Previous Year Question Papers · Uttarakhand Civil Judge Service (Pre.) Examination, 2018

Uttarakhand Civil Judge Service (Pre.) Examination, 2018

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PART- I

1. 26th July is celebrated as '

(A) Kargil Vijay Divas

(B) Air Force Day

(D) None of these

2. “Sindhu Darshan Mahotsav” is celebrated in

(A) Kerala (B) Ladakh

3. In 2018, election of Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is won by

(A) Aditya Nath Singh

(B) Anant Kumar

(D) Hari Prasad

4. The computer processor consists of the parts

(A) Keyboard and Hard disk

(B) Keyboard and Mouse

(D) Keyboard, Control Unit and A.L.U.

5. On 14 April, 2018, the Prime Minister started the “Ayushman Bharat Yojana” at

(A) New Delhi

(B) Lucknow

(D) Bijapur (Chhattisgarh)

6. First runner up of ‘FIFA’ World Cup, 2018 Is

(A) France (B) England

7. The longest river of India is

(A) Brahmputra (B) Ganga

8. The Supreme Court has upheld following right in Union of India v. Naveen Jindal

(A) right to education

(B) right to drink pure water

(D) right to die

9. “Legal Aid Day” is celebrated on

(A) 9th November (B) 26 November

10; Supreme Court has held the right to privacy is a Fundamental Right in the case of

(A) Chameli Singh v. State of U.P.

(B) T.Sarithav.T. Venkat Subaiyya

(D) Govind v. State of M.P.

11. ‘Malala’ is related with

(A) Muslim women

(B) Hind women

(D) Refugee's women

12. Scurvy disease is caused due to lack of Vitamin

(A) A (B) B

13. In the year 2018, Chairperson of the National Women Commission is appointed

(A) Rekha Sharma

(B) Meera Kumar

(D) None of these

14. The headquarter of the “World Intellectual Property Organisation” is located in:

(A) Paris (B) Madrid

15. Which of the following is not a chief organ of the United Nations?

(A) International Labour Organisation

(B) Security Council

(D) General Assembly

16. Which of the following countries is not a permanent member of the United Nations Security council?

(A) U.S.A. (B) U.K.

17. Who among the following heads the National Integration Council of India ?

(A) President

(B) Vice President

(D) Chief Justice of Supreme Court

18. On which date did the ‘United Nations’ adopted the ‘Universal Declaration of Human Rights’?

(A) 20th October, 1945

(B) 24th October, 1945

(D) 10th December, 1948

19. Who has won the “National Gopal Ratna” award from the Central Government for Cattle rearing and dairying?

(A) Preeti Lata Sharma

(B) Amrita Dhiraj

(D) G.S.Kulkami

20. The Basava Sagar Dam is.located in which state?

(A) Orissa (B) Karnataka

21. The maximum age limit for election to the President of India is

(A) 65 years (B) 70 years

22. “Panchayat Raj” was Introduced In India in the year

(A) 1950 (B) 1952

23. Who among the following held the office of the President of India for two consecutive terms?

(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(B) Dr. Zakir Hussain

(D) None of these

24. Which of the following is the oldest High Court in India?

(A) High Court of Madras

(B) High Court of Calcutta

(D) High Court of Allahabad

25. In which landmark judgement did the Supreme Court of India lay down guidelines against sexual harassment of women at workplace?

