Previous Year Question Papers · UP APO Previous Year Question English Medium · UP APO PYQs - 2015 (English Medium)
UP APO PYQs - 2015 (English Medium)
22 min read
UP APO 2015
GS
1. Who among the following has recently been appointed a new Central Vigilance Commissioner?
a. T.M. Bhasin
b. K.V. Chaudhary
c. Pradeep Kumar
d. None of the above
2. Which one of the following was the host country for the World Environment Day (WED) 2015?
a. Brazil
b. Italy
c. China
d. Australia
3. Which one of the following countries has recently decided to discard its virtually worthless national currency?
a. South Africa
b. Kenya
c. Sudan
d. Zimbabwe
4. In which one of the following countries the 16th World Sanskrit Conference was held?
a. Nepal
b. Thailand
c. Bhutan
d. Bahrain
5. Who among the following Indian mathematicians invented metric system?
a. Aryabhatta
b. Pingala
c. Gargi
d. Bhaskar
6. Who among the following rishis composed Gayatri Mantra?
a. Vashistha
b. Vishwamitra
c. Bhrigu
d. Gargi
7. Who among the following added the doctrine of ‘Bharhmacharya’ in Jainism?
a. Parshvanath
b. Neminath
c. Mahavir
d. None of the above
8. Which one of the following is not mentioned in Rigveda?
a. Janapad
b. Jana
c. Grama
d. Kula
9. In which of the following jails, Rajendra Laheri was hanged?
a. Faizabad
b. Gorakhpur
c. Gonda
d. Lucknow
10. Who among the following first used the term ‘Swaraj’?
a. Mahatma Gandhi
b. Dadabhai Naoroji
c. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
d. Gopal Krishna Gokhale
11. Gadar’ newspaper was published from
a. France
b. Germany
c. America
d. England
12. Who among the following was the President of the Indian National Congress on 15th August, 1947?
a. Jawaharlal Nehru
b. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
c. J.B. Kripalani
d. Abul Kalam Azad
13. The word ‘Satyagrah’ was given by
a. Mahatma Gandhi
b. Maganlal Gandhi
c. Devadas Gandhi
d. Kasturba Gandhi
14. The first Governor General of India, was appointed in
a. 1774
b. 1833
c. 1858
d. 1911
15. The newspaper brought out by Bal Gangadhar Tilak to promote nationalism was
a. Yugantar
b. Kesari
c. Deshbhakti
d. Kranti
16. Who among the following gave ‘Inquilab Zindabad’ slogan?
a. Iqbal
b. M.K. Gandhi
c. Bhagat Singh
d. S.C. Bose
17. Who among the following was the first Indian o get selected in I.C.S. (Indian Civil Services)?
a. Satyendra Nath Tagore
b. Sarojird Naidu
c. Lala Lajpat Rai
d. C.R. Das
18. The Moti Masjid in Agra was built during whose reign?
a. Humayun
b. Shahjahan
c. Aurangzeb
d. ShahAlamll
19. The revenue system during Akbar’s reign was in the hands of
a. Bairam Khan
b. Mansingh
c. Birbal
d. Todarmal
20. Who among the following first used the word ‘Renaissance’?
a. Mechelet
b. Dante
c. Thomas Acquinas
d. Kant
21. The ‘Renaissance’ is based on which one of the following concepts?
a. God is the centre of the Universe.
b. Pope is the centre of the Universe.
c. Man is the centre of the Universe.
d. None of the above.
