General and Associate Administrator of which agency of United Nations in 2021?

(a) UNEP

(b) UNDP

(d) UNESCO

45. Who among the following represented India at International Court of Justice in the case of Kulbbusban Jadhav ?

(a) Advocate Soli Sorabjoe

(b) Advocate Ashok Desai

(d) Advocate Harish Salve

46. Which Section of the Surrogacy (Regulation) Act, 2021 defines the term "Commercial Surrogacy"?

(a) Section 2(g)

(b) Section 2(a)

(d) Section 2(1)

47. In India total States and Union Territories are

(a) 29 States and 7 Union Territories

(b) 28 States and 8 Union Territories

(d) 30 States and 8 Union Territories

48. Which of the Constitutional Amendment Act lowered the voting age of elections from 21 years to 18 years by amending Article 326?

(a) 41st Amendment

(b) 615 Amendment

(d) 42nd Amendment

49. Who was elected as the temporary President of the Constituent Assembly?

(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

(b) PL. Jawahar Lal Nehru

(d) Dr. Sachchidanand Sinha

50. The eleventh schedule of the Constitution of India provides for

(a) Election

(b) Reorganization of J&K com

(d) Languages

PART 2 (LAW)

51. The punishment for ‘Gang Rape’ as provided under section 376D of Indian Penal Code, 1860 is:

(A) Rigorous imprisonment which will be not less than 20 years but it may be extended upto life imprisonment,

(B) Death sentence

(D) Rigorous imprisonment which will be not less than 10 years but it may extended upto life imprisonment.

52. In which one of the following cases section 303 of the Indian Penal Code, I860 was declared unconstitutional?

(A) R v. Govinda

(B) D.K. Sharma v. State of M.P.

(D) Mithu v. State of Punjab

53. ‘A’ offers bribe to ‘B’ who is a public servant. ‘B’ refuses to accept the bribe. ‘A’ is punishable in IPC under:

(A) Section 114

(B) Section 116

(D) Section 109

54. Provision relating to harbouring deserter has been prescribed under Indian Penal Code in

(A) Section 131

(B) Section 135

(D) Section 137

55. ‘A’ puts jewels into a box belonging to ‘Z’, with the intention that they may be found in that box, and that this circumstance may cause ‘Z’ to be committed of theft. ‘A’ has committed the offence of

(A) Fabricated false evidence

(B) Theft

(D) None of these

56. Negligent act likely to spread infection of disease dangerous to life is prescribed in IPC under:

(A) Section 268

(B) Section 271

(D) Section 269

57. ’Life’ is defined in Indian Penal Code under:

(A) Section 44

(B) Section 45

(D) Section 50

58. Section 41 of the Indian Penal Code prescribes definition of

(A) Special Law

(B) Local Law

(D) Harbour

59. ‘A’ instigates ‘B’ to instigate ‘C’ to murder ‘Z’. ‘B’ accordingly instigates ‘C’ to murder ‘Z’ and thereby ‘C’ commits the offence on such instigation. Who shall be guilty for committing the offence of murder?

(A) Only 'C'

(B) Only 'B' and 'C'

(D) All 'A', 'B' and 'C'

60. Which one of the following is essential ingredient for the offence of theft under section of 378 of IPC?

(A) Fraudulently

(B) Dishonestly

(D) Maliciously

61. How many types of punishments have been mentioned under section 53 of Indian Penal Code, 1860?

(A) Six

(B) Four

(D) Seven

62. A by pleading as diamonds articles which he knows are not diamonds, intentionally deceives ‘Z’, and thereby dishonestly induces ‘Z’ to lend money. What offence has been committed by ‘A’ under Indian Penal Code?

(A) Theft

(B) Cheating

(D) Criminal Breach of Trust

63. Section 489A of the Indian Penal Code is related to

(A) Making false mark upon any receptacle containing goods

(B) Property mark

(D) Counterfeiting currency notes or bank notes

64. ‘A’ makes an attempt to pick the pocket of ‘Z’ by thrusting his hands into ‘Z’s pockets. ‘A’ fails in the attempt in consequence of ‘Z’s having nothing in his pocket. ‘A’ is guilty of

