Previous Year Question Papers · UP APO Previous Year Question English Medium · UP APO PYQs - 2022 (English Medium)
UP APO PYQs - 2022 (English Medium)
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UP APO 2022
1. With reference to the Marathas, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The administrative system of Shivaji was his own creation.
2. Unlike Ranjit Singh, he took no foreign aid in the administration.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:
a. Both 1 and 2
b. Only 2
c. Only 1
d. Neither 1 nor 2
2. Pedology is the study of
a. Rock
b. Disease
c. Pollution
d. Soil
3. Which one of the following countries does NOT share its border with the Caspian Sea?
a. Turkmenistan
b. Kazakhstan
c. Uzbekistan
d. Azerbaijan
4. Which one of the following is the longest lake of Africa?
a. Lake Chad
b. Lake Victoria
c. Lake Tanganyika
d. Lake Rudolf
5. Which of the following Countries has successfully test-fired the World's most powerful inter-continental ballistic missile, 'Sarmat' in April, 2022?
a. United States of America
b. Iran
c. North Korea
d. Russia
6. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
a. Redox reactions - Reduction only
b. Extensive property - Density
c. Intensive property - Volume
d. Total energy of universe
is constant - First law of
thermodynamics
7. With reference to the Pushyamitra Shunga, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Commander Pushyamitra Shunga killed Brihadrath.
2.He performed twenty Ashvamedha sacrifices after defeating Yavanas.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:
a. Both 1 and 2
b. Only 2
c. Only 1
d. Neither 1 nor 2
8. The date for the adoption of the Constitution mentioned in the Preamble to the Constitution of India is
a. 26th January, 1950
b. 26th November, 1949
c. 15th August, 1947
d. None of the above
9. Who proposed the resolution on Non-co-operation Movement in the annual session of the Congress held in December 1920 in Nagpur?
a. Mahadev Desai
b. Rajendra Prasad
c. C. R. Das
d. None of the above
10. Who among the following wrote the Aihole inscription?
a. Ushavadata
b. Harishen
c. Mihirsen
d. Ravikirti
11. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Genetics is study of pattern of inheritance and variation of characters from parents to offspring.
Reason (R) Inheritance is the process of transfer of characters from one to the next generation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:
a. (A) is true, but (R) is false
b. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
c. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
d. (A) is false, but (R) is true
12. With reference to late Lata Mangheshkar, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. She was the recipient of Dada Saheb Phalke Award in 1989
2. She received 'Bharat Ratna' from President Dr. Pranab Mukherjee
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:
a. Both 1 and 2
b. Only 2
c. Only 1
d. Neither 1 nor 2
13. With reference to the 'Mount Kilimanjaro in Africa, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is the highest mountain peak in Africa.
2. It is situated on the equator.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:
a. Both 1 and 2
b. Only 1
c. Only 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
14. The ocean tides are due to
a. Heavy winds
b. Gravitational interaction
c. Slight earthquakes
d. Water force
15. Who among the following is NOT the member of the Fifteenth Finance Commission?
a. K.C. Niyogi
b. Prof. Anoop Singh
c. Dr. Ashok Lahiri
d. Prof. Ramesh Chand
16. Which of the following States in India won the 12th Senior Men's National Hockey Championship 2022?
a. Tamil Nadu
b. Haryana
c. Madhya Pradesh
d. Maharashtra
17. With reference to the National Human Rights Commission, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It was established on October 2, 1993.
2. It is a statutory body.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. Both 1 and 2
b. Only 2
c. Only 1
d. Neither 1 nor 2
18. Who among the following has been appointed as Chief of the Army staff in India in May 2022?
a. Gen. Vivek Ram Choudhary
b. Gen. Manoj Pandey
c. Gen. Manoj Narwane
d. None of the above
19. Rohtas Fort in Punjab was constructed by
a. Jahangir
b. Shershah Suri
c. Babar
d. Akbar
20. Which one of the following is the longest mountain chain in the world?
a. Andes Mountains
b. Himalayan Mountain
c. Rockey Mountain
d. Alps Mountains
21. With reference to the B.R. Ambedkar, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. He formed the Independent Labour Party.
2. He founded the People's Education Society of India in 1945.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:
a. Both 1 and 2
b. Only 2
c. Only 1
d. Neither 1 nor 2
22. Seaweeds are the important source of
a. Chlorine
b. lodine
c. Bromine
d. None of the above.
23. Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?
