Previous Year Question Papers · Uttar Pradesh Judicial Service (Pre.)Examination, 2015

Uttar Pradesh Judicial Service (Pre.)Examination, 2015

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Paper 1

General Knowledge

1. On which topic former President of India late A.P. J. Abdul Kalam was giving lecture when he suffered a severe heart attack and died later?

(A) Life on Earth

(B) Livable Planet

(D) Multiple dimensions of innovations

2. From year 1954 till 2014, how many eminent persons have been given the highest civilian award “Bharat Ratna”?

(A) 42 (B) 43

3. The Headquarters of ‘INTERPOLE’ (International Police) is situated at

(A) London (England)

(B) Vienna (Austria)

(D) Geneva (Switzerland)

4. What is the name of Parliament of Afghanistan?

(A) Majlis

(B) Shora

(D) Jatiya Sansad

5. In which year, Taj Mahal was included in UNESCO’s list of World Heritage Sites?

(A) 1973 (B) 1983

6. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar’s 125th birth anniversary will be held in the year

(A) 2016 (B) 2018

7. Who among the following has authored the recent book: ‘Gods of Corruption’ highlighting involvement of high-ups?

(A) Ajit Seth

(B) Promila Shankar

(D) Shashank Shekhar

8. Famous renowned space scientist and Ex President of India APJ Abdul Kalam’s full name is

(A) Abdul Pakar Jainuluddin Abdul Kalam

(B) Avul Pakir Jainulabdeen Abdul Kalam

(D) Ali Pakir Jainulakhlaq Abdul Kalam

9. Full form of SIM is

(A) Subscribers Identity Module

(B) Subscribers Identity Mechanism

(D) Self Identity Module

10. The instrument used in ‘lie’ detecting is

(A) Pyrometer (B) Seismograph

11. Protein present in wheat grain is

(A) Albumin (B) Cystein

12. National Flower of India is

(A) Rose (B) Lotus

13. Which of the following is sulphur containing amino acid?

(A) Tryptophan

(B) Proline

(D) Aspartic acid

14. Five countries are contributing for construction of world’s largest telescope ‘Thirty meter’. These countries are

(A) India, China, Japan, Germany & Pakistan

(B) India, China, Japan, America & Pakistan

(D) China, Japan, America, Canada & England

15. The‘ God- Particle is

(A) Photon of Sunlight

(B) Smallest vibrating Particle Phonon

(D) Quantum Particle

16. Indian Space Mission related to planet mass is named as MOM, which is meant for

(A) Mapping of Mars

(B) Mapper of Mars

(D) Mars Odissi Mission

17. 'BRAHMOS', a supersonic missile jointly developed by India and Russia was adopted by Indian Army on

(A) 21 June, 2007

(B) 20 March, 2013

(D) 21 March, 2007

18. Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) was established in

(A) 1972

(B) 1969

(D) 1958

19. 'Gate Way of Information' is

(A) e-mail

(B) Pager

(D) Internet

20. 'E-Diesel' is ethanol mixed diesel fuel which is prepared from ordinary diesel by mixing ethanol in percentage of

(A) 7.70

(B) 5.50

(D) 2.70

21. In western hemisphere, ozone-layer hole is a major factor for the incidence of which of the following ailments?

(A) Baldness

(B) Asthma

(D) Lung cancer

22. Which one of the following is not digested in human body?

(A) Starch

(B) Casein

(D) Vegetable oil

23. When kept in air, which of the following elements glows in dark?

(A) Platinum

(B) Strontium

(D) Red phosphorus

24. Which one of the following organic substances is an

(A) Lindane

(B) Pyrene

(D) Chloroform

25. Match List-I with List-ll and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List-I List-II

A. Vitamin A 1. Beri-beri

B. Vitamin B 2. Night-blindness

C. Vitamin C 3. Rickets

D. Vitamin D 4. Scurvy

Codes:

A B C D

(A) 1 2 3 4

(B) 2 3 1 4

(D) 1 4 3 2

26. National Botanical Research Institute is situated at

(A) Lucknow

(B) New Delhi

(D) Chennai

27. Which among the following is known as laughing gas?

(A) Nitrous oxide

(B) Nitric oxide

(D) Nitrogen pentoxide

28. Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute is located at

(A) Goa

(B) Kochi

(D) Puri

29. The Coromandal Coast is located in the State of '

(A) Kerala

(B) Maharashtra

(D) Gujarat

30. Arrange the following events in chronological order using the codes given below:

(1) Abolition of Jazia

(2) Abolition of Pilgrimage Tax

(3) Construction of Ibadat Khana

(4) Foundation of 'Din-i-Ilahi'

(A) 1, 2, 4, 3

(B) 2, 1, 3, 4

(D) 1, 3, 4, 2

31. Which of the following emperors was known as 'Shah-i-bekhabar'?

(A) Humayun

(B) Jahangir

(D) Farrukhsiyar '