(A) Attempt to commit theft

(B) Attempt to commit trespass

(D) None of these

65. Representative suit is dealt in CPC under:

(A) Order I, rule 6

(B) Order I rule 7

(D) Order I, rule 9

66. Rule of Set-off under CPC is dealt with under

(A) Order VII, rule 6

(B) Order VIII, rule 6

(D) Order VIII, rule 7

67. Pleading means

(i) Plaint

(ii) Written statement

(iii) Documentary evidence

(iv) Statement of witness

Choose the correct option:

(A) (i) and (ii)

(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(D) None of the above ' ’

68. Defendant may apply for setting aside ex- parte decree under the Civil Procedure Code:

(A) Order VII, rule 13

(B) Order IX, rule 13

(D) Order XI, rule 13

69. Res Judicata bars:

(A) Filing of Appeal

(B) Continuation of Suit

(D) Institution of Suit

70. Which of the following section of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 defines "Judge"?

(A) Section 2(8)

(B) Section 2(4)

(D) Section 2(12)

71. What is a cheque upon a banker under the Indian Penal Code?

(A) Document

(B) Counterfeit

(D) None of these

72. Section 22 of the Indian Penal Code prescribes

(A) Wrongful gain

(B) Wrongful loss

(D) Movable property

73. ‘Court of Justice’ is defined in Indian Penal Code under:

(A) Section 19

(B) Section 21

(D) Section 22

74. In Civil Procedure Code the appointment of ‘Receiver’ has been dealt with

(A) Under Order XLIV

(B) Under Order XL

(D) Under Order XLV

75. The provision for substituted service of summons on defendant(s) has been made under:

(A) Order V, rule 20 of CPC

(B) Order V, rule 19A of CPC

(D) Order V, rule 21 of CPC

76. Which one of the following is based upon doctrine of equity?

(A) Res Judicata

(B) Res Subjudice

(D) Estoppel

77. Principle of Res-Judicata is:

(A) Mandatory

(B) Directory

(D) Optional

78. By whom a decree can be executed?

(A) By Collector

(B) By District Judge

(D) By Tehsildar

79. A decree may be

(A) Preliminary

(B) Final

(D) All of the above

80. A suit regarding immovable property may be instituted in a court in whose jurisdiction:

(A) Defendant resides

(B) Property is situated

(D) All of these

81. Production of Shop-book is prescribed in Civil Procedure Code under:

(A) Order VII, rule 17

(B) Order VII, rule 11

(D) Order VII, rule 12

82. Order VIII, rule 1 of the Civil Procedure Code is related to

(A) Denial to be specific

(B) Written statement

(D) New ground of defence

83. Which of the following under Civil Procedure Code is the duty of Appellate Court?

(A) Duty to appreciate evidence

(B) Duty to decide appeal finally

(D) All of these

84. Under Civil Procedure Code the Court may issue a Commission:

(A) To examine any person

(B) To make local investigation

(D) All of these

85. Meaning of Garnishee under Civil Procedure Code:

(A) Creditor's debtor

(B) Debtor's debtor

(D) None of the above

86. Direction for accumulation of income from transfer of property is valid till:

(i) Life of the transferor

(ii) Life of the transferee

(iii) Eighteen years from the date of transfer

(iv) Twenty years from the date of transfer

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(B) (i) and (iii)

(D) (i), (ii) and (iv)

87. If the donee dies before acceptance of the gift, the gift is

(A) Valid

(B) Void

(D) None of these

88. Which of the following instruments have been excluded by application of section 137 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?

(A) Shares only

(B) Bills of Exchange only

(D) Neither (A) nor (B)

89. Under Transfer of Property Act, 1882, Vested interest is:

(A) Defeated by the death of the transferor

(B) Defeated by the death of the transferee

(D) None of these

90. Which one of the following is included in immovable property?

(A) Trees and shrubs rooted in earth

(B) Growing crops

(D) Standing timber

91. A lets a farm to B on condition that he shall walk a hundred miles in an hour. The lease is

(A) Valid?

(B) Voidable

(D) None of these

92. Under section 3 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 ‘Immovable Property1 does not include:

(A) Standing Timber

(B) Land

(D) Machinery, permanently attached to earth

93. Section 52 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 deals with

(A) Fraudulent transfer

(B) Lis pendens

(D) Part performance

94. The Transfer of Property Act, 1882 came into force on

(A) 17th February, 1882

(B) 17th March, 1882

(D) 1st July, 1882

95. Section 63 of the Transfer of Property Act is related to

(A) Right to inspection and production of documents

(B) Redemption of portion of mortgaged property

(D) Right of mortgagor to redeem

96. Which Section of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 talks about restitution of conjugal rights?

(A) Section 8

(B) Section 10

(D) Section 9

97. Who amongst the following is not ‘Hindu’ within the meaning of section 2 of ‘Hindu Marriage Act, 1955’?

(A) Buddhist

(B) Parsi

(D) Sikh

98. Under section 13 of the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956, what is the paramount consideration in the appointment or declaring a guardian of a ‘Hindu’ Minor?