(A) Vishakha v. State of Rajasthan

(B) Nilabati Behera v. State of Orissa

(D) Hussainara Khatoon v. State of Bihar

26. Judges of the International Court of Justice are elected by the

(A) Security Council

(B) General Assembly

(D) General Assembly and Security Council independently of one another

27. Sharda Act, 1930 deals with

(A) Widow remarriage

(B) Child marriage

(D) Polygamy

28. The Chairperson of National Commission on Minorities shall be deemed member of

(A) Human Rights Council

(B) Law Commission of India

(D) National Human Right Commission

29. Time gap between two sessions of Parliament can not exceed

(A) 2 months (B) 4 months

30. The 'Preamble' of the Indian Constitution has been amended so far:

(A) Once (B) Twice

31. The supreme command of the Defence Forces of the Union shall be vested In the

(A) Prime Minister (B) President

32. U.N.C.H.R. is related with

(A) labours (B) children

33. “The total number of Ministers, Including the Prime Minister, in the Union Council of Minister shall not exceed fifteen percent of the total number of the House of people” was Inserted by the

(A) Constitution (Forty-second Amendment) Act

(B) Constitution (Forty-fourth Amendment) Act

(D) Constitution (Ninety-third Amendment) Act

34. The total number of “Fundamental Duties” mentioned in Part IV-A of the Indian Constitution is

(A) Eleven (B) Nine

35. In which of the following cases it was held that the preamble to the Constitution is an integral and operative part of the constitution?

(A) Minerva Mills case

(B) Re Berubari's case

(D) KeshavanandBhartiv. State of Kerala

36. The Benami Transactions (Prohibition) Amendment Act, 2016, came into effect from

(A) 1st November, 2016

(B) 1st January, 2016

(D) 1st March, 2016

37. To bring qualitative changes in Higher Education, Ministry of Human Resources Development has decided to abolish the University Grant Commission and replace it with

(A) Integrated Higher Education Commission

(B) Higher Education Commission of India

(D) None of these

38. The court of record In India is

(A) Only Supreme Court

(B) Only High Court

(D) None of these

39. The ordinance Issuing power of the Governor of a State is contained in which Article of the Constitution?

(A) Article 213

(B) Article 123

(D) Article 231

40. ‘Doklam Issue* was bone of contention between which two nations?

(A) India and Nepal

(B) China and Nepal

(D) China and Pakistan

41. “Goods and Service Tax” was brought into operation throughout India by

(A) 100lh Constitutional Amendment

(B) 101st Constitutional Amendment

(D) 97th Constitutional Amendment

42. The election to fill in the vacancy of the President office should be completed within a maximum time limit of

(A) 3 months from the date of vacancy

(B) 1 month from the date of vacancy

(D) 12 months from the date of vacancy

43. In January, 2018, the “World Economic forum” fifth annual meeting was concluded at which of the following places?

(A) Davos (B) Copenhagen

44. The term of the judges of the “International Court of Justice” is

(A) Not fixed (B) 5 years

45. Who among the following justices of India has been re-elected as, the Judge of the International Court of Justice?

(A) Justice D.Y. Chandrachud

(B) Justice Deepak Mishra

(D) Justice Dalveer Bhandari

46. E.V.M. refers to

(A) New music devices

(B) Eco marks

(D) None of these

47. In the famous case of Naz Foundation v. Government of N.C.T. of Delhi, the Section of the Indian Penal Code, whose Constitutional Validity was challenged, is

(A) Section 377 (B) Section 375

48. In India the celebration of 26 November of every year as “Law Day” was started from the year

(A) 1949 (B) 1950

49. In 65th National Film Festival the prize of best film is given to

(A) Mom (B) Nagar Kirtan

50. The Chief Justice of Supreme Court of India can be removed from his office on the basis of

(A) Proved misbehaviour only

(B) Incapacity only

(D) Both (A) and (B)

PART-II

51. On which of the following maxim the doctrine of *Res-Judicata’ is based?

(A) Quifacit per alium facit per se

(B) Exturpi causa non orituraztio

(D) Respondent superior

52. A decree may be executed by

(A) Tehsildar

(B) Collector

(D) Either by the Court which passed it or by which it is sent.

53. Provisions relating to ‘set-off’ and ‘counter-claims* are contained in which of the following orders of the code of civil procedure?