22. In which year, the two words ‘Socialist’ and ‘Secular’ were added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
a. 1976
b. 1977
c.1978
d. 1979
23. According to the Constitution of India which among the following is empowered to establish the new States?
a. President
b. Parliament
c. Supreme Court
d. Cabinet
24. In India, the Prime Minister is
a. Elected
b. Selected
c. Nominated
d. Appointed
25. According to the Constitution of India which one of the following is supreme?
a. The President
b. The Supreme Court
c. The Parliament
d. The Constitution
26. To whom among the following will the Lokayukta of Uttar Pradesh address his resignation letter?
a. Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh
b. Governor of Uttar Pradesh
c. Chief Justice of High Court
d. Speaker of Vidhan Sabha
27. Who among the following is often described as the father of Indian I.T. sector?
a. N.R. Narayan Murthy
b. Tata Jamshedji
c. Lalit Modi
d. None of the above
28. A Judge of Supreme Court may resign his office by writing a letter to
a. The Chief Justice of India
b. The President
c. The Prime Minister
d. The Law Minister
29. The largest coffee producing country of the world in 2013 is
a. Ethiopia
b. Mexico
c. Vietnam
d. Brazil
30. Which of the following Indian States does not border Bangladesh?
a. Assam
b. Meghalaya
c. Manipur
d. Tripura
31. The largest gold producing country of the world in 2011 is
a. United States of America
b. Australia
c. China
d. South Africa
32. The largest island of the world in area is
a. Coco
b. Madagascar
c. Greenland
d. Canary
33. Aswan High-Dam has been built on which of the following rivers?
a. Columbia River
b. Danube River
c. Nile River
d. Irrawadi river
34. Which one among the following countries had the largest population in 2014?
a. Russian Federation
b. Bangladesh
c. Japan
d. Mexico
35. Which one of the following countries is the second largest country of the world in terms of geographical area?
a. China
b. Canada
c. Australia
d. United States
36. The full of ISRO is
a. Indian Statistical Record Organisation
b. Indian Scientific Research Organisation
c. Indian Spice Research Organisation
d. Indian Space Research Organisation
37. Which one of the following compounds does not occur in tea leaves?
a. Atropine
b. Theine
c. Theobromine
d. Theophylline
38. Which one of the following substances is the richest source of Vitamin A?
a. Yeast
b. Cheese
c. Golden rice
d. Orange
39. Which one of the following is called white gold?
a. Mercury
b. Platinum
c. Petroleum
d. None of the above
40. Till June 2015, how many times the nuclear weapons have been used in warfare?
a. 05
b. 04
c. 03
d. 02
41. Which one of the following is known as red planet?
a. Moon
b. Jupiter
c. Saturn'
d. Mars
42. Which one of the following diseases is caused, by virus?
a. Diphtheria
b. Malaria
c. Cholera
d. Hepatitis
43. “Micas” is a new technique used for
a. Angioplasty
b. By-pass surgery
c. Knee replacement surgery
d. Brain surgery
44. The first stem-cell bank of India has been opened in
a. Kolkata
b. New Delhi
c. Chennai
d. Hyderabad
45. Which one of the following typhoons hit South China’s Hainan province?
a. Katrina
b. Hud-Hud
c. Kujira
d. Phylin
46. Which Airport will be the first in India to get ground-based augmentation system?
a. Ahmedabad Airport
b. Mumbai Airport
c. Chennai Airport
d. Varanasi Airport
47. Who among the following has launched India’s first air-conditioned DEMU train in Kochi?
a. Prime Minister
b. Railway Minister
c. Chief Minister of Kerala
d. Science and Technology Minister
48. According to the Global Peace Index-2015, which one of the following is the most peaceful country?
a. Brazil
b. Denmark
c. Iceland
d. Ireland
49. According to the Global Peace Index-2015, which of the following is the least peaceful country?
a. Egypt
b. Pakistan
c. Iraq
d. Syria
50. According to the Finance Ministry which one of the following States has the highest per- capita debt?
a. Goa
b. Mizoram
c. Sikkim
d. Himachal Pradesh
LAW
51. In which one of the following Sections of I.P.C., “Kidnapping or maiming a minor for begging” has been discussed?
a. Section 363
b. Section 364
c. Section 363A
d. Section 364A
52. How many kinds of hurts are grievous hurt under Section 320 of I.P.C.?
a. 6
b. 7
c. 8
d. 9
53. Which one of the following is a continuing offence?
a. Abetment
b. Rape
c. Abduction
d. Theft
54. Which of the following is not matched correctly under Indian Penal Code?
a. Thug - Section 309
b. Counterfeiting coins - Section 231
c. Bribery - Section171B
d. Gender - Section 8
55. ‘A’, having insured his shop, voluntarily causes fire to his shop, intending to realize insured money from the insurance company. ‘A’ has committed
a. Mischief
b. Cheating
c. Extortion
d. None of the above
56. Read the following:
1. The maxim "Actus me invito factus non est mens acts" finds application in Section 94 of I.P.C.
2. The maxim "diminimis non curat lex" has been incorporated in Section 95 of I.P.C.
Of the above:
a. (1) is true and (2) is false.