(Historical Places of Uttar Pradesh) (District)
a. Shringaverapur - Prayagraj
b. Shringirampur - Shravasti
c. Dauji - Mathura
d. Lodheshwar - Barabanki
24. The term 'Green Revolution' was first used by which of the following?
a. M.S. Swaminathan
b. William Gaud
c. Norman E. Borlaug
d. Verghese Kurien
25. Which of the following is NOT correctly
Article Title of the Article
a. 98 - Secretariat of the President House
b. 93 - The Speaker and Deputy Speaker of
the House of the People
c. 89 - The Chairman and Deputy Chairman
of the Council of States
d. 99 - Oath or Affirmation by Members
26. Who among the following formed 'Indian Independence Committee' in Berlin?
a. Raja Ram Mohan Roy
b. Baba Guru Dutt Singh
c. Lala Hardayal
d. Subhash Chandra Bose
27. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the list:
List-I List-II
(Public Service Commission) (Articles)
A. Appointment and terms of
office of members 1. Article 320
B. Functions of Public
Service Commissions 2. Article 322
C. Expenses of Public Service
Commissions 3. Article 316
D. Reports of Public Service
Commissions 4. Article 323
Code:
A B C D
a. 3 4 1 2
b. 3 1 4 2
c. 3 1 2 4
d. 1 3 2 4
28. In 1887, during the tenure of which Viceroy was the Allahabad University established?
a. Lord Dufferin
b. Lord Mayo
c. Lord Canning
d. Lord Curzon
29. From April 2022 which international player has been banned by apex body of swimming FINA to participate in any international competition/events for next nine months as the player participated in Russian President Putin's rally?
a. Nokav Joknrich
b. Rublev
c. Joes Butler
d. Evgeny Rylov
30. The purpose of Montague-Chelmsford Reforma (1919) was
a. To give special assistance to Hindus
b. To help general public
c. To provide dyarchy
d. To help Scheduled Tribes
31. Fathometer is used to measure
a. Depth of sea
b. Rain
c. Earthquake
d. Sound intensity
32. Which one of the following is NOT correct with respect to the number of seats won by different political parties in the Uttar Pradesh Legislative Assembly Election 2022?
Political Party Number of Seats Won
a. Nirbal Indian Shoshit
Hamara Aam Dal - 06
b. Rashtriya Lok Dal - 08
c. Suheldev Bharatiya
Samaj Party - 05
d. Jansatta Dal Loktantrik - 02
33. Which of the following is NOT a current of Pacific Ocean?
a. Peru Stream
b. South Equatorial Stream
c. Northern Equatorial Stream
d. Benguela Stream
34. Who is the author of "Tarikh-e-Rashidi'?
a. Mutamad Khan
b. Jauhar
c. Gulbadan Begum
d. Mirza Haider Dughlat
35. The definition of a Money Bill' is given in which of the following Articles of Indian Constitution?
a. Article 98
b. Article 110
c. Article 112
d. Article 117
36. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I
(Ruling Dynasties)
A. Pandya
B. Yadava
C. Kaktiya
D. Pallava
List-II
(Capitals)
1. Kanchipuram
2. Warangal
3. Devagiri
4. Madura
Code:
A B C D
a. 4 3 2 1
b. 4 2 3 1
c. 2 1 4 3
d. 3 1 4 2
37. Insurance Sector India is enlisted in which of the following Schedule of the Constitution?
a. 8th Schedule
b. 7th Schedule
c. 6th Schedule
d. 9th Schedule
38. Who was the Architect of Mumbai's 'Gateway of India'?
a. Sir William Emerson
b. Edward Lutyens
c. Herbert Baker
d. George Wittet
39. Kyiv, the capital city of Ukraine is situated along the bank of which one of the following rivers?
a. Desna river
b. Dnieper river
c. Dniester river
d. Teteriv river
40. Who was the author of 'Gandhi Versus Lenin' pamphlet published in 1921?
a. R. S. Nimbkar
b. S. A. Dange
c. M. N. Roy
d. S. V. Deshpandey
41. With reference to carbon fibers, which of the following statement(e) is/are correct?
1. Carbon fibers are a new high performance materials.
2. Carbon fibers are stronger than steel and lighter than aluminium.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:
a. Both 1 and 2
b. Only 1
c. Only 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
42. In which Jain literature the list of sixteen Mahajanpadas of sixth century B.C. is found?
a. Aupapatiya Sutra
b. Bhagvati Sutra
c. Niryavali Sutra
d. Vaivahik Sutra
43. Who among the following called the Revolt of 1857 as a 'national uprising'?
a. Sir John Outram
b. T. R. Holmes
c. Sir John Lawrence
d. Benjamine Disraeli
44. With reference to the 'birth rate', which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Urbanization helps in reducing the birth rate.