(A) Order VI (B) Order VII

54. The meaning of ‘Written Statement’ is

(A) answer by defendant of Plaintiff's suit

(B) answer by Plaintiff of defendant's suit

(D) suit of defendant

55. Under the code of civil procedure where a person who is necessary party to a suit has not been joined as a party, it is a case of

(A) misjoinder (B) non-joinder

56. Provisions of Section 80 of the code of civics procedure are

(A) Mandatory (B) Directory

57. Which one of the following provisions of the code of civil procedure is related to ‘Affidavits’?

(A) Order 17

(B) Order 19

(D) Order 39

58. Section 25 of the code of civil procedure provides for which of the following?

(A) Power of Supreme Court to transfer suits.

(B) Power of High Courts to transfer suits.

(D) Power of Commissioner to transfer suits.

59. ‘Notice’ under Section 80 of the code of civil procedure, when it relates to ‘Railways’, has to be served on which of the following?

(A) Minster of Railways

(B) Secretary of Railway Ministry

(D) Prime Minister of India

60. Where the local limits of jurisdiction of courts are uncertain, the place of institution of suit shall be decided according to the provisions of

(A) Section 16 of the code of civil procedure

(B) Section 17 of the code of civil procedure

(D) Section 19 of the code of civil procedure

61. In which of the following Sections of the Code of Civil Procedure, provisions for suits relating to ‘public charities’ is found?

(A) Sections 90-91

(B) Sections 92-93

(D) Section 96-100

62. Section 152 of the Code of Civil Procedure, empowers the courts to Amend the judgements, decrees or orders in respect of

(A) clerical or arithmetical mistakes only

(B) errors arising therein from any accidental slips or omissions only

(D) None of these

63. Which of the following orders and rules of the Code of Civil Procedure provide for “Framing of issues"?

(A) Order XIV Rule 1

(B) Order XVIII Rule 1

(D) Order XIV Rule 5

64. Which one of the following modes of settlement of disputes outside the court has not been provided in Section 89 of the Code of Civil Procedure?

(A) Arbitration (B) Negotiation

65. Under which one of the following provisions / of the Code of Civil Procedure, the principle of constructive resjudicata has been explained?

(A) Section 11 explanation VII

(B) Section 11 explanation IV

(D) Section 11 explanation I

66. Under which one of the following provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure “rejection of plaint” has been mentioned?

(A) Order VII Rule 11

(B) Order VI Rule 13

(D) Order VIII Rule 4

67. Right to lodge a ‘caveat’ has been provided under which Section of the Code of Civil Procedure?

(A) Section 148

(B) Section 148-A

(D) Section 147

68. Bigamy is committed, If the subsequent marriage Is

(A) Valid

(B) Voidable

(D) Both (A) and (B) above

69. Punishment for violation of Clause III of Section 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act has been provided in which of the following Sections?

(A) Section 5 (B) Section 8

70. Son in class I of the schedule of the Hindu Succession Act, does not include

(A) Stepson

(B) Adopted son

(D) None of these

71. Which one of the following is not the ground of voidable marriage under Hindu Marriage Act?

(A) Impotency

(B) Unsoundness of mind

(D) Bigamy

72. Under which Section of the Hindu Marriage Act, ceremonies for a Hindi. Marriage is prescribed?

(A) Section 6 (B) Section 7

73. Which one of the following Section of the Hindu Marriage Act provides void marriages?

(A) Section 12 (B) Section 13

74. Which one of the following Sections of the Hindu Marriage Act, deals with divorce by mutual consent?

(A) Section 13A (B) Section 13B

75. Who among the following is the author of the famous work ‘Mitakshara’?

(A) Aparaka (B) Bhoja

76. ‘Jimutavahana’ is known for his work

(A) Nimaya Sindhu

(B) Dayabhag

(D) Dattak Mimansa

77. Section 14 of the Hindu Succession Act, applies to

(A) movable property only

(B) immovable property only

(D) easementary rights

78. Which one of the following sections of the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, provides capacity to take in adoption a child to a female Hindu?