b. (1) is false and (2) is true.
c. Both (1) and (2) are true.
d. Both (1) and (2) are false.
57. A’ is at work with a hatchet, the head flies off md kills a man who is standing nearby. ‘A’ is Guilty of
a. Murder
b. Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
c. Grievous hurt
d. No offence
58. X having sufficient food, does not provide some food to a beggar, who dies of hunger. X is guilty of
a. No offence
b. Attempt to murder
c. Murder
d. Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
59. Read the following:
1. Indian Courts have jurisdiction to try crime committed by an Indian in a foreign country.
2. Indian Courts do not have jurisdiction to try crime committed by a foreigner in India.
Of the above:
a. (1) is true but (2) is false
b. (1) is false but (2) is true
c. Both (1) and (2) are true
d. Both (1) and (2) are false
60. Read the following:
1. R v. McNaughten is the case related with insanity as a defence.
2. R v. Govinda is the case related with common intention.
Of the above:
a. (1) is true but (2) is false
b. (1) j is false but (2) is true
c. Both (1) and (2) are true
d. Both (1) and (2) are false
61. Read the following:
1. R v. Dudley & Stephens is the case related with necessity.
2. State v. K.M. Nanawati is the case related with murder on grave and sudden provocation
Of the above:
a. (1) is true but (2) is false
b. (1) is false but (2) is true
c. Both (1) and (2) are true
d. Both (1) and (2) are false
62. ‘X’ on receiving grave and sudden provocation from ‘Z’, intentionally causes the death of ‘Y’, who is brother of ‘Z’, ‘X’ has committed the offence of
a. Murder
b. Culpable homicide not amounting to murder.
c. Grievous hint
d. Attempt to murder
63. ‘A’ finds a ring lying on the high-road not in the possession of any person. He keeps it to himself. ‘A’ has committed
a. Theft
b. Criminal misappropriation
c. Criminal breach of trust
d. None of the above
64. ‘A’ cuts down a tree on B’s land with the intention of dishonestly taking the tree out of B’s possession without B’s consent. A has committed
a. No offence until the tree is taken away
b. The offence of criminal misappropriation of property
c. The offence of criminal breach of trust
d. The offence of theft
65. ‘A’, claiming to be a family planning expert gave ‘X’ some chemical. After consuming the chemical, the child in the womb of ‘X’ die in the womb. ‘A’ has committed
a. No offence
b. Offence of murder
c. Offence of culpable homicide not amounting to murder
d. Offence of causing miscarriage
66. Shatrughan Chauhan v. Union of India (2014) 3 SCC 1 is the case related to
a. Giving false evidence before the court
b. Waging war against the state
c. Commutation of death sentence to life imprisonment
d. None of the above
67. In which of the following cases, recently the Supreme Court has upheld the constitutional validity of a criminal statute in “offences against the order of the nature”?
a. National Legal Services Authority v. Union of India
b. Charu Khurana v. Union of India
c. Jaya Bhaduri v. Union of India
d. Suresh Kumar Kaushal v. Naz Foundation
68. ‘A’ sought to appear at the B.A. examination on the basis of forged marksheet of Intermediate. But forged marksheet was detected before the commencement of examination. ‘A’ is guilty of
a. Cheating
b. Attempt to cheat
c. Criminal breach of trust
d. None of the above
69. Robbery is dacoity when the minimum number of persons committing robbery is
a. 10 persons
b. 5 persons
c. 6 persons
d. 4 persons
70. ‘A’ intentionally pulls up a woman’s veil in order to annoy her. ‘A’ commits:
a. Wrongful restraint
b. Assault
c. Criminal force
d. Defamation
71. Which Section of I.P.C. provide for “imprisonment for non-payment of fine, when offence punishable with fine only”?
a. Section 63
b. Section 64
c. Section 67
d. None of the above
72. Which of the following Section of I.P.C. provide for solitary confinement of a convict?
a. Section 71
b. Section 72
c. Section 73
d. None of the above
73. In which of the following offences, guilty intention is not an essential element?
a. Murder
b. Theft
c. Robbery
d. Bigamy
74. When two or more persons fight in a public place and commit breach of peace, they commit
a. Riot
b. Robbery
c. Affray
d. No offence
75. “Any such fact which possesses probative force, is called evidence.” This definition belongs to
a. Salmond
b. Stephen
c. Phipson
d. Bentham
76. Who can make an admission under the Indian Evidence Act?
a. Person from whom interest derived
b. An independent person
c. Witness to a proceeding
d. The Court
77. Which, among the following is not a “public document”?
a. Arrest warrant
b. Charge-sheet
c. Postmortem Report
d. A registered sale deed
78. Electronic records were included in Section 3 the Evidence Act w.e.f. from:
a. 17 October, 2000
b. 10 October, 2000
c. 2 October, 2000
d. 14 November, 2000
79. Match List-I and List-II and find out the correct answer according to code given below the lists:
List-I List-II
a. Document 1. Section 3
b. Primary Evidence 2. Section 62
c. Secondary Evidence 3. Section 63
d. Oral Evidence 4. Section 60
a b c d
a. 2 3 1 4
b. 1 2 3 4
c. 3 2 1 4
d. 2 1 4 3
80. Which Section of Evidence Act deals with rule of res gestae?
a. Section 7
b. Section 9
c. Section 10
d. Section 6
81. For an offence under Section 376 I.P.C., evidence of character of the victim is not relevant under which Section of the Evidence Act?
a. Section 53A
b. Section 114A
c. Section 53
d. Section 119
82. “Presumption of Life” is contained in which of following Section of the Indian Evidence Act?
a. Section 108
b. Section 106
c. Section 104
d. Section 107
83. Which one of the following Section of the Indian Evidence Act, gives effect to the principle that “possession is the prima facie evidence of a complete title”?
a. Section 110
b. Section 112
c. Section 113
d. Section 114
84. Under which Section of Evidence Act continuous cohabitation for a number of years may raise the presumption of marriage?
a. Section 112
b. Section 50
c. Section 114
d. None of the above
85. Which Section of the Indian Evidence Act provides that no particular number of witnesses shall in any case be required for the proof of any fact?
a. Section 135
b. Section 134
c. Section 136
d. Section 132
86. Which one of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act provides provision relating to “refreshing memory”?
a. Section 161
b. Section 160
c. Section 159
d. Section 158
87. Which section of Indian Evidence Act makes the provision that there shall be no new trial on the ground of improper admission or rejection of evidence?
a. Section 166
b. Section 167
c. Section 165
d. Section 161
88. A plea of alibi
a. Is a special exception under I.P.C.
b. Is a general exception under I.P.C.
c. Is only a rule of evidence recognized in Section 11 is Evidence Act
d. None of the above
89. A “dying declaration” can be
a. Oral
b. In writing
c. In any adequate method of communication
d. All the above
90. A witness unable to speak, gives evidence by sign-gestures in open court. Such evidence is
a. Oral evidence
b. Secondary evidence
c. Special evidence
d. Circumstantial evidence
91. Under Evidence Act, value of medical evidence
a. Is only corroborative
b. Is conclusive
c. Is of no assistance
d. Is conclusive even if contrary to credible and trustworthy evidence of eye¬witness
92. Facts alleged by one party and denied by the other in a case is termed as
a. Negative facts
b. Relevant facts
c. Facts in issue
d. Positive facts
93. Assertion (A): Proviso to Section 132, Evidence Act is a facet of rule "against self-incrimination".
Reason (R): Policy of Section 132, Evidence Act is to procure evidence for doing justice.