2. High literacy rate is directly related to low birth rate.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:
a. Both 1 and 2
b. Only 1
c. Only 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
45. Who among the following won the Asian Billiards title for the 8th time in March 2022?
a. Pankaj Advani
b. Yasin Merchant
c. Geet Sethi
d. Aditya Mehta
46. Xiomara Castro became the first female President of which of the following countries?
a. San Marino
b. Tuvalu
c. Monaco
d. Honduras
47. The radar used by police to check over-speeding vehicles, works on the principles of
a. Induction effect
b. Raman effect
c. Doppler effect
d. Coulomb effect
48. Match List - I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I
(River)
A. Cologne
B. Basra
C. Diyarbakir
D. Timbuktu
List-II
(City)
1. Niger
2. Shatt-al-Arab
3. Tigris
4. Rhine
Code:
A B C D
a. 3 4 2 1
b. 2 4 1 3
c. 4 2 3 1
d. 1 3 4 2
49. Who is the author of the book entitled the $10 Trillion Dream'?
a. Subhash Chandra Garg
b. Urjeet Patel
c. Raghuram Rajan
d. Arvind Pangadiya
50. Headline inflation in India is currently based on
a. Combined Consumer Price Index
b. Urban Consumer Price Index
c. Rural Consumer Price Index
d. Wholesale Price Index
51. Section 195 A of Indian Penal Code, 1860 relates to
a. Protection to offender
b. Threatening to give false evidence
c. Protection of witness
d. Protection to victim
52. Which Chapter of the U.P. Police Regulation is related to 'Village Police'?
a. Chapter 9
b. Chapter 11
c. Chapter 10
d. Chapter 12
53. Under Indian Penal Code, 1860, sexual intercourse by husband upon his wife during separation is punishable under
a. Section 376 A
b. Section 376 C
c. Section 376 D
d. Section 376 B
54. In which Section of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 the provision of security for good behaviour from habitual offender is made?
a. Section 109
b. Section 107
c. Section 106
d. Section 110
55. 'A', a police officer tortures 'B' in order to induce 'B' to confess that he has committed a crime. 'A' is guilty of an offence under
a. Section 330 of the Indian Penal Code
b. Section 326 of the Indian Penal Code
c. Section 325 of the Indian Penal Code
d. Section 331 of the Indian Penal Code
56. Which one of the following is NOT correctly matched?
a. Professional communication - Section 124
b. Impeaching credit of witness - Section 155
c. Hostile witness - Section 154
d. Refreshing memory - Section 159
57. Use of violence by a member of an unlawful assembly of five or more persons in furtherance of common object, will constitute
a. Rioting
b. Assault
c. Affray
d. Unlawful assembly
58. Which one of the following is NOT included in the word 'Cattle' under Police Act, 1861?
a. Camel
b. Goat
c. Horse
d. Dog
59. Under Section 122 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 'privilege' is available to
a. Magistrates
b. Advocates
c. Judges
d. Husband and wife
60. Who among the following does NOT come within the purview of term "Court" as given under the Indian Evidence Act?
a. Magistrates
b. Judges
c. Arbitrators
d. The person legally authorised to take evidence
61. Provisions relating to reference and revision are provided under which Chapter of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973?
a. Chapter XXXI
b. Chapter XXX
c. Chapter XXIX
d. Chapter XXXII
62. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
a. Burden of proof
as to particular fact - Section 106 Indian
Evidence Act
b. Indecent and
scandalous question - Section 151, Indian
Evidence Act
c. Confidential
communication
with legal advisor - Section 127, Indian
Evidence Act
d. Questions intended to
insult or annoy - Section 155 Indian
Evidence Act
63. A Magistrate not being empowered by law in this behalf attaches and sells property under Section 83 of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 his proceedings
a. Shall not be void if he had acted in good faith
b. Shall be voidable
c. Shall be void
d. Shall be merely irregular
64. 'Making preparation to commit dacoity' is punishable in Indian Penal Code, 1860