(A) Section 3 (B) Section 4

79. Who is natural guardian of a minor under Section 6 of the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act?

(A) Mother only

(B) Father only

(D) Grandmother and Grandfather

80. In which one of the following cases, the Supreme Court has directed that marriages of all persons, belongs to any religion, be registered in their respective states where marriage is solemnized, if they are citizens of India?

(A) Seema v. Ashwini Kumar

(B) Githa Hariharan v. Reserve Bank of India

(D) None of these

81. Tuhr’ means

(A) Period of Iddat

(B) Period of menstruation

(G) Date of marriage

(D) The period between two menstrual cycles

82. Which one of the following is the most approved form of divorce under Muslim Law?

(A) Talaq-e-Tafweez

(B) Talaq-e-Ahsar

(D) Talaq-ul-Biddat

83. A marriage of Sunni male with a Muslim female of any Sect is

(A) Valid (B) Void

84. Which one of the following is not a school of Sunni Law?

(A) Hanbali (B) Maliki

85. ‘Hizanat' means

(A) custody of mother upon child only

(B) custody of father upon child only

(D) (A) and (B) both

86. A Muslim wife may sue for divorce under the provision of the Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, if the husband has been insane for a period of

(A) 1 year (B) 2 years

87. When a Muslim wife can relinquish her ‘Mehr*?

(A) When she is minor.

(B) When she is not less than 18 years of age.

(D) When she is not less than 21 years of age.

88. In Muslim Law gift in favour of an unborn person except under certain cases or conditions is

(A) Void

(B) Valid

(D) Valid if accepted by mother

89. Which one of the following is not legal incident of ‘waqf’?

(A) Irrevocability (B) Perpetuity

90. Shayara Bano v. Union of India (2017) case Is related with

(A) Triple Talaq

(B) Muta marriage

(D) Divorce

91. A Muslim illegitimate child is kept in the custody of

(A) Mother

(B) Paternal Grandmother

(D) Neither father nor mother

92. Marriage during Iddat period Is

(A) Batil (B) Fasid

93. Which section of the Criminal Procedure Code provides that all offences under the Indian Penal Code, shall be investigated, inquired into according to the provisions of Criminal Procedure Code?

(A) Sections 3 (B) Section 4

94. Which section of the Criminal Procedure Code provides that the High Court could be criminal court?

(A) Section 6 (B) Section 7

95. Who has the authority to establish court of session in a district?

(A) Governor

(B) High Court

(D) All of these

96. Who will appoint the presiding officer of a court of session?

(A) Governor

(B) High Court

(Q State Government

(D) District Magistrate

97. Who will appoint the Chief Judicial Magistrate ' in a district?

(A) Governor

(B) High Court

(D) District Session Judge

98. How many classes of criminal courts shall be in a district?

(A) Two (B) Three

99. Which of the following sentences a High Court can pass?

(A) Death sentence

(B) Imprisonment for life

(D) Any sentence authorised by law

100. When can police arrest a person without warrant?

(A) In case of cognizable offences only

(B) In case of proclaimed offender only

(D) All of these

101. How much maximum punishment of imprisonment could be given by Chief Metropolitan Magistrate?

(A) Upto 10 years (B) Upto 7 years

102. The famous case of “D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal” contains the guidelines in which respect?

(A) Arrest of persons

(B) Right to fair and speedy trial

(D) All of these

103. Before which of the following courts matters relating to the maintenance under Section 125 of the Criminal Procedure Code would be filed?

(A) Court of Session

(B) Judicial Magistrate First Class

(D) Family Courts

104. At what stage of a criminal case confession statement of a person under Section 164 of the Criminal Procedure Code could be recorded?

(A) During Investigation

(B) During Inquiry

(D) At any stage of the case

105. Under Section 154 of the Criminal Procedure Code, who can give informations relating to the commission of a cognizable offence?