Of the above:
a. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
b. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
c. (A) is true, but (R) is false
d. (A) is false, but (R) is true
94. Under Section 45 of the Evidence Act, the opinion of the expert cannot be sought for
a. Foreign law
b. Science or Art
c. Indian law
d. Finger impression
95. In which of the following cases, constitutional validity of Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act was challenged on the basis of being violative of Article 20(3) of the Constitution?
a. State of U.P. v. Deoman Upadhyay
b. State of Bombay v. Kathikalu
c. Inayatullah v. State of Maharashtra
d. Nandini Satpathi v. P.L. Dhani
96. R.M. Malkani v. State of Maharashtra (AIR 1973 SC 157) deals with admissibility of
a. Tape recorded evidence
b. Admission made to public
c. Expert opinion
d. Hearsay evidence
97. Case of Sharard Chandra Dey v. Gopal Chandra Laha is concerned with
a. Confession
b. Conspiracy
c. Presumption
d. Estoppel
98. A is accused of the murder of B. At his trial which of the following facts may be in issue?
1. A caused B's death
2. A is an honest person
3. A had received grave and sudden provocation from B
4. A was awarded for social services
Select correct answer:
a. 1 & 2
b. 1 & 3
c. 1,2 & 3
d. 1,2,3 & 4
99. Section 112 of the Indian Evidence Act
a. Creates a legal fiction
b. Does not provide for presumption
c. Provides for conclusive presumption which can be rebutted by DNA Test
d. Provides for conclusive test not rebuttable in any case
100. Under which section of Cr.P.C., court has discretionary power to summon any person as a witness?
a. Section 311
b. Section 319
c. Section 311A
d. Section 313
101. X is charged for promoting enmity between two groups on the ground of language; Whose previous sanction is required before a court takes cognizance of this offence under Cr.P.C?
a. District Magistrate
b. High Court
c. Central Government or State Government
d. None of the above
102. Under Section 145 Cr.P.C. in disputes as to immovable property, the Executive Magistrate can decide the question of
a. Possession and title
b. Actual possession
c. Title
d. All the above
103. Read the following:
1. FIR is only a report about the commission of a crime.
2. FIR in itself is a substantial evidence.
a. (1) is true, but (2) is false
b. (1) is false, but (2) is true
c. Both (1) and (2) are true
d. Both (1) and (2) are false
104. Children of Muslim parents are
a. Not entitled to maintenance under Section 125 Cr.P.C.
b. Not entitled to maintenance under Section 125 Cr.P.C. if living with divorced wife
c. Entitled to maintenance
d. Not governed by Cr.P.C.
105. Warrant case means a case relating to an offence
a. Punishable with death
b. Punishable with imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a term exceeding two years
c. Punishable with imprisonment not exceeding two years
d. (a) and (b) above
106. ‘A’ is accused of theft on the occasion and of causing grievous hurt on another occasion. A must be
a. Charged separately for theft and for causing grievous hurt.
b. Charged jointly for theft and causing grievous hurt
c. Tried jointly for theft and for causing grievous hurt
d. Charged jointly for theft and for causing grievous hurt but tried separately for those two offences
107. Provisions relating to “plea bargaining” is applicable to
a. Offences affecting socio-economic conditions of India
b. Offences committed against women
c. Offences against children below 14 years of age
d. None of the above
108. If a presiding Judge of a court fails to sign and date the judgment, it amounts to
a. Incurable procedural irregularity
b. Procedural irregularity curable under section 465(1), cr.p.c.