a. Under Section 399
b. Under Section 395
c. Under Section 393
d. Under Section 396
65. Which one of the following cases relates with dying declaration?
a. R. Vs. Gorachand Gopi
b. Queen Vs. Abdullah
c. Mahboob Shah Vs. King Emperor
d. R. Vs. Prince
66. Section 113-B, 'presumption as to dowry death' was added to the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 in
a. 1961
b. 1983
c. 1986
d. 1962
67. Which of the following Section of Indian Penal Code is based on the Maxim "Di minimis non curat lex"?
a. Section 91
b. Section 85
c. Section 84
d. Section 95
68. Which provision of the Criminal Procedure Code resembles with Habeas Corpus writ?
a. Section 97
b. Section 93
c. Section 91
d. Section 96
69. Which one of the following Sections of Indian Evidence Act deals with relevancy of opinion as to digital signature?
a. Section 49 A
b. Section 46 A
c. Section 48 A
d. Section 47 A
70. Which Para of U.P. Police Regulations provide that dying declaration of a seriously injured person to be recorded immediately?
a. Para 114
b. Para 113
c. Para 112
d. Para 115
71. Match the following.
List-I List-II
A. Attempt to commit
culpable homicide 1. Section 351, I.P.C.
B. Attempt to commit
suicide 2. Section 362, L.P.C.
C. Assault 3. Section 308, I.P.C.
D. Abduction 4. Section 309, I.P.C.
Code:
A B C D
a. 4 2 1 3
b. 1 2 4 3
c. 3 4 2 1
d. 3 4 1 2
72. In which of the following cases, Constitutional Validity of Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act was challenged on the basis of being violative of Article 14 of the Constitution?
a. Nandini Satpathi Vs. P. L. Dhani
b. State of U.P. Va. Deoman Upadhyaya
c. State of Bombay Vs. Kathi Kalu
d. Inayatullah Vs. State of Maharashtra
73. When a search is required to be conducted outside India, a Criminal Court may under Section 166-A of Cr.P.C. issue a
a. Letter of requisition
b. Written order
c. Search warrant
d. Letter of request
74. Which of the following Sections of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 deals with 'Victim Compensation Scheme'?
a. Section 357A
b. Section 437A
c. Section 436A
d. Section 105A
75. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Subject-matter) (Sections of I.Ε.Α.)
A. Refreshing memory 1. Section 159
B. Dying declaration 2. Section 154
C. Leading questions 3. Section 32(1)
D. Hostile witness 4. Section 141
Code:
A B C D
a. 4 1 2 3
b. 3 2 4 1
c. 1 3 4 2
d. 1 2 3 4
76. Which provision of Para of U.P. Police Regulations is repealed that the police is under the control of the Public Prosecutor?
a. Para 39
b. Para 40
c. Para 38
d. Para 36
77. Which Chapter of the U.P. Police Regulation related to 'Arrest, Bail and Custody?
a. Chapter 22
b. Chapter 20
c. Chapter 13
d. Chapter 10
78. 'Sexual harassment’ is defined under the Indian Penal Code, 1860 in which Section?
a. Section 354C
b. Section 354B
c. Section 354A
d. Section 509
79. Relevancy of statements in maps, chart and plans is provided under
a. Section 38 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
b. Section 37 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
c. Section 36 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
d. Section 39 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
80. The term 'Local Jurisdiction' has been defined under which Section of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973?
a. Section 2(0)
b. Section 2(1)
c. Section 2(j)
d. Section 2(k)
81. Which Chapter of U.P. Police Regulations deals with "Mounted Police"?
a. Chapter 8
b. Chapter 7
c. Chapter 5
d. Chapter 6
82. Which of the following Sections of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 deals with 'Solitary Confinement'?
a. Section 73
b. Section 72
c. Section 71
d. Section 74
83. Which of the following facts does NOT fine mention as showing existence of state of mind or of body or bodily feeling under Section 14 of the Indian Evidence Act?
a. Negligence
b. Good faith
c. Knowledge
d. Motive
84. Who among the following has the power to commute a sentence under Section 433 of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973?
a. High Court
b. President of India
c. Supreme Court
d. Appropriate Government
85. Which of the following is correctly matched?
a. Fabricating false evidence - Section 192, I.P.C.
b. Harbouring offender - Section 52A, I.P.C.
c. Public nuisance - Section 267, I.P.C.
d. Affray - Section 146, I.P.C.