32. Which of the following emperors had the highest number of Hindu generals in the army?

(A) Babar

(B) Akbar

(D) Aurangzeb

33. 'Rajm Nama' is the Persian translation of

(A) Arthashastra

(B) Ramayana

(D) Upanishada

34. Maluk Das was a saint poet residing at

(A) Agra

(B) Ayodhya

(D) Kara

35. Which of the following Rajput houses was the first to establish matrimonial relation with emperor Akbar?

(A) Rathore

(B) Kachwaha

(D) Sisodiya

36. Musical instrument 'Sitar' was invented by

(A) Amir Khusro

(B) Ramdas

(D) Haridas

37. Which Sufi Saint remarked 'Hanooj Dilli Dur Ast' (Delhi is still far away)?

(A) Nasiruddin Chirag-i-Delhi

(B) Nizamuddin Aulia

(D) Baba Farid

38. 'Bijak' is a collection of the sayings of

(A) Baba Farid

(B) Ramanand

(D) Kabir

39. Panchayati Raj is a system of

(A) Local government

(B) Local administration

(D) Rural local self government

40. Which one of the following is a member of 'ASEAN' (Association of South East Asian Nations) formed in 1967?

(A) Thailand

(B) Australia

(D) None of the above

41. The Indian foreign policy was formulated by

(A) Mrs. Indira Gandhi

(B) Lal Bahadur Shastri

(D) Jawaharlal Nehru

42. After K-2, which of the following is second highest mountain peak in India?

(A) Kamet

(B) Nandadevi

(D) Shudu Thempa

43. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(States) (Major Hydel-Power Station)

(A) Gujarat - Tawa

(B) Rajasthan - Jawahar Sagar

(D) Madhya Pradesh - Khopoli

44. Which one of the following tribes belongs to Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand?

(A) Itnar

(B) Tharu

(D) Munda

45. Badrinath is located in

(A) Kumaun Himalaya

(B) Central Himalaya

(D) Trans-Himalaya

46. Who among the following prepared a scientific classification of forests?

(A) H.G. Champion

(B) K.V. Sundaram.

(D) L.D. Stamp

47. The eastern most place of India is located in the State of

(A) Mizoram

(B) Meghalaya

(D) Nagaland

48. 'Kevti' Waterfall is located in which of the following districts?

(A) Rewa

(B) Rohtas

(D) Jabalpur

49. Largest bauxite producing State in India (2014) is

(A) Jharkhand

(B) Rajasthan

(D) Tamil Nadu

50. The 'Wage good strategy' of development was formulated by

(A) Amartya Sen

(B) C. Vakil

(D) J. Bhagwati

51. Who among the following represented India in the International Yoga Day Celebrations held in New York on 21 st June, 2015?

(A) Uma Bharati

(B) Sumitra Mahajan

(D) Vasundhara Kaje

52. Consider the statement:

Assertion (A): The State Election Commission is appointed by the State Government.

Reason (R): It has the responsibility of holding elections to the Panchayati Raj institutions.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

53. How many Nations had signed the Charter of United Nations on 26th June, 1945?

(A) 64 (B) 61

54. How many women members were there in the Indian Constituent Assembly?

(A) 10 (B) 12

55. To whom among the following did Buddha preach his last sermon?

(A) Subhadda (B) Anand

56. From which site of prehistoric age evidence of cremating pet-dog with man has been found?

(A) Koldihawa (B) Panchoh

57. Which of the Indian States had diarchy system of government at this time of Alexander’s invasion?

(A) Ratal (B) Fegela

58. Whose relics are preserved in the Second Stupa at Sanchi?

(A) Missionaries of Ashokan age

(B) Lord Buddha

(D) Mahamodglyeyan

59. Which temple of North India has its Shikhar (spire) in Dravid style?

(A) Bhitargaon

(B) Deogarh

(D) Teli temple at Gwalior

60. The first excavated Indus site after independence of India is

(A) Ropar (B) Kalibangan

61. Which is the port city of Indus Valley culture?

(A) Mohenjodaro

(B) Harappa

(D) Lothal

62. How many slokas are present in Rajtarangini of Kalhana?

(A) Eight thousand

(B) Nine thousand

(D) Eleven thousand

63. Which of the following tribes does note belong to the Panchjana of Rigveda?

(A) Yadu (B) Puru

64. Which of the following inscriptions mentions Vedic Gods?

(A) Mansehra

(B) Shahbajgarhi

(D) Junagarh

65. King Kharvela of Kalinga belonged to which dynasty?

(A) Ghedi (B) Kadamba

66. Which one of the following is the name of the Book written by Magasthnase?

(A) Deep Vansh (B) Kapur Manjan

67. Who is regarded as the father of Indian pre-history?

(A) Cunnigham

(B) Bruce Proof

(D) William King

68. Who among the following called himself ‘The Parrot of India’?

(A) Malik Muhammad Jaisi

(B) Raskhan

(D) Amir Hasan

69. Who among the following built the ‘Qutub Minar’?

(A) Qutubuddin Aibak

(B) Iltutmish

(D) All the above

70. At which of the following places Jawaharlal Nehru unfurled the tricolour in 1930?

(A) Allahabad (B) Delhi

71. Who was the great force behind the foundation of the first Indian Women’s University in Bombay in 1906?

(A) Dadabhai Naoroji

(B) D.K. Karve

(D) V.M.Malabari

72. The largest ocean of the world is

(A) Arctic Ocean

(B) Indian Ocean

(D) Pacific Ocean

73. The largest Mica producing State in India is

(A) Jharkhand

(B) Andhra Pradesh

(D) Rajasthan

74. Which one of the following is the longest river in India?

(A) Godavari (B) Narmada

75. Which one of the following country has the highest percentage of Its geographical area under forests?

(A) China

(B) Australia

(t) India

(D) United Kingdom

76. Chandra Prabha National Park is located in

(A) Varanasi (B) Kanpur

77. Disaster Management Act was enacted in India, in the year

(A) 2001 (B) 2003

78. The National Capital Region Planning Board was set up in India in the year

(A) 1980 (B) 1982

79. Which of the following tribes belongs to Nilgiri hills?

(A) Maria (B) Asur

80. The Patkai hills separate India from

(A) China (B) Myanmar

81. Match List-I with List-ll and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List-I List-II

(Industry) (Place)

A Sugar 1. Dalmia Dadari

B Paper 2. Dhampur

C Cement 3. Chandrapur

D Iron & Steel 4. Bokaro

Codes

A B C D

(A) 2 1 3 4

(B) 2 3 1 4

(D) 1 2 3 4

82. As per Census 2011 of India, which of the following States has lowest percent of urban population?

(A) Tripura

(B) Sikkim

(D) Himachal pradesh

83. Which of following Constitutional (Amendment ) Acts provided for the appointment of the same person as Governor for two or more States?