c. Substantive irregularity
d. Illegality
109. A is an accused of theft after arrest he remained 90 days in preventive detention. After this he was imprisoned for one year. Is he entitled for set-off of 90 days?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Entitled for set-off for 45 days
d. Entitled for set-off for 30 days
110. Which one of the following remedies have not been provided under the Criminal Procedure Code?
a. Reference
b. Review
c. Revision
d. Appeal
111. Which one of the following sections of the Cr.P.C. deals with the prosecution of offences against Marriage?
a. Section 198
b. Section 199
c. Section 197
d. None of the above
112. Which Section of the Cr.P.C. resembles with the writ of habeas corpus?
a. Section 96
b. Section 97
c. Section 98
d. Section 99
113. A Judicial Magistrate may record any confession
a. In the course of trial
b. In the course of inquiry
c. In the course of investigation
d. All of the above
114. Who can issue a search warrant to search a post-office?
a. District Magistrate
b. Civil Court
c. High Court
d. Executive Magistrate
115. Cognizance of the offence of ‘defamation’ under Chapter XXI of IPC can be taken
a. On a police report
b. On complaint made by aggrieved person
c. Suo motu by court
d. All the above
116. In which of the following Sections of Cr.P.C. provision for treatment of victims has been made?
a. Section 357
b. Section 357A
c. Section 357B
d. Section 357C
117. ‘Public Prosecutor’, under Section 2(u) of the Cr.P.C. means and includes
a. Any person appointed under Section 24.
b. Any person acting under the direction of a Public Prosecutor
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of the above
118. Which one of the following Sections of Cr.P.C. contains the law relating to compensatory justice?
a. Section 355
b. Section 356
c. Section 357
d. Section 359
119. Under Criminal Procedure Code, legal protection has been provided to an accused who is of unsound mind. The provision finds place in
a. Section 328
b. Section 331
c. Section 334
d. All of the above
120. Jurisdiction to grant ‘anticipatory bail’ vests with
a. Chief Judicial Magistrate
b. The Court of Sessions only
c. The High Court only
d. Both (b) and (c)
121. Sentences which Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass
a. Sentence of death
b. Imprisonment for life
c. Imprisonment for a term exceeding seven years
d. Imprisonment for a term less than seven years
122. Which of the following Sections of Cr.P.C. provides for recording remarks respecting demeanours of witness?
a. Section 288
b. Section 280
c. Section 278
d. Section 270
123. When the officer in-charge of the police station receives information that a person has committed suicide, he will immediately report to the
a. Judicial Magistrate
b. Executive Magistrate
c. Chief Judicial Magistrate
d. High Court
124. “A police officer is bound to register an FIR upon receiving any information relating to commission of a cognizable offence under Section 154 of Cr.P.C.” It was observed by the SC in the case of
a. Lalita Kumari v. State of U.P.
b. Kalyan v. State of U.P.
c. Nand Kumar v. State of Chhattisgarh
d. Narendra v. State of Rajasthan
125. Which one of the following Sections of the Police Act, 1861, provides that a police officer is always on duty and may be deployed in any part of the general police district?
a. Section 20
b. Section 21
c. Section 22
d. Section 23
126. Section 7 of the Police Act, 1861 is related to
a. Departmental Action
b. Judicial Action
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of the above
127. Under the Uttar Pradesh Police Regulations, a village chowkidar is responsible to the
a. District Superintendent of Police
b. Superintendent of Police (Rural)
c. Village Pradhan
d. District Magistrate
128. Under Section 15(3) of Police Act (dealing with disturbed or troubled areas), the cost of additional police force shall be borne by
a. Residents of the area
b. State Government
c. Local Bodies
d. Police Department
129. Which one of the following is not included within the meaning of ‘animal’ under Police Act, 1861?
a. Dog
b. Sheep
c. Goat
d. All the above
130. Who is the officer in-charge of a police station (Thana) from among the followings?
a. Head Constable
b. Assistant Sub-inspector of Police
c. Sub-Inspector of Police
d. Dy. Supdtt of Police
131. After examination of any injury or after death, the medical officer will prepare report in
a. Two copies
b. Three copies
c. Four copies
d. Such number as demanded by relative of victim
132. In which one of the following Paras of U.P. Police Regulations, it has been laid down that the constables of the civil police shall not be armed except on special occasions?
a. Para 58
b. Para 59
c. Para 61
d. Para 63
133. Who, among the following, will appoint Head Constables in armed Police through promotion from constables of the district police force?