(A) The victim himself only

(B) The dependent of victim only

(D) Any person

106. Where the relevant procedure in the Criminal Procedure Code has been provided In case when Investigation can not be completed within 24 hours?

(A) Section 57 (B) Section 157

107. Under which section of the Criminal Procedure Code, the jurisdiction of criminal courts have been given for offences committed outside India?

(A) Section 177 (B) Section 179

108. What are the modes for taking cognizance of offences by the Magistrates In Criminal Procedure Code?

(A) Upon receiving a complaint only

(B) Upon police report only

(D) All of these

109. Which Section of The Criminal Procedure Code restricts the court of session from taking cognizance of any offence as a court of original jurisdiction unless the case has been committed to it by a magistrate?

(A) Section 193 (B) Section 194

110. Which of the following cases relates to the principles with regard to anticipatory ball?

(A) Raghunath Das v. State of Orissa

(B) Gurubaksh Singh S.’blfia v. State of Punjab

(D) Waman Nadev. State of Maharashtra

111. Which of the following Articles of the ‘Constitution’ relate to the doctrine, if a person is tried and acquitted or convicted of an offence, he cannot be tried again for the same offence?

(A) Article 20(1) (B) Article 22(1)

112. Under which provision of the Criminal Procedure Code, the legal aid to the accused has been permitted at the expenses of the state?

(A) Section 301 (B) Section 303

113. Under the Criminal Procedure Code, who among the followings is empowered to decide as to what would be the language of the Court?

(A) State Government

(B) Governor

(D) District Criminal Court

114. Which provision of the Criminal Procedure Code, provide that an accused person shall be a competent witness for the defence and may give evidence on oath?

(A) Section 310 (B) Section 315

115. Who can frame the ‘charge’ according to the Criminal Procedure Code?

(A) Court

(B) Public Prosecutor

(D) All of these

116. In summary trial, which trial procedure the court should follow

(A) Procedure for session trial

(B) Procedure for warrant trial

(D) No specific procedure is prescribed

117. Which of the following Sections of the Criminal Procedure Code, relates to release of offenders on probation of good conduct?

(A) Section 260 (B) Section 350

118. Which of the following case is not related to the confession?

(A) PulukuriKotayyav. King Emperor

(B) State of U.P. v. Devman Upadhyay

(D) T.J. Pnnam v. M.C. Verghese

119. Which one of the following Sections of the Indian Evidence Act provides questions lawful in cross-examination to be asked?

(A) Section 146 (B) Section 145

120. Which of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act applies to the pleaders relating to professional communications?

(A) Section 128 and 125

(B) Section 129 and 130

(D) Section 131 and 132

121. The provisions relating to the ‘Burden of proof’ have been provided under:

(A) Section 91-100 of Indian Evidence Act

(B) Section 84-90 of Indian Evidence Act

(D) Section 115-118 of Indian Evidence Act

122. Section 6 of the Indian Evidence Act deals with

(A) Relevancy of fact forming part of same transaction

(B) Admission

(D) Conclusive proof

123. Section 133 of the Indian Evidence Act Is related to

(A) Number of witnesses

(B) Accomplice

(D) Relevancy of facts

124. In which Section of the Indian Evidence Act, “Presumption as to dowry death" is provided?

(A) Section 111-A (B) Section 112

125. The case “Doodhnath Pandey v. State of U.P.” is related to

(A) Res-Gestai (B) Plea of alibi

126. Important case related to ‘Identification Parade’ is

(A) Ramnathanv. State of Tamil Nadu

(B) Ram Lochan v State of West Bengal

(D) All of these

127. Which one of the following will be called as ‘Primary evidence’?

(A) Photograph of original

(B) Certified copies

(D) Hand written letter

128. Under Section 85-C of the Indian Evidence Act, the presumption as to electronic signature certificates correctness, the court:

(A) may presume

(B) shall presume

(D) may not presume

129. Which one of the following Section Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 has been inserted by Section 92 and schedule II of the Information Technology Act, 2000?