(A) Fourth (Amendment) Act

(B) Seventh (Amendment) Act

(D) Twenty Fourth (Amendment) Act

84. The basic-structure theory of the Constitution of India implies that

(A) Fundamental Rights cannot be abridged or taken away.

(B) The Constitution can not be amended except in accordance with the procedure prescribed in Article 368.

(C) The Preamble of the Constitution cannot be amended for it is not a part of the Constitution and at the same time it represents real spirit of Constitution.

(D) Certain features of the Constitution are so essential to it that they can not be amended.

85. Who among the following has termed Indian Federalism as “Co-Operative Federalism”?

(A) K.C. Wheare (B) Morris Jones

86. Which one of the following statements regarding ‘Exit Poll’ is correct?

(A) 'Exit-Poll is a term used to denote a post-election survey of voters regarding the candidate in whose favour they have exercised their franchise.

(B) 'Exit-Poll' and 'Opinion-Poll' are one and the same.

(D) 'Exit-Poll' is an administrative device made by the Chief Election Commissioner to prevent impersonation.

87. Which of the following models of bureaucracy exists in India today?

(A) Committed bureaucracy

(B) Fully politicised bureaucracy

(D) Depoliticised bureaucracy

88. According to the Balwantrai Mehta Committee, the District collector should be

(A) kept out of the Zila Parishad

(B) a non-voting member of the Zila Parishad

(D) the Chairman of the Zila Parishad

89. Which of the following is not a source of revenue for the village panchayats?

(A) Tax on agricultural income

(B) Tax on property, animals and vehicles

(D) Grant from the State Government

90. Panchayatl Raj form of rural local government was adopted first (in the order) by

(A) Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh

(B) Andhra Pradesh and West Bengal

(D) Andhra Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh

91. In India, Central Vigilance Commission was set-up on the recommendation of;

(A) Administrative Reforms Commission of India

(B) Gorwala Report

(D) Santhanam Committee

92. Which one of the following High Courts has the Territorial-Jurisdiction over ‘Andaman and Nicobar* Islands?

(A) Andhra Pradesh

(B) Calcutta

(D) Orissa

93. The primary function of the Finance Commission in India is to

(A) distribute revenue between the Centre and the States

(B) prepare the Annual Budget

(D) allocate funds to various ministers of the Union and State Governments

94. The ultimate responsibility of taking due action on the comments of the Comptroller and Auditor General vests with

(A) Supreme Court

(B) Parliament

(D) National Development Council

95. Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to Indian Audit?

(A) Indian Audit is primarily a legality audit.

(B) Indian Audit is governed not by law but by an executive order.

(D) All the three above.

96. Which one of the following recommended the creation of the office of ‘Lokpal’?

(A) National Police Commission

(B) States Reorganization Commission

(D) Inter-State Council

97. The Judges of the International Court of Justice are elected by the

(A) U.N. General Assembly only

(B) U.N. Security Council only

(D) Economic and Social Council

98. ‘Optional clause’ which defines the compulsory jurisdiction of the International Court of Justice originates from which one of the following Articles of the Statute of the' International Court of Justice?

(A) Article 34 (B) Article 35

99. The historic Land Boundary Agreement between India and Bangladesh in which the two countries agreed to transfer the enclaves to each others sovereignty was concluded in

(A) 1972 (B) 1973

100. The number of ‘SAARC (South Asian Association of Regional Co-operation) countries is

(A) 7 (B) 8

101. The words ‘Socialist’ and ‘Secular’ were added to the Preamble of Constitution of India by

(A) 41st Amendment

(B) 42nd Amendment

(D) 46th Amendment

102. Which Article of the Constitution of India provides that it shall be the endeavour of every State to provide adequate facility for instruction in the mother-tongue at the primary stage of Education?

(A) Article 349

(B) Article 350

(D) Article 351

103. Which of the following writs is not specifically provided in the Constitution of India?

(A) Prohibition (B) Mandamus

104. ‘Economic drain’ theory was popularized by

(A) the Britishers

(B) Dadabhai Naoroji

(D) V.V. Bhatt

105. The logo of eco-mark in India is

(A) Rising Sun (B) Earthen Pot

106. Which among the following Five Year Plans could not start on its due time?

(A) 12th (B) 11th

107. Which of the following countries has launched a major expansion of the Suez Canal?

(A) Syria

(B) Egypt

(D) None of the above ,

108. How many UN member countries have reached an agreement on the outcome document of New Sustainable Development Agenda?