86. R. Vs. Lumley is a landmark judgement related with which Section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
a. Section 106
b. Section 105
c. Section 102
d. Section 107
87. 'A' finds a valuable ring. Not knowing to whom it belongs, 'A' sales it immediately without attending to discover the owner. 'A' has committed
a. Dishonest misappropriation of property
b. Attempt to theft
c. Theft
d. No offence
88. Under which Section of the Criminal Procedure Code, proclamation can be issued for a person absconding?
a. Section 81
b. Section 82
c. Section 83
d. Section 80
89. Which one of the following Sections deals with powers of special police officers under the Police Act, 1861?
a. Section 19
b. Section 18
c. Section 17
d. Section 20
90. 'Adulteration of drugs is made punishable under which Section of Indian Penal Code, 1860?
a. Section 274
b. Section 273
c. Section 272
d. section 275
91. Which one of the following kind of jurisdiction is NOT provided under Section 41 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
a. Insolvency
b. Admiralty
c. Revenue
d. Probate
92. Under Section 459 of Criminal Procedure Code (Amendment) Act, 2005 substituted the words less than "Ten Rupees' by the words less than
a. One Thousand Rupees
b. Two Hundred Rupees
c. Five Hundred Rupees
d. Two Thousand Rupees
93. Who can issue search warrant in respect of postal or telegraph authority?
a. Any revenue court of competent jurisdiction
b. Any civil court of competent jurisdiction
c. District Magistrate or Chief Judicial Magistrate
d. Only High Court
94. Which one of the following Sections of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 provides for admissibility of secondary evidence?
a. Section 63
b. Section 61
c. Section 60
d. Section 65
95. 'A' meets 'Z' on the high roads, shows a pistol and demands 'Z's purse. 'Z' in consequence surrenders his purse. 'A' has committed
a. Theft
b. Robbery
c. Extortion
d. Cheating
96. Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?
a. Arrest by private person - Section 43
b. Arrest by Magistrate - Section 45
c. Arrest without warrant by
Police Officer - Section 41
d. Arrest how made - Section 46
97. 'Rioting while armed with deadly weapon is punishable under which Section of Indian Penal Code, 1860?
a. Section 147
b. Section 146
c. Section 159
d. Section 148
98. According to Para 170 of U.P. Police Regulations, Public Prosecutor will inspect Malkhana'?
a. Once in three months
b. Once in a six months
c. Once in a year
d. Once in a month
99. Which one of the following Sections of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 relates to punishment for 'Abetment to commit suicide'?
a. Section 308
b. Section 307
c. Section 306
d. Section 309
100. Which one of the following Sections of the Police Act, 1861 contains provisions relating to 'General Diary'?
a. Section 46
b. Section 45
c. Section 44
d. Section 49
101. Abetment of any offence, if the act abetted is committed in consequence and where no express provision is made for its punishment is dealt under which Section?
a. Section 111 of I.P.C., 1860
b. Section 110 of I.P.C., 1860
c. Section 109 of I.P.C., 1860
d. Section 112 of I.P.C., 1860
102. Chapter V of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is related to
a. Oral evidence
b. Facts which need not be proved
c. Expert opinion
d. Documentary evidence
103. Under which of the following provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, the accused can file written statements in support of his defence?
a. Section 232(2)
b. Section 231(2)
c. Section 230(2)
d. Section 233(2)
104. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Sections of Cr.P.C.) (Subject Matter)
A. Section 272 1. Complaint
B. Section 2(d) 2. Language of the Court
C. Section 321 3. Withdrawal of complaint
D. Section 257 4. Withdrawal from
prosecution
Code:
A B C D
a. 2 1 4 3
b. 2 3 4 1
c. 4 3 2 1
d. 3 2 1 4
105. What is the minimum period of imprisonment for releasing an accused on bail under Section 436A of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973?
a. 1/3 of maximum period of imprisonment
b. 1/2 of maximum period of imprisonment
c. 1/4 of maximum period of imprisonment
d. No period prescribed
106. In which one of the following Sections of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 provisions relating to legal aid has been provided?
a. Section 306
b. Section 305
c. Section 304
d. Section 310
107. Which of the following Section of the Indian Evidence Act imposes an obligation on public officer to provide certified copy of public document?
a. Section 76
b. Section 78
c. Section 72
d. Section 77
108. 'Promoting enmity between different groups on the ground of religion' is punishable under which Section of Indian Penal Code, 1860?