(A) Section 65

(B) Section 154(2)

(D) Section 67

130. Under Indian Evidence Act, leading questions may generally be asked in

(A) Cross-examination

(B) Examination in-chief

(D) All of these

131. Under the Indian Evidence Act, power of the Judge to put questions and order of production of document or thing in the court has been provided in

(A) Section 162 (B) Section 163

132. Which one of the following under the Indian Evidence Act, is not a kind of estoppel?

(A) Estoppel by will

(B) Estoppel by deed

(D) Estoppel by record

133. Section 112 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 provides for

(A) Presumption of life

(B) Presumption of marriage

(D) Presumption of death

134. Which Section of the Indian Evidence Act, removes the bar of doctrine that husband and wife are one person in law?

(A) Section 122 (B) Section 119

135. Under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act, admissibility of evidence shall be decided by the Judge?

(A) Section 135 (B) Section 136

136. Which one of the following cases is directly related to Section 32(1) of the Indian Evidence Act?

(A) Pulukuri Kotayya v. Emperor

(B) State of Maharashtra v. Damu Gopinath Shinde

(D) Pakala Narayan Swami v. Emperor

137. “Hostile witness” is dealt in Indian Evidence Act under:

(A) Section 154 (B) Section 155

138. The case, ‘Queen Empress v. Abdullah’ is related with

(A) Burden of proof

(B) Privileged communication

(D) Dying declaration

139. Choose the correct option under the Indian Evidence Act.

(A) Judicial notice—Section 87

(B) Private document—Section 75

(D) Accomplice—Section 132

140. Section 114-A was introduced in the Indian Evidence Act after widespread protest against Which judgement?

(A) Tukanimv. State of Maharashtra

(B) Moginbaiv. State of Gujarat

(D) Pramod Mehto Case

141. Electronic records are:

(A) Oral evidence

(B) No evidence

(D) None of these

142. ‘Identification proceedings’ are provided under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act?

(A) Section 7 (B) Section 8

143. An instrument of transfer is attested validly where

(A) Executant has signed the instrument in presence of his family members.

(B) A person has signed as witness to the fact of writing of instrument in his presence

(D) Instrument is signed by two witnesses who have seen executants signing the same and who sign in latter's presence.

144. Which of the following is not an immovable property under the Transfer of Property Act?

(A) A debt secured by mortgage of an immovable property.

(B) A right to worship in a specific temple.

(D) A right to catch and carry fish from a pond.

145. Which of the following is hot an ‘actionable claim’?

(A) A debt having passed into a decree by the court.

(B) A claim for arrears of reijt of an immovable property.

(D) Neither (A) nor (B)

146. Under Transfer of Property Act, the expression ‘Transfer of Property’ includes

(A) Partition

(B) Surrender

(D) None of these

147. Under Transfer of Property Act, which of the following is not recognised as a valid consideration for transfer of property?

(A) Natural love and affection

(B) Movable properly

(D) All of these

148. The rule entitling a subsequent mortgagee to compel prior mortgagee of two properties to satisfy the latter’s mortgagee’s debt out of the property not mortgaged to the former is called the rule of

(A) Subrogation (B) Contribution

149. Under the Transfer of Property Act, a “charge”

(A) is created by operation of law only.

(B) exists on immovable property only.

(D) entitle charge-holder to satisfy his claim by taking property charged.

150. A lease is terminated by

(A) merger (B) forfeiture

151. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(A) Direction for accumulation—Section 17

(B) Mortgagor's power to lease—Section 65-A

(D) Exchange of money—Section 120

152. Which transfer requires attestation of the written instrument by two witnesses mandatorily under the Transfer of Property Act?

(A) Sale (B) Mortgage

153. A gift is statutorily not complete unless it Is accepted by the donee such acceptance needs to be

(A) in writing by or on behalf of donee.