(A) 204 (B) 197

109. What is the name of the mobile app which facilitates easy learning of Computer and Internet?

(A) Dristi (B) Disha

110. Which of the following banks became the first in country to launch MUDRA Card in July 2015?

(A) Bank of India

(B) Corporation Bank

(D) State Bank of India

111. Which Indian American diplomat was recently appointed as the U.S. Ambassador to Sri Lanka and Maldives?

(A) Richard Rahul Verma

(B) Suresh Rana

(D) Rakesh Sharma

112. The Book “Green Signals: Ecology, Growth and Democracy in India”, has been written by

(A) JairamRamesh

(B) Meira Kumar

(D) Medha Patkar/(Megha Patekar)

113. Who amongst the following has not been inducted as member of the newly constituted cricket advisory committee of BCCI on June 1,2015?

(A) Rahul Dravid

(B) Sachin Tendulkar

(D) V.V.S. Laxman

114. Which are the three ‘SAARC’ countries with whom India has signed a motor vehicle agreement on June 15, 2015?

(A) Bangladesh, Sri Lanka, Maldives

(B) Bangladesh, Nepal, Bhutan

(D) Nepal, Sri Lanka, Maldives

115. In the second quarter of 2015, the lndian Government In principle has decided to set-up how many new ‘nuclear power projects’ in the country?

(A) 7 (B) 8

116. Which country amongst the following decided in May 2015 to lift ban on import of rice from India?

(A) Iran (B) China

117. Which State/Union Territory decided in May 2015 not to allow foreign direct investment in retail market?

(A) Haryana (B) Delhi

118. At what rank World Economic Forum report has placed India on ‘Human Capital Index’ in May 2015?

(A) 128th (B) 120th

119. On May 25,2015 who amongst the following was declared as ‘International Batsman of the Year’ in CEAT Awards?

(A) Ajinkya Rahane

(B) Hashim Amla

(D) Rangana Herath

120. Dr. Suntti Solomon, who passed away recently, was associated with which field?

(A) Film (B) Medical

121. Which among the following is India’s largest E-commerce company?

(A) Flipkart (B) Jabong

122. The State which ranks next to Kerala in terms of female literacy in India according to Census 2011 is

(A) Mizoram (B) Tripura

123. Which State of India has launched the Village Monitoring Project to uplift villages?

(A) Maharashtra (B) Kerala

124. Who among the following has been recently appointed as Executive-Director of RBI?

(A) Reena Hemchanda

(B) Leena Hemchanda

(D) Heena Hemchanda

125. Which State of India has recently decided to start ‘She-Bus’ programme?

(A) Tamil Nadu (B) Karnataka

126. Which one of the following countries is the largest producer of steel in the world?

(A) U.S.A. (B) West Germany

127. ‘NITI-Aayog’ has been constituted under which Article of the Constitution of India?

(A) Article - 280 (B) Article - 282

128. Ultra Mega Power Plants in India are

(A) Coal based (B) Hydro based

129. Which among the following sectors has contributed most to the growth of G.D.P. in India in 2014-15?

(A) Service Sector

(B) Manufacturing Sector

(D) Foreign Trade Sector

130. In India, which among the following is not included in Small Savings Scheme?

(A) Public Sector Bank savings deposit

(B) Public Provident Fund

(D) National Savings Certificate (VIIIth issue)

131. Main thrust of 20 point economic programme (restructured in 2006) in India, is

(A) removal of poverty only

(B) improvement in quality of life only

(D) only (A) and (B) above

132. The Head Office of Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) is located at

(A) New Delhi (B) Mumbai

(Q Ahmedabad (D) Lucknow

133. In which State India’s first railway line is being built under public private partnership model?

(A) West Bengal

(B) Rajasthan

(D) Gujarat

134. Viticulture is known for the production of

(A) apple (B) grapes

135. Black-Revolution is related to

(A) Coal production

(B) Blackhole

(D) Leather production

136. India purchased 200 Tonnes of gold from IMF in which of the following Five Year Plans?

(A) 7th (B) 5th

137. Which among the following was the theme of 9th National Statistics Day of India observed in 2015?

(A) Social Development

(B) Financial Inclusion

(D) E-governance

138. Which of the following Banks has become the first Bank to launch ‘Watch-Banking Scheme’ in India?

(A) ICICI Bank (B) HDFC Bank

139. Account under ‘Sukanya-Samriddhi Yojana’ can be opened for a daughter aged

(A) maximum 7 years

(B) maximum 8 years

(D) maximum 10 years

140. Which is the largest fresh water lake in India?

(A) Chilka (B) Wular

141. As per the United Nations Annual Hunger Report released in May 2015, India has the highest number of hungry people in the world. Which country among the following has the least number of hungry people?

(A) Philippines (B) Nigeria

142. The Govt, of India has approved setting up of how many ITBP outposts along the China Border in Arunachal Pradesh and Sikkim?

(A) 30 (B) 35

143. A two day G-7 Summit was held in June 2015 in

(A) London (B) Paris

144. By which year, the Union Cabinet on June 17,2015 has proposed to provide “Housing for all”?

(A) 2030 (B) 2025

145. Few coaches of two trains were drowned in the river in Harda district of M.P. in an accident which occurred on August 5,2015. The name of the river is

(A) Narmada (B) Betwa

146. In India, on which day, first ‘National Handloom Day’ was celebrated?

(A) August 9, 2015

(B) August 7, 2015

(D) August 7, 2014

147. Sale have been restricted on Maggi noddles of Nestle Company in India. Where is the head office of Group Company located? :

(A) Switzerland

(B) France

(D) U.K.