(A) Property of minor

(B) Property of guardian

(D) Education of minor

99; The author of ‘Dayabhaga’ was

(A) Jimutavahana

(B) Vijnaneshwara

(D) Narada

100. ‘Mitakshara’ is a commentary on

(A) Manusmriti

(B) Parashara Smriti

(D) Yajnavalkya Smriti

101. Pregnancy of a girl at the time of her marriage under the ’Hindu Marriage Act, 1955‘:

(A) will not effect the marriage,

(B) will be a ground for making the marriage as voidable

(D) will make the marriage ipso facto invalid

102. What property may not be transferred under section 6 of the Transfer of Property Act?

(A) Stipends allowed to military

(B) A right to future maintenance

(D) All of these

103. Transfer of property for the benefit of an unborn person made directly is

(A) Valid

(B) Void

(D) A good and a foresighted move

104. Which is not an actionable claim?

(A) Mesne profits

(B) Right to claim insured amount from LIC

(D) Right to take share or accounts of a dissolved firm

105. Which section of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 provides for registration of Hindu Marriages?

(A) Section 7

(B) Section 8

(D) Section 11

106. Under which section of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, customary divorce is saved?

(A) Section 13B

(B) Section 16

(D) Section 29(2)

107. Under the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956, a child to be adopted should not have, in the absence of a valid custom, completed the age of

(A) 8 years

(B) 10 years

(D) 12 years

108. Who is the natural guardian of a Hindu minor Married girl under Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act 1956?

(A) Husband

(B) Mother

(D) Father

109. As per Hindu law, who among the following is not entitled for maintenance?

(A) Divorced wife

(B) Judicial separated wife

(D) All of these

110. In the context of Hindu Succession Act, 1956, in which of the following case Supreme Court of India held that ‘daughters are of a life time and not just after 2005?

(A) Satya v. Sushila

(B) Vineeta Sharma v. Rakesh Sharma

(D) Pushpu v. Archana

111. Status of Legitimacy in Hindu Law is recognized for

(A) Children of valid marriage

(B) Children of voidable marriage

(D) All of these

112. Under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, the marriage of a minor is

(A) Valid

(B) Void

(D) None of these

113. Which of the following grounds is available to a wife only to seek divorce under section 13(2) of the ‘Hindu Marriage Act, 1955‘?

(A) Apostasy

(B) Desertion

(D) Committing of offence of unnatural intercourse by husband

114. Under Hindu Succession Act, 1956, if a Hindu male dies leaving behind more than one widow:

(A) All the widows together will get one share equal to that of other class I heirs.

(B) Each widow will get one share equal to that of other class I heirs.

(D) All the widows will be entitled only to maintenance.

115. Russel v. Russel is related to which of the following matter in ‘Hindu Law’?

(A) Desertion

(B) Cruelty

(D) Leprosy

116. Which one of the following section of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 provides that proceedings shall be conducted in camera?

(A) Section 22

(B) Section 21

(D) Section 21B

117. The Sunni Law does not recognise

(A) Sahi (Valid) Marriage

(B) Muta (Temporary) Marriage

(D) Batil (Void) Marriage

118. A Muslim male already having four wives, has contracted a fifth marriage. This fifth marriage is

(A) Valid

(B) Voidable

(D) Irregular

119. According to section 4 of the Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939, apostasy from Islam of a Muslim wife:

(A) will dissolve her marriage ipso facto

(B) will not dissolve her marriage ipso facto

(D) dissolves her marriage, but she does not lose her claim of Mehr

120. Which one of the following is not essential for a Valid Hiba (gift) under the Muslim Law?

(A) Declaration of gift

(B) Acceptance of gift

(D) Written documentary proof of the gift

121. A Muslim female can perform a valid marriage with non-Muslim under

(A) Special Marriage Act, 1954.

(B) Hindu Marriage Act, 1955

(D) Christian Marriage Act, 1872

122. Who is disentitled to dispose of property of a Hindu minor under section 11 of the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956?

(A) De facto Guardian

(B) De jure Guardian

(D) Guardian appointed by Court

123. Under section 21 of the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act 1956, word 'dependent means:

(A) Father only

(B) Mother only

(D) All of these

124. The Dattaka Mimansa and Dattaka Chandrika are related to

(A) Joint family & Coparcenary

(B) Succession

(D) Guardianship

125. Which one of the following is not the valid object of Waqf under Muslim Law?

(A) Celebrating the birth of Ali Murtaza

(B) Grant to an Idgah

(D) A waqf in favour of utter strangers

126. The maximum shares of mother and widow under Sunni Law of inheritance may be

(a) 1/3 and 1/4

(b) 1/6 and 1/2

(d) 1/8 and 1/2

127. Who is natural guardian of the property of a minor under Muslim Law?

(A) Brother

(B) Mother

(D) Uncle

128. A marriage with a Muslim woman undergoing iddat is

(A) Void

(B) Irregular

(D) None of these

129. Under Muslim Law when wife and husband seek divorce on mutual consent. It is called

(A) Mubarat

(B) Talaq-e-Tafavid

(D) All of these

130. Which one of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with presumption as to powers of attorney?

(A) Section 91

(B) Section 88

(D) Section 70

131. How many Sections and Chapters are there in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?

(A) 160 Sections and 10 Chapters

(B) 180 Sections and 14 Chapters

(D) 167 Sections and 11 Chapters

132. Which one of the following is not defined under section 3 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?

(A) Court

(B) Confession

(D) Document

133. Under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, facts forming part of the same transaction are known as:

(A) Plea of alibi

(B) Admission

(D) Dying declaration

134. Which one of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 provides for ‘refreshing memory'?

(A) Section 159

(B) Section 158

(D) Section 160

135. Which of the following is not a form of divorce under Muslim Law?

(A) Hasan Talak

(B) Talak-ul-bidda

(D) Khula

136. In which school of Muslim, Muta marriage is recognized?

(A) Ithana Asharia School

(B) Hanafi School

(D) Ismaili School

137. Where there are one or more daughters, son’s daughters and there is no son or son’s. The share of father in inheritance under Muslim Law would be

(A) 1/6 only

(B) 1/6 + Residue

(D) Excluded from any right

138. Which of the following is not considerate as an evidence under Indian Evidence Act, 1872?.

(A) Oral Evidence

(B) Hearsay Evidence

(D) "Expert Evidence

139. The case of Palvinder Kaur v. State of Punjab relates to which of the following?

(A) Confession

(B) Dying declaration

(D) Entries in the books of account

140. Which of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act deals with the ‘plea of alibi"?

(A) Section 10

(B) Section 12

(D) Section 11

141. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?

(A) Hostile Witness - Section 154

(B) Impeaching Credit of Witness - Section 155

(D) Refreshing Memory - Section 159

142 The Indian Evidence Act applies to

(A) Affidavits

(B) Judicial proceedings

(D) All of these

143. A witness who is unable to speak gives his evidence in writing in open court. Such type of evidence is known as

(A) Oral evidence

(B) No evidence

(D) Primary evidence

144. In which case section 27 of Indian Evidence Act was held by the Court to be Constitutionally valid?

(A) Nathu v. State of ILP.

(B) Ram Bharose v. State of U.P.

(D) Pakkala Narayan Swami v. Emperor

145. Presumption as to absence of consent in certain prosecution for rape is provided under the Indian Evidence Act 1872 in

(A) Section 113A

(B) Section 113B

(D) Section 114A

146. Generally when 'leading questions may be asked?

(A) In any examination

(B) In cross-examination

(D) In re-examination

147. Which Section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 protects from disclosing communication during marriage?

(A) Section 125

(B) Section 123

(D) Section 122

148. ‘A’ is charged with travelling on a railway without ticket. The burden of proof th*** a ticket will lie on

(A) Prosecution

(B) Railway administration

(D) Ticket examiner

149. A, a client says to B, an attorney - “I have committed forgery and I wish you to defend me.” Whether this is protected under the professional communication?

(A) It is not protected

(B) This communication is a confession

(D) Protected from disclosure

150. Which one of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act provides about the production of documents or electronic records which another person, having possession could refuse to produce?

(A) Section 130

(B) Section 131

(D) Section 132

151. How many witnesses are required for the proof of any fact?

(A) No particular number of witnesses required.

(B) Two witnesses are required.

(D) None of these

152. Judge’s power to put questions or order production is provided under the Indian Evidence Act 1872 in

(A) Section 162

(B) Section 163

(D) Section 165

153. Classification of offences are given in Criminal Procedure Code under:

(A) Section 406

(B) Second Schedule

(D) Section 482

154. Under section 167 of the CrPC the Magistrate Can authorize detention for a total period of 90 days during investigation in case of offences punishable;

(A) with death

(B) with imprisonment for life

(D) All of these

155. Section 118 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is related to

(A) Judges and Magistrates ,

(B) Who may testify

(D) Number of witnesses

156. Ranatish Saha v. Smt. Soma Saha and another, AIR 2016 (NOC) 268 Cal, case is related to

(A) DNA Test

(B) Presumption as to dowry death

(D) Estoppel

157. A is accused before the Court of Session of attempting to murder a Police Office his trial before B, a Session Judge. In this case, whether B may be examined?

(A) B can not be examined

(B) B is protected by section 124 of Indian Evidence Act, 1872

(D) None of the above

158. Which one of the following irregularities does not vitiate proceeding under section 460 of the CrPC?

(A) Demand Security to keep peace

(B) To make an order for maintenance

(D) Discharge a person lawfully bound to be of good behaviour

159. A case can be committed to the Court of Session by a Magistrate under CrPC:

(A) Section 290 and 323

(B) Section 209 and 323

(D) Section 209 and 325

160. What is the meaning of Police Diary under CrPC?

(A) Proceeding in investigation under section 172

(B) Information recorded under section 168

(D) Statement recorded under section 161

161. Chapter XXIA related to Plea Bargaining under CrPC was inserted in which year?

(A) 2000

(B) 2002

(D) 2006

162. According to section 357A of the CrPC, where the offender is not traced or identified, the victim or his dependent applied for the award of compensation, within what period, the state or district legal services authorities are required to complete enquiry in this regard?

(A) One Month

(B) Three Months

(D) Four Months

163. Which one of the following section of the CrPC has created a duty on part of the public generally to give information to the police regarding certain offences?

(A) Section 37

(B) Section. 39

(D) Section 40

164. Under section 58 of CrPC, to whom officer incharge of the police station shall report the cases of all persons arrested without warrant?

(A) District Magistrate

(B) Session Judge

(D) Superintendent of Police

165. Which one of the following sections of the CrPC relate to the summary procedure for trial for giving false evidence?

(A) Section 342

(B) Section 345

(D) Section 343

166. The term ‘victim’ is defined in Criminal Procedure Code under:

(A) Section 2(w)

(B) Section 2(wa)

(D) None

167. Under which section of CrPC, 1973, there is a provision regarding recording of magistrate respecting demeanour of witness?

(A) Section 280

(B) Section 288

(D) Section 270

168. Under section 482 of CrPC inherent power may be exercised by:

(A) Supreme Court only

(B) High Court only

(D) Any Criminal Court

169. What is the maximum period for security for keeping the peace can be asked for, under section 107 of CrPC?

(A) Three years

(B) Two years

(D) Seven years

170. Which one of the following section of CrPC deals with the summary dismissal of Appeal?

(A) Section 320

(B) Section 390

(D) Section 384

171. Which one of the following section of the CrPC deals with the powers of the Appellate Court?

(A) Section 290

(B) Section 386

(D) Section 395

172. Under CrPC, which of the following courts are shown as criminal court?

(A) The High Court

(B) Court of Session

(D) All of these

173. Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 does not have provision regarding

(A) Review

(B) Revision

(D) Appeal

174. Section 407 of the CrPC, 1973 deals with

(A) Power of Supreme Court to transfer cases and appeal

(B) Power of Session Court to transfer cases and appeal

(D) All of these

175. Reports of certain government scientific experts is prescribed in CrPC under

(A) Section 292

(B) Section 293

(D) Section 294

176. Offence of same kind committed, by a person accused of more than one offences within the space of twelve months, whether in respect of the same person or not, may be charged with and tried at one trial under CrPC, for how many offences?

(A) Two

(B) Five

(D) Three

177. ‘A’ has knocked down two teeth of ‘B’. ‘A’ has committed the offence of

(A) Grievous hurt

(B) Hurt

(D) Attempt to hurt

178. According to section 144 of CrPC, what is the maximum period for which state government has power to further extend the order made by the Magistrate?

(A) Not exceeding 3 months

(B) Not exceeding 4 months

(D) Not exceeding 6 months

179. Which one of the following section of CrPC provides the release of person of unsound mind on bail pending investigation or trial?

(A) Section 328

(B) Section 330

(D) Section 331

180. Which of the following section of the CrPC deals with, how appeal to Court of Session heard?

(A) Section 381

(B) Section 380

(D) Section 307

181. Under Indian Penal Code, 1860, when the right of private defence of the body extends to causing death

(A) Apprehension of death

(B) Kidnapping

(D) All of these

182. ‘A’ joins an insurrection against the Government of India. ‘A’ has committed the offence of:

(A) Criminal Conspiracy

(B) Sedition

(D) Criminal Breach of Trust

183. Which one of the following Sections of the Indian Penal Code, is based on the principles of ‘doll incapax’ ?

(A) Section 82

(B) Section 81

(D) Section 87

184. Disclosure of identity of victim of rape is punishable in Indian Penal Code under section:

(A) Section 228

(B) Section 228A

(D) Section 229A

185. Which of the following is not a correct match?

Offence - Section of IPC

(A) Extortion - Section 383

(B) Dacoity - Section 391

(D) Theft - Section 378

186. A hangman who hangs the prisoner in pursuant to the order of the Court is exempted from criminal liability by virtue of which section of IPC?

(A) Section 77

(B) Section 76

(D) Section 78

187. ‘A’ incites a dog to spring upon ‘Z’ without ‘Z’s consent with the intention to annoy ‘Z’, Here ‘A’ has committed the offence of

(A) Criminal force

(B) Crievous hurt '

(D) Defamation

188. ‘A’ instigates ‘B’ to murder ‘C’ who refuses to do so, ‘A’ is guilty of

(A) No offence

(B) Criminal Conspiracy

(D) Criminal Instigation

189. Definition of Criminal Conspiracy is given in the IPC, under

(A) Chapter VA

(B) Chapter VI

(D) Chapter X

190. When the right of private defence of property does not extends to causing death?

(A) House-breaking by night

(B) Mischief or house trespass

(D) Theft as reasonably caused apprehension of death if right of private defence not exercised.

191. The offence of theft is punishable in IPC under:

(A) Section 378

(B) Section 379

(D) Section 381

192. Under Indian Penal Code stalking as an offence has been added by

(A) Criminal 2013 Law (Amendment) Act,

(B) Criminal 2005 Law (Amendment) Act,

(D) Criminal 1955 Law (Amendment) Act,

193. Which of the following doesn't fall under grievous hurt?

(A) Fracture of bone

(B) Emasculation

(D) Hurt which causes severe bodily pain to the sufferer for atleast 20 days.

194. Abetment of suicide has been defined under which section of IPC?

(A) Section 309

(B) Section 306

(D) Section 308

195. Punishment for Dowry death under section 304B of Indian Penal Code, 1860 is.

(A) Life imprisonment

(B) Imprisonment upto seven years only

(D) Not less than seven years but which may extend to imprisonment for life.

196. Match the following:

A. Rioting 1. 511

B. Affray 2. 146

C. Abetment 3. 107

D. Attempt to commit offence 4. 159

(A) A-4; B-2; C-l; D-3

(B) A-4; B-3; C-2; D-l

(D) A-2; B-4; C-l; D-3

197. Criminal Conspiracy is defined in Indian Penal Code, 1860 under

(A) Section 120A

(B) Section 107

(D) Section 120B

198. ‘A’ causes ‘Z’ to go within a walled space and locks ‘Z’ in. ‘A’ shall be guilty of

(A) Assault

(B) Wrongful confinement

(D) None of these

199. ‘A’ a Zamindar tortures a raiyat in order to compel him to pay his rent, ‘A’ is guilty of an offence in IPC under:

(A) Section 329

(B) Section 333

(D) Section 331'

200. ‘A’ denied food to his wife ‘B’ for several days by keeping her confined in a room with intention to accelerate her death, ‘B’ any how managed to escape. What offence ‘A’ has committed?

(A) Wrongful confinement

(B) Mental torture

(D) Attempt to murder