a. Section 153 AA
b. Section 153
c. Section 153A
d. Section 153В
109. Which one of the following Sections of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 says: "facts admitted need not be proved"?
a. Section 58
b. Section 18
c. Section 55
d. Section 21
110. 'Electronic record' under Indian Penal Code, 1860 is defined in
a. Section 29B
b. Section 29A
c. Section 29
d. Section 29D
111. Which of the following Sections of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is NOT related with the criminal matters?
a. Section 23
b. Section 27
c. Section 133
d. Section 53
112. Which one of the following is NOT correctly matched?
a. Counterfeit Section 28, I.P.C.
b. Wrongful loss Section 24, I.P.C.
c. Wrongful gain Section 23, I.P.C.
d. Punishment Section 53, I.P.C.
113. Which Section of the Police Act, 1861 deals with power of District Superintendent of Police to regulate the volume of music on the roads on the occasion of festivals?
a. Section 30 (Clause 4)
b. Section 27 (Clause 2)
c. Section 15A (Clause 4)
d. Section 16 (Clause 3)
114. Which of the following has a power to withdraw a case under Section 409 of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973?
a. High Court
b. Supreme Court
c. Judicial Magistrate
d. Session Judge
115. The term 'voluntarily’ has been defined in which Section of Indian Penal Code, 1860?
a. Section 30
b. Section 24
c. Section 39
d. Section 25
116. Which of the Section of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 provides that the person accused of an offence shall be a competent witness for the defence?
a. Section 315
b. Section 313
c. Section 312
d. Section 316
117. 'Disclosure of identity of victim of rape' is punishable in Indian Penal Code, 1860 under which Section?
a. Section 229
b. Section 228-B
c. Section 228-A
d. Section 229-A
118. Who prepares a panel of names for the appointment of Public Prosecutor?
a. District Magistrate in consultation with Session's Judge
b. Session's Judge
c. District Magistrate
d. District Supply Officer
119. Match the List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the code given below the lists:
List - I List-II
A. Insanity as a defence 1. Barendra Kumar
Ghosh Vs. Emperor
B. Common intention 2. R. Vs. McNaughten
C. Necessity 3. Vishwanath Vs.
State of U.P.
D. Private defence 4. R. Vs. Dudley and
Stephen
Code:
A B C D
a. 3 4 2 1
b. 2 1 4 3
c. 1 2 3 4
d. 3 4 1 2
120. Under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 the Judge's power to put questions or order the production of any document is provided?
a. Section 163
b. Section 164
c. Section 165
d. Section 162
121. Under which of the following Sections of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 the accused shall be supplied the copy of Police report and other documents by the Magistrate?
a. Section 210
b. Section 205
c. Section 207
d. Section 209
122. 'Penalty for harbouring robbers or dacoits' has been provided under which Section of the Indian Penal Code, 1860?
a. Section 216A
b. Section 216
c. Section 215A
d. Section 217
123. Which Section of the Police Act, 1861 is related to 'Village Police Officers'?
a. Section 22
b. Section 20
c. Section 21
d. Section 23
124. 'A' entices away 'B's wife from the house of 'B'. 'A' has committed the offence under
a. Section 496 of Indian Penal Code
b. Section 497 of Indian Penal Code
c. Section 498 of Indian Penal Code
d. Section 498 A of Indian Penal Code
125. Which Paras of the UP. Police Regulations deals with the Absconded Offenders'?
a. 215 to 222
b. 196 to 214
c. 100 to 195
d. 223 to 276
126. Match List - I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I List-II
A. Section 413, I.P.C. 1. Cheating by
personation
B. Section 416, I.P.C. 2. Mischief by fire or
explosive substance
with intent to
destroy house
C. Section 436, I.P.C. 3. Criminal trespass
D. Section 441, I.P.C. 4. Habitually dealing
in stolen property
Code:
A B C D
a. 3 2 4 1
b. 1 4 3 2
c. 4 1 2 3
d. 2 4 1 3
127. Pardon may be tendered to an accomplice under Section 306 Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 when
a. He undertakes to make full and true disclosure of the facts relating to the offence
b. He is declared insane
c. He is not in a position to stand trial due to infirm health
d. None of the above
128. Section 131 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 was amended in the year
a. 2001
b. 2000
c. 1999
d. 2002
129. Which of the following combinations is correctly matched?
a. Attempt to commit
suicide Section 306, I.P.C.
b. Basudeo Va. State
of Pepsu Section 86, I.P.C.