148. According to projection of U.N. Report 2015, the world population by 2050 will be

(A) 7.3 billion (B) 8.4 billion

149. At which place first phase of metro-train was inauqurated by a lady Chief Minister and the drive of the first metro train was also a lady?

(A) Jaipur (B) Ahmedabad

150. Harbhajan Kaur Dheer of Indian—origin has been elected Mayor in May 2015, in which country?

(A) Australia (B) New Zealand

PAPER 2 LAW

1. In which of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 provision as to refresh memory has been given

(A) Section 141 (B) Section 149

2. Which one of the following is not inclusive in Section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 for relevancy?

(A) Intention (B) Motive

3. Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 which one of the following sections defines admission

(A) Section 17 (B) Section 18

4. Which one of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with the relevancy of statements as to any law contained in law books?

(A) Section 37 (B) Section 38

5. A party can ask Questions to his own witness under which section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?

(A) Section 156 (B) Section 154

6. Under Indian Penal Code, 1860 the offence of affray has been defined in

(A) Section 146 (B) Section 148

7. Section 34 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860

(A) Creates a substantive offence

(B) is a rule of evidence

(D) None of the above

8. The principle of doli incapex under Indian Penal Code, 1860 is an exception to criminal liability in which one of the following sections?

(A) Section 81 (B) Section 82

9. A hangman who hungs the prisoner pursuant to the order of the court is exempted from criminal liability by virtue of

(A) Section 77 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860

(B) Section 78 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860

(D) Section 76 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860

10. Under Indian Penal Code, 1860 the defence of ‘Consent’ is not available in cases of

(A) Consent to cause death

(B) Consent to cause grievous hurt

(D) None of the above

11. In exercise of right of private defence even death of the accused can be caused under

(A) Section 100 of the Indian Penal Code,1860

(B) Section 102 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860

(D) Both (A) and (B)

12. Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 came into force from

(A) 25th December, 1983

(B) 26th December, 1986

(D) 25th December, 1988

13. In which one of the following sections of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 punishment for wrongful confinement has been provided?

(A) Section 340 (B) Section 341

14. Under Indian Penal Code, 1860 the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 has

(A) Amended Section 375

(B) Substituted Section 375

(D) Weakened Section 375

15. In which one of the following sections of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 Lurking House Trespass has been defined?

(A) Section 442 (B) Section 444

16. ‘A’ incites a dog to spring upon ‘Z’ without Z’s consent with the intention to annoy ‘Z’, Here ‘A’ has committed an offence of

(A) Criminal force

(B) Criminal assault

(D) Defamation

17. Which one of the following sections of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 defines the word ‘Act’?

(A) Section 32 (B) Section 33

18. Which one of the following sections of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 is an extension of the principle of ‘respondent superior’ to criminal law?

(A) Section 121 (B) Section 159

19. Which one of the following recognizes the principle of vicarious criminal liability under Indian Penal Code, 1860?

(A) Section 34

(B) Section 149

(Q Both (A) and (B)

(D) None of the above

20. Sarla Mudgal, President Kalyani v. Union of India is a case on one of the following?

(A) Rape (B) Adultery

21. In a case of breach of terms on which injunction was granted under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 the court may pass an order of

(A) attachment and sale of property.

(B) attachment of property and detention in civil prison.

(D) (A)and (C)both

22. How much salary of a person can be attached in execution of a decree tor maintenance?

(A) First one thousand rupees and 1/3 of the remainder

(B) First one thousand rupees and 2/3 of the remainder

(D) 1/3 of the salary

23. Which one of the following sections of the Code of Civil Procedure Code, 1908 embraces the principle of restitutions?

(A) Section 134 (B) Section 144'

24. A court can return the plaint for presentation to the court in which the suit shbuld have been instituted?

(A) At the time of institution of suit.

(B) Before framing of issues.

(D) At any stage of the suit.

25. ‘Prison’ as defined in Order 16A of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 includes

(A) Any place which has been declared by the Government, by General or Special Order, to be subsidiary jail

(B) Any reformatory, borstal institution or other institution of a like nature.

(D) Only (A) is correct

26. Under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 “every , suit shall be instituted by presenting a plaint in duplicate to the court or such officer as it appoints in this behalf.” This is provided under

(A) Section 26 (B) Section 20

27. Which one of the following is not a decree under Civil Procedure Code, 1908?

(A) Rejection of a plaint for non-payment of court fee.

(B) Any order of dismissal for default.

(D) None of die above

28. Documents which are meant for cross examination of a witness of the other party may be produced?

(A) till settlement of issues.

(B) after settlement of issues.

(D) along with the pleading.

29. Under which one of the following provision of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 plaint is rejected by the court in absence of cause of action?

(A) Order 7 Rule 11(a)

(B) Order 7 Rule 11(b)

(D) Order 7 Rule 11(d)

30. Under which of the following provision of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 attachment before judgment is provided?

(A) Order 38 Rule 5-13

(B) Order 39 Rule 1 and 2

(D) Section 96

31. On which one of the following grounds under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 a warrant of arrest against a “judgment debtor” may be cancelled by the Court?

(A) serious illness

(B) appearance in marriage of his son

(D) None of the above

32. A decree against Government of India or State Government shall not be executed unless it remains unsatisfied for the period of

(A) one month (B) two months

33. Under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 copy of plaint.

(A) shall be attached with every summons.

(B) is not necessary to attach with, every summons.

(D) is attached with summons on the request of the plaintiff.

34. Which one of the following is not suit of Civil Nature?

(A) Suits for rights to hereditory offices.

(B) Suits for rights of franchise.