(B) made during donor's lifetime.

(D) made during donor's lifetime and while the donor is still capable of giving.

154. Which of the following ‘gift’ is valid under the Transfer of Property Act?

(A) Gift to a minor.

(B) Gift of a future property.

(D) Gift motivated by post illicit cohabitation.

155. A lease to a minor is

(A) valid (B) void

156. Under the Transfer of Property Act, a “living person” connotes

(A) human being only

(B) limited company only

(D) All of these

157. Mortgagor’s right of redemption is coextensive with

(A) mortgagor's right to inspection and production of documents.

(B) morgagee's right of for closure or sale.

(D) All of these

158. Which one of the following may fall under ‘Anomalous mortgage’?

(A) Only mortgage usufructuary by conditional sale.

(B) Only simple usufructuary mortgage.

(D) Neither (A) nor (B)

159. Lease of a house for a term exceeding one year can be made

(A) only by registered instrument. -

(B) oral agreement.

(D) None of these

160. The “rule against perpetuity” has its origin in the case of

(A) Tulk v. Moxhay, 41 ER 1143

(B) Cadell v. Palmer, 131 ER 859

(D) Ariff v. Jadunath, AIR 1931 PC 79

161. “A man is not allowed to approbate and reprobate at the same time.” This rule provides basis for which of the following?

(A) Doctrine of feeding of grant by estoppel.

(B) Doctrine of part performance.

(D) Rule of redeem up, foreclose down.

162. The principle of Estoppel enunciated In Section 115 of the Indian Evidence Act, finds its expression In these sections of the Transfer of Property Act:

(A) Section 35 and Section 53-A

(B) Section 41 and Section 43

(D) Section 35, Section 43 and Section 60

163. Case of “Raj Kumar Kundu v. Maqueen” is related to

(A) Lis pendens

(B) Part performance

(D) Ostensible owner

164. Remedy of foreclosure is available in which of the following mortgages under the Transfer of Property Act?

(A) Mortgage by deposit of title deeds

(B) Simple mortgage

(D) English mortgage

165. When unborn person acquires vested interest on transfer for his benefit under the Transfer of Property Act?

(A) Upon his birth

(B) Upon attaining majority

(D) None of these

166. According to Section 3 of the Transfer of Property Act, “instrument” means

(A) Testamentary instrument

(B) Non-testamentary instrument

(D) None of these

167. Under the Transfer of Property Act, Sale is transfer of

(A) an interest in specific immovable property.

(B) a right to enjoy immovable property.

(D) None of these

168. How many circumstances has enumerated under Section 300 of the Indian Penal Code, under which culpable homicide is murder?

(A) 2 (B) 3

169. ‘A’ enters into a house of ‘B’ with intent to cause grievous hurt to ‘B’, but finds that ‘B’ is not in the house. What offence, if any, has been committed by ‘A’?

(A) Attempt to cause grievous hurt

(B) House trespass

(D) (A) and (B) both

170. Under which of the following Sections of the Indian Penal Code, death of assailant may be caused in right of private defence of body and property?

(A) 100 and 103 (B) 101 and 102

171. Under which Section of the Indian Penal Code, provision for the offence of abetment is provided?

(A) 106 (B) 107

172. ‘X’ meets ‘Y’ in the way. ‘Y’ points out a dangerous knife to ‘X* and demands his watch. ‘X’ gives the watch to ‘Y’. What offence has been committed?

(A) Theft (B) Extortion

173. Section 379 of the Indian Penal Code

(A) Defines offence of theft

(B) Provides punishment of theft

(D) None of these

174. Offence of robbery includes

(A) Theft only

(B) Extortion only

(D) None of these

175. For what ‘Govinda’, the accused in famous case of ‘R v. Govinda’ (187.6) 1 Bombay 342, was punished?

(A) Culpable homicide

(B) Grievous hurt

(D) He was acquitted

176. If a convict undergoing sentence of life imprisonment attempts to murder someone and if hurt is caused

(A) he shall be punished with death.

