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Indian Arms Act One Liner Notes
There are 4 Sets of MCQs available for The Indian Arms Act, you are advised to explore all the sets :
1. The expression “reasonable quantities” under proviso (a) to Section 10(1) is qualified by which purpose?
a. Trade
b. Gift
c. Private use
d. Official duty
2. Proviso (b) to Section 10(1) applies specifically to:
a. Indian citizens travelling abroad
b. Foreign diplomats
c. Bona fide tourists belonging to notified countries
d. Any foreign national
3. For availing the benefit under proviso (b) to Section 10(1), the tourist must belong to a country:
a. Having reciprocal treaty with India
b. Notified by the Central Government in the Official Gazette
c. Approved by the Ministry of Home Affairs
d. Member of the United Nations
4. Under proviso (b) to Section 10(1), the tourist must not be prohibited by the laws of:
a. India
b. The host country
c. That country to which he belongs
d. Any foreign country
5. The arms and ammunition brought by a bona fide tourist under proviso (b) may be used:
a. For self-defence
b. For sport only
c. For exhibition
d. For trade
6. Under proviso (b) to Section 10(1), the import of arms and ammunition by a tourist must be:
a. Unconditional
b. With prior judicial approval
c. In accordance with prescribed conditions
d. Limited to one firearm only
7. The Explanation to Section 10 defines “tourist” as a person who:
a. Is a citizen of India travelling abroad
b. Is a foreign national visiting India permanently
c. Is not a citizen of India and visits India for a limited period
d. Is a foreign diplomat
8. According to the Explanation, the maximum period for which a tourist may visit India is:
a. Three months
b. Six months
c. One year
d. Dependent on visa
9. Which of the following purposes is NOT included within the definition of “tourist” under the Explanation to Section 10?
a. Recreation
b. Sight-seeing
c. Participation in international conferences
d. Commercial trade
10. Participation in meetings qualifies under the definition of “tourist” only if such meetings are:
a. Private meetings
b. Convened by State Governments
c. Convened by the Central Government
d. Convened by foreign governments
11. The phrase “representative capacity” in the Explanation relates to participation in:
a. Sporting events
b. Trade fairs
c. Meetings or international conferences
d. Cultural festivals
12. Which of the following correctly captures the legislative intent of Section 10?
a. Total ban on cross-border movement of arms
b. Licensing control over import and export with limited statutory exceptions
c. Delegation of power to customs authorities
d. Promotion of sporting firearms
13. Section 10(2) begins with a non obstante clause overriding:
a. The entire Arms Act
b. Section 10(1)
c. The proviso to sub-section (1) of Section 10
d. All rules made under the Act
14. Under Section 10(2), which authority is expressly empowered to detain arms or ammunition?
a. The District Magistrate
b. The Commissioner of Customs or any other officer empowered by the Central Government
c. The licensing authority
d. Any police officer
15. The power under Section 10(2) may be exercised when the authority has doubt as to:
a. The nationality of the person only
b. The validity of the licence only
c. The applicability of clause (a) or clause (b) of the proviso
d. The place of manufacture of arms
16. Which of the following doubts independently justifies detention under Section 10(2)?
a. Doubt as to ownership of arms
b. Doubt as to reasonableness of the quantity of arms or ammunition
c. Doubt as to customs duty payable
d. Doubt as to country of origin
17. Section 10(2) also empowers detention where there is doubt as to:
a. The price of arms
b. The purpose of import or export
c. The use to which such arms or ammunition may be put
d. The age of the person
18. The doubts contemplated under Section 10(2) relate to persons claiming benefit under:
a. Section 10(1) generally
b. Clause (a) or clause (b) of the proviso to Section 10(1)
c. Only clause (a) of the proviso
d. Only clause (b) of the proviso
19. Under Section 10(2), arms or ammunition may be detained until:
a. A criminal case is decided
b. The customs inquiry is completed
c. Orders of the Central Government are received
d. The licence is produced
20. The power of detention under Section 10(2) is:
a. Mandatory
b. Automatic
c. Discretionary based on doubt
d. Exercisable only after hearing
21. Section 10(3) creates a legal fiction by providing that arms taken from one part of India to another are deemed to be:
a. Illegally transported
b. Imported only
c. Exported only
d. Taken out of and brought into India
22. Section 10(3) applies when arms or ammunition are transported:
a. By land only
b. By rail only
c. By sea or air or across intervening territory not forming part of India
d. By road across States
23. The phrase “intervening territory not forming part of India” in Section 10(3) refers to:
a. Union Territories
b. Neighbouring foreign territory
c. Restricted military areas
d. Customs bonded areas
24. The effect of Section 10(3) is that such movement of arms attracts:
a. Section 9 restrictions
b