(D) Suits relating to right of worship.

35. Under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 pleading can be amended

(A) before the 1st appellate court

(B) before the trial court

(D) before (a) and (c) only

36. Which one of the following sections of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 provides “no Judge or Magistrate shall try any case in which he is personally interested”?

(A) Section 478 (B) Section 477

37. Which one of the following sections of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 has defined the word ‘offence’?

(A) Section 2(f) (B) Section 2(i)

38. Under Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 who can file an application for plea bargaining?

(A) The Public Prosecutor

(B) The Investigating Officer

(D) The Accused of the Offence

39. Under Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 what is the period of limitation prescribed for taking cognizance of an offence which is punishable with imprisonment for a term exceeding 3 years?

(A) 3years

(B) 2 years

(D) No limit of period prescribed

40. Recently in which of the following the Supreme Court has held that there shall be no mediation in rape cases?

(A) Hardeep v. Punjab State

(B) State of M.P. v. Madan Lal

(D) None of the above

41. Which one of the following sections of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 provides that “no appeal to lie unless otherwise provided”?

(A) Section 372

(B) Section 373

(D) Section 377

42. Under Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 the irregularities which do not vitiate proceedings have been stated in

(A) Section 460 (B) Section 461

43. Recently in which one of the following cases the Supreme Court has given directions for the medical treatment of the victim of acid attack?

(A) State of M.P. v. Madan Lal

(B) Laxmi v. Union of India

(D) None of the above

44. The subject of Criminal Procedure falls in which one of the following lists of the Constitution of India?

(A) Union list (B) State list

45. Under Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 the irregularities which vitiate trial have been stated in

(A) Section 460 (B) Section 461

46. Complaint as defined under section 2(d) of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 is concerned with

(A) Cognizable offence only

(B) Non Cognizable offence only

(D) None of the above

47. In which one of the Sections of the Criminal Procedure code, 1973 it is mandatory to produce person arrested before the Magistrate within 24 hours of arrest?

(A) Section 51 (B) Section 56

48. Under which one of the following Sections of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 monthly allowances or the interim monthly allowances for maintenance can be altered?

(A) Section 125 (B) Section 126

49. Anticipatory Bail under Section 438 of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 can be invoked in cases of

(A) Bailable offences

(B) Nonbailable offences

(D) None of the above

50. In which one of the following sections of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 the ‘Cognizable Offence’ has been defined?

(A) Section 2(a) (B) Section 2(b)

51. A contracts to B Rs. 10,000 if B’s house is burnt. The contract is

(A) simple

(B) contingent

(D) None of the above

52. An agreement to do an act impossible in itself is

(A) void

(B) voidable

(D) None of the above

53. A, for natural love and affection, promises to give his son, B, Rs. 1,000. A puts his promise to B in writing and registers it. This is a

(A) Contract

(B) Voidable contract

(D) None of the above

54. In the following cases which case relates to general offers

(A) Lalman Shukla v. Gauri Datt

(B) Carlill v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Comp.

(D) None of the above

55. Who said that “An offer need not be made to an ascertained person, but no contract can arise until it has been accepted by an ascertained person”?

(A) Lord Atkin

(B) Lord Goddard

(D) Anson

56. A agrees to pay B Rs. 1,000 If B will marry to A’s daughter C. C was dead at the time of the agreement. The agreement is

(A) invalid (B) voidable

57. Minor’s contract is

(A) void

(B) voidable

(D) valid at the option of the minor

58. Satyabrat Ghose v. Mangiram Bongur (1954 SC) is a case on

(A) Minor's contract

(B) Consideration

(D) Contingent contract

59. Hadley v. Baxindale is a case on

(A) Frustration of contract

(B) Damages forbreach of contract

(D) Contract in restraint of trade

60. An agreement entered into with free consent and lawful but with inadequate consideration is

(A) unlawful (B) lawful

61. Where both the parties to an agreement are under a mistake as to a matter of fact essential to the agreement, the agreement Is

(A) voidable (B) void

62. Nudum Pactum means

(A) without consideration

(B) invalid contract

(D) voidable contract

63. In law of contract Bailor in pledge is called

(A) Pawnor (B) Pawnee

64. Consider the following statements and point out which of them is correct?

(1) An agreement made without consideration is void.

(2) Consideration should have value in the eye of law.

(3) Consideration has to be adequate.

(A) (1), (2) and (3) (B) (l)and(2)

65. A having advanced money to his son, B, during his minority, upon B’s coming of age obtains, by misuse of parental influence, a bond from B for a greater influence, a bond from B for a greater amount than the sum due in respect of the advance. A employs

(A) coercion

(B) fraud

(D) mis-representation

66. Austin’s book “the province of Jurisprudence Determined” is

(A) his autobiography

(B) the lectures delivered in the London University

(D) None of the above

67. “Law is found not made” concept of law belongs to

(A) Sociological school

(B) Analytical school

(D) Philosophical school

68. “Jurisprudence is the scientific synthesis of essential principles of law” has been said by

(A) Allen (B) Halland

69. “Jurisprudence is the philosophical aspect of the knowledge of law” has been said by

(A) Salmond (B) Dias

70. “Jurisprudence is the knowledge of things, human and devine; the science of just and unjust” has been said by

(A) Keeton (B) Ulpian

71. “Law grows with the nation, increases with It, and dies with its dissolution and it is a characteristic or it.” It is said by

(A) Salmond (B) Savigny

72. “The theory of social solidarity” has been propounded by

(A) Duguit (B) Ihering

73. Which one of the following is not an essential element of Custom?

(A) A custom must be certain.