a. Assistant Supdt. of Police
b. Dy. Supdt. of Police
c. Suptd. of Police
d. Magistrate with the consultation of Supdt. of Police
134. Which Section of the Police Act deals with power of District Supdt. of Police to regulate the volume of music on the roads on the occasion of festivals?
a. Section 15A (Clause 4)
b. Section 27 (Clause 2)
c. Section 30 (Clause 4)
d. Section 16 (Clause 3)
135. Who among the following officers can order for conduct of public gathering, public movement on public roads, lanes and roads?
a. Police Thana incharge
b. Superintendent of Police
c. Magistrate
d. Any of the above
136. Police officer will take unclaimed property (the property of which owner is not known) into his possession but for its disposal, whose orders are to be taken in consideration for guidance?
a. In charge of Police Thana
b. His Senior Police Officer
c. District Magistrate
d. State Government
137. Which one of the following Paras of Police Regulations provide that it is the personal duty of the Police Thana Incharge not to keep a person of unsound mind in the same cell with other persons?
a. Para 160
b. Para 161
c. Para 162
d. Para 163
138. Which one of the following sections deals with powers of special police officers under the Police Act, 1861?
a. Section 17
b. Section 18
c. Section 19
d. Section 20
139. Which one of the following is not correctly matched as per U.P. Police Regulations?
a. Armed Police — Chapter 6
b. Mounted Police — Chapter 8
c. Village Police — Chapter 9
d. Investigations — Chapter 10
140. “Court of Justice” is defined in I.P.C. under
a. Section 17
b. Section 18
c. Section 19
d. Section 20
141. Which one of the following sections of I.P.C. applies the maxim, “Ignorance of law is no excuse”?
a. Section 77
b. Section 78
c. Section 79
d. None of the above
142. Match the following:
List-I List-II
(Offence) (Sections of IPC)
A. Criminal conspiracy 1. Section 307
B. Attempt to murder 2. Section 383
C. Culpable Homicide 3. Section 120A
D. Extortion 4. Section 299
A B C D
a. 3 1 4 2
b. 1 2 3 4
c. 4 3 2 1
d. 3 4 1 2
143. ‘A’ obtained a sum of Rs. 10,000/- from ‘B’ by putting ‘B’ in fear of death. Which one of the following offences was committed by ‘A’?
a. Cheating
b. Robbery
c. Mischief
d. Extortion
144. “Dishonest misappropriation of property” is an offence against:
a. Movable property
b. Immovable property
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of the above
145. Under which one of the following Sections of IPC, rash and negligent driving of vehicle on public way is an offence?
a. Section 278
b. Section 273
c. Section 279
d. Section 280
146. Read the following:
1. There is either theft or extortion in robbery.
2. The offence of theft becomes robbery when it is coupled with danger of life.
Of the above:
a. (1) is true but (2) is false
b. (1) is false but (2) is true
c. (1) and (2) both are true
d. (1) and (2) both are false
147. ‘Z’ is carried off by a tiger. ‘A’ fires at the tiger knowing it to be likely that the shot may kill Z but not intending to kill Z; and in good faith intending Z’s benefit. A’s bullet gives Z a mortal wound. A shall be guilty of
a. Murder
b. Culpable homicides not amounting to murder
c. Causing death by accident
d. No offence
148. Section 304B and Section 498A of IPC are
a. Mutually inclusive
b. Not mutually inclusive
c. Used only by supreme court
d. Not to be used generally
149. ‘A’, by falsely pretending to be in the civil service, intentionally deceives ‘Z’, and thus dishonestly induces ‘Z’ to let him have on credit goods for which he does not mean to pay. ‘A’ has committed
a. Cheating by personation
b. Cheating
c. Extortion
d. None of the above
150. ‘A’ distributes compact disk (CD) to ‘B’, a young boy of 19 years, for seeing obscene pictures for recreation. ‘A’ has committed an offence under which of the following sections of Indian Penal Code?
a. Section 292
b. Section 293
c. Section 294
d. Section 295