c. Unsoundness of
mind Section 87, I.P.C.
d. Bigamy Section 497, I.P.C
130. Proof as to verification of digital signature is provided under which Section of Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
a. Section 85A
b. Section 73A
c. Section 67A
d. Section 85C
131. A hangman, who hang the prisoner in pursuant to the order of the Court, is exempted from criminal liability by virtue of which Section of Indian Penal Code, 1860?
a. Section 79
b. Section 78
c. Section 77
d. Section 76
132. The case of Dagdu Vs. State of Maharashtra is related with
a. Res-gestae
b. Burden of proof
c. Accomplice
d. Hostile witness
133. 'A' attempts to pick the pocket of 'Z' by thrusting his hand into 'Z's pocket. 'A' fails in his attempt as 'Z' had nothing in his pocket. What offence 'A' had committed?
a. Mischief
b. Attempt to commit theft
c. Theft
d. No offence
134. The case of Pakala Narayan Swami Vs. Emperor relates to
a. Dying declaration
b. Accomplice
c. Doctrine of estoppel
d. Cross-examination
135. Offences against public justice' are provided under which Chapter of Indian Penal Code, 1860?
a. Chapter XII
b. Chapter XI
c. Chapter X
d. Chapter XIII
136. Which Section of the Police Act, 1861 is related to 'Special Police Officers'?
a. Section 17
b. Section 24
c. Section 22
d. Section 18
137. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the code given below the list:
List-I List-II
(Subject matter) (Sections of
Cr. P.C.)
A. Appeals from convictions 1. Section 375
B. No appeals in petty cases 2. Section 378
C. Appeals in case of Acquittal 3. Section 376
D. No appeals in certain cases
when accused pleads guilty 4. Section 374
Code:
A B C D
a. 4 3 2 1
b. 3 2 1 4
c. 1 3 2 4
d. 3 1 4 2
138. 'A' introduces water into an ice-house belonging to 'Z' and thus causes the ice to melt, intending wrongful loss to 'Z'. 'A' has committed
a. Criminal breach of trust
b. Mischief
c. Extortion
d. No offence
139. 'A' is tried for the murder of 'B'. The facts that: 'A' had murdered 'C' and that 'B' had tried to extort money from 'A' by threatening to make his knowledge public are relevant under
a. Section 7
b. Section 9
c. Section 8
d. Section 11
140. Which one of the following Sections of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 provides sentence of imprisonment in default of fine?
a. Section 32
b. Section 31
c. Section 30(1)
d. Section 34
141. Which one of the following Paras of the Police Regulations provide that it is the personal duty of the police thana incharge not to keep a person of unsound mind in the same cell with other persons?
a. Para 162
b. Para 161
c. Para 160
d. Para 168
142. 'A' lays sticks and turf over a pit, with the intention thereby causing death. 'Z' believing the ground to be firm, treads on it, falls in and is killed. 'A' is guilty of
a. Abetment
b. Culpable homicide
c. Criminal conspiracy
d. Murder
143. Section 113-A of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 was added in the year
a. 1988
b. 1983
c. 1982
d. 1980
144. Which Sections of the Indian Penal Code provide for the offences relating to the Army, Navy and Air force?
a. Section 131 to 140
b. Section 124 to 129
c. Section 171-A to 171-1
d. Section 165 to 171
145. Provisions regarding certificates to police officers are provided under which Section of Police Act, 1861?
a. Section 7
b. Section 5
c. Section 6
d. Section 8
146. Which one of the following combinations is NOT correctly matched?
1. Dowry death - Section 498 A
2. Rape - Section 377
3. Adultery - Section 497
4. Robbery - Section 391
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1, 2 and 4
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 2, 3 and 4
147. In a criminal proceeding, 'Charge' is framed by
a. The Executive Magistrate
b. The Police
c. The Court
d. The Complainant
148. Which one of the following Sections of Cr. P.C., 1973 prohibits the male Police Officer from touching the person of a woman while making her arrest?
a. Proviso of Section 46 (1)
b. Proviso of Section 42 (2)
c. Proviso of Section 41 (1)
d. None of the above
149. By which one of the following Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, the 'Clause Seventh' have been inserted under Section 100 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860?
a. Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2018
b. Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013
c. Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 1983
d. Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2019
150. Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?
Offence Section of Indian Penal Code, 1860
a. Dacoity Section 391
b. Robbery Section 390
c. Extortion Section 383
d. Theft Section 388