(B) A custom must be reasonable.

(D) A custom must be in conformity with statute law

74. Which one of the following is not a theory of punishment?

(A) Preventive theory

(B) Social interest theory

(D) Retributive theory

75. “Ownership is a plenary control over an object.” This definition is given by

(A) Austin (B) Holland

76. “Legal order is a pyramid of norms” is the statement of

(A) Austin (B) Kelson

77. In law the Hart-Fuller controversy relates to

(A) Definition of law

(B) Classification of law

(D) Sanction

78. “The movement of progressive societies has hitherto been a movement from status to contract” it is said by

(A) Henry Maine (B) Hegal

79. The theory of lifting the veil of corporate personality was evolved in

(A) Merry v. Green

(B) Solomon v. Solomon

(D) Ancona v. Rosers

80. ‘A time-barred debt’ is a typical example of

(A) Positive Right

(B) Negative Right

(D) Imperfect Right

81. U.N. Member States have agreed on August 3, 2015 on sustainable development goals by

(A) Majority vote

(B) Consensus

(D) (A) and (C) above

82. World Climate Summit 2015 scheduled to be held in

(A) New York (B) New Delhi

83. Which one of the following is often termed as “a child of war”?

(A) Security Council

(B) United Nations Organization

(D) International Court of Justice

84. “Purpose of United Nations is world peace”. It was observed by

(A) Oppenheim (B) Kelson

85. The headquarters of Universal Postal Union is situated in

(A) Geneva (B) New York

86. In which one of the following Articles of the U.N. Charter provides for the expulsion of a member State?

(A) Article 5 (B) Article 6

87. Number of principal organs of United Nations are

(A) 7 (B) 6

88. Which one of the following states is not a permanent member of Security Council?

(A) China

(B) United Kingdom

(D) Japan

89. What is the term of office of the judges of International Court of Justice?

(A) 5 years (B) 7 years

90. The first Indian appointed as a judge of International Court of Justice was

(A) Justice P.N. Bhagwati

(B) Justice Nagendra Singh

(D) None of the above

91. Where is the head quarters of International Court of Justice situated?

(A) Geneva (B) New York

92. In which one of the following Articles of U.N.O. the ‘principle of self determination’ has been provided

(A) Article 1 (B) Article 2

93. How many members are there in security council of UNO?

(A) 5 (B) 10

94. What is the term of non-permanent members of Security Council of U.N.O.?

(A) 2 years (B) 3 years

95. The first session of UNO General Assembly was held on

(A) January 10, 1945

(B) January 10,1946

(D) January 10,1948

96. Which one of the following is the official language of International Court of Justice?

(A) Spenish and English

(B) Russian and English

(D) Arabic and English

97. Which one of the following is the member of Non Proliferation Treaty (NPT)?

(A) Israel (B) China

98. In January 2015 Edgar Lunga was elected as President of

(A) Italy (B) Zambia

99. 68th World Health Assembly took place in

(A) Delhi (B) London

100. World Future Energy Summit 2015 took place in

(A) Dubai (B) Tehran

101. Which one of the following countries has become 161st member of World Trade Organisation?

(A) Seychelles (B) Latvia

102. The third U.N. World Conference on Disaster Risk Reduction was held in March, 2015 in

(A) China (B) Bangladesh

103. World Rufugee Day is observed every year on

(A) 20th June , (B) 20th July

104. With which country India has signed inter- governmental agreement on “Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act” on 9th July, 2015.

(A) France (B) Germany

105. Total number of members in the European Union is :

(A) 27 (B) 28

106. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?

(A) Trygve Lie-Norway

(B) Kurt Waldheim-Sweden

(D) Kofi Annan - Ghana

107. On January 15,2015 India has signed a Motor Vehicle Agreement with following three SAARC countries

(A) Bhutan, Sri Lanka, Bangladesh

(B) Sri Lanka, Pakistan, Nepal

(D) Bhutan, Bangladesh, Maldives

108. Who has described international law as “positive international morality”?

(A) Halland

(B) Austin

(D) Oppenheim

109. Which of the following elects the judges of International Court of Justice?

(A) The General Assembly of United Nations

(B) Security Council of United Nations

(D) Both (A) and (B)

110. Who says “international law is a vanishing point of jurisprudence”?

(A) Brierly (B) Halland

111. National Judicial Appointments Commission Act, 2014 came into force

(A) on April 13, 2015

(B) on December 31,2014

(D) on January 31, 2015

112. Under which one of the following Articles of our Constitution an accused person has been guaranteed the right to be informed of the nature and cause of accusation?

(A) Article 22(1) (B) Article 22(3)

113. How many representatives of the Anglo- Indian Community can be nominated to the State Legislative Assembly by the Governor of the State?