(B) he may be punished with death.

(D) he shall be punished with life imprisonment.

177. Which one is not essential element of theft?

(A) Movable property

(B) Possession of that property

(D) Removal of that property

178. What punishment for custodial rape is provided?

(A) 7 years rigorous imprisonment with fine.

(B) Rigorous imprison for a. term which shall not be less than 10 years, but which SinghaTs—Judicial Service Examinations may extend to imprisonment for life and shall also be liable to fine.

(D) 20 years of imprisonment.

179. What is minimum punishment for voluntarily causing grievous hurt by use of acid?

(A) 7 years imprisonment with fine

(B) 10 years imprisonment with fine

(D) 20 years imprisonment with fine

180. ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are at quarrel. It develops into fight in which both suffer bodily injury. However, ‘Y’ suffers more grievous hurt and dies after three days in hospital. ‘X’ will be liable for

(A) Causing grievous hurt

(B) Murder

(D) No offence

181. Which one of the following Sections of the I.P.C. provides punishment for causing death or resulting in persistent vegetative state of victim?

(A) Section 376A

(B) Section 376B

(D) Section 376E

182. Which expression has been used under Section 84 of the Indian Penal Code?

(A) Madness

(B) Mental ailment

(D) Insanity

183. How many exceptions are provided in criminal defamation under Indian Penal Code?

(A) 6 (B) 8

184; ‘Wrongful gain’ and ‘Wrongful loss’ have been defined under Indian Penal Code, In which of the following Section?

(A) Section 22 (B) Section 23

185. Which one of the following provisions of the Indian Penal Code, is based on “M’Naghten Rule"?

(A) Section 83 (B) Section 84

186. Which one of the following Sections of the Indian Penal Code defines ‘Affray’?

(A) Section 146 (B) Section 148

187. Which of the following provisions of Indian Penal Code defines ‘Making a false document’?

(A) Section 464 (B) Section 465

188. ‘A’ sings obscene songs near the gate of Girls Degree College. What offence he was committed?

(A) Assault

(B) Outraging the modesty of a woman

(D) Obscenity

189. Killing of human being by another human being is called

(A) Murder (B) Culpable homicide

190. Which one of the following provisions of the Indian Penal Code, punishes to misconduct in public by a drunken person?

(A) Section 507 (B) Section 508

191. Which one of the following Sections of the Indian Penal Code, defines ‘Voluntarily ?

(A) Section 39 (B) Section 38

192. Under which of the following Sections of the Indian Penal Code, rash or negligent driving of vehicle on public way is an offence?

(A) Section 279 (B) Section 280

193. ‘Res sub Judice’ means

(A) Stay of Appeal

(B) Stay of Suit

(D) Stay of Execution

194. ‘Pleader’ is defined in the code of civil procedure in

(A) Section 2(7) (B) Section 2(15)

195. Which of the following Sections of the code of Civil procedure, define ‘order’?

(A) Section 2(2) (B) Section 2(9)

196. Which of following Sections of the code of civil procedure, is related to pecuniary jurisdiction of civil court?

(A) Section4 (B) Sections

197. Section 115 of the code of Civil Procedure provides

(A) Revision

(B) Reference

(D) Appeal to the Supreme Court

198. Which provision of the code of civil procedure provides that one person may sue or defend on behalf of all in same interest?

(A) Order 1, Rule 1

(B) Order 2, Rule 2

(D) Order 1, Rule 8

199. Under Section 15 of the code of Civil procedure, every suit shall be instituted In

(A) District Court

(B) The Court of lowest grade

(D) All of these

200. Which of the following Section of the code of civil procedure defines the “Mesne Profit”?

(A) Section 2(4) (B) Section 2(14)