(A) Three (B) Two

114. The ‘equal protection of Laws’ in Article 14 has been taken from

(A) British Constitution

(B) American Constitution

(D) None of the above

115. The Supreme Court of India has traced the* “Right of Privacy” in

(A) Article 14 (B) Article 19

116. 'Right to Life’ under Article 21 of the Constitution does not include ‘right to die’ has been held by Supreme Court in

(A) Retiram v. Union of India

(B) Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab

(D) All of the above

117. In which one of the following cases the Supreme Court has declared Article 15(5) as Constitutional?

(A) Indra Sawhney v. Union of India

(B) Ashok Kumar Thakur v. Union of India

(D) T.M.A. Pai Foundations v. State of Karnataka ,

118. Article 15 of the Constitution prohibits discrimination between citizens on the basis of

(A) Religion and caste only

(B) Religion, race and caste only

(D) Religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them

119. The President may under Article 56(1 )(b) be removed from his office by a process of impeachment on the ground of

(A) proved misbehaviour

(B) incapacity

(D) All of the above

120. Part IVA of the Indian Constitution dealing with ‘Fundamental Duties’ was added In the Constitution by

(A) 24th Constitutional (Amendment) Act, 1971

(B) 25th Constitutional (Amendment) Act, 1971

(D) 44th Constitutional (Amendment) Act, 1978

121. Which one of the following is considered as ' a Supreme source of power?

(A) Supreme Court of India

(B) Parliament of India

(D) Constitution of India

122. Article 142 of the Constitution;

(A) is supplimentary in nature.

(B) gives preference to equity over law.

(D) All of the above

123. For how much period, the President can appoint additional and acting judges in High Courts?

(A) Not exceeding 2 years

(B) Not exceeding 3 years

(D) Not exceeding 5 years

124. Who amongst the following has said that “Indian Constitution is a federation with strong centralizing tendency”?

(A) K.C.Wheare

(B) A.V. Dicey

(D) None of the above

125. “Right to Work” in the Constitution can be traced in

(A) Fundamental Rights

(B) Directive Principles of State Policy

(D) None of the above

126. Which one of the following pair is correctly matched?

(A) Universal donee - Section 128A

(B) Mortgaged debt- Section 134

(D) All of the above

127. Immovable property includes

(A) Grass (B) Growing crops

128. Which one of the following sections of Transfer of Property Act, 1882 relates to oral transfer?

(A) Sections 5 (B) Section 7

129. Which one of the following sections of Transfer of Property Act, 1882 is concerned with the transfer of benefit to unborn child?

(A)'Section 13

(B) Section 14

(D) Section 16

130. Under Transfer of Property Act, 1882 which one of the following is correctly matched?

(A) Condition restraining alienation - Section 9

(B) Rule against perpetuity - Section 14

(D) None of the above

131. The Transfer of Property Act, 1882 came into force on

(A) 1st March, 1881

(B) 1st April, 1881

(D) 1st August, 1882

132. A transfers Rs. 5,000 to B on condition that he shall marry with the consent of C, D and E. B marries without the consent of C, D and E. But obtains their consent after the marriage. Has B fulfilled the conditions?

(A) Yes (B) No

133. A transfer a farm to B for his life with a proviso that, in case B cuts down a certain wood, the transfer shall cease to have any effect. B cuts down the wood. What will be effect of his life interest of farm?

(A) Loses

(B) Secures

(D) Conditional secure

134. Under Transfer of Property Act, 1882 which one of the following is not correctly matched?

(A) Transfer by ostensible owner - Section 41

(B) Doctrine of part performance - Section 53B

(D) Doctrine of lis pendens - Section 52

135. “A vested interest is not defeated by the death of the transferee before he obtains possession” is provided in which one of the following sections of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882.

(A) Section 18 (B) Section 19

136. Where the principal money secured is one hundred rupees or upwards, a mortgage other than a mortgage by deposit of the deed can be effected only by

(A) registered instrument

(B) signed by the mortgager

(D) all of the above

137. Right to fore-closure or sale has been provided in which of the following sections of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882.

(A) Section 65 (B) Section 66

138. The case of Jayadayal Poddar v. Bibi Hazara is related to

(A) Doctrine of election

(B) Doctrine of part performance

(D) Ostensible owner

139. Section 35 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 is applicable to

(A) movable property

(B) immovable property

(D) All of the above

140. In which one of the following cases it was held that partition is not a transfer of property?

(A) V.N. Sarin v. Ajeet Kumar AIR 1986 SC 432 .

(B) Roked Chand v. Smt. Rajeshwari Devi AIR 2009 NOC 3009

(Q Abdul Jabbar v. Venkata Shastri AIR 1969 SC 1147

(D) None of the above

141. Identification parade can be held by

(A) Police Officer only

(B) Magistrate only

(D) Any person

142. Which one of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act,-1872 provides that evidence may be given of facts in issue and relevant facts?

(A) Section 3 (B) Section 4

143. “Character as affecting damages” has been discussed in which one of the following sections?

(A) Section 55 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872

(B) Section 56 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872

(D) Section 58 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872

144. Which one of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is related to presumption as to electronic agreement?

(A) Section 81A (B) Section 85C

145. By which one of the following amendments Section 53A has been inserted in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?

(A) Information Technology (Amendment) Act, 2008

(B) Indian Evidence (Amendments) Act, 2002

(D) Criminal Law (Amendments) Act,2013

146. Which one of the following dates of enforcement of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is correct?

(A) 15th March, 1872

(B) 1st September, 1872

(D) 1st February, 1872

147. Which one of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 has been inserted by the Dowry Prohibition (Amendment) Act, 1986?

(A) Section 111A

(B) Section 113A

(D) None of the above

148. Which one of the following does not fall within- the definition of the term Court under Indian Evidence Act, 1872?

(A) All Judges

(B) All Magistrates

(D) All persons legally authorised to take evidence

149. Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 relevancy of facts forming part of the same transaction has been discussed in

(A) Section 6

(B) Section 7

(D) Section 11

150. The Law of evidence under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is

(A) Substantive Law .

(B) Procedural Law

(D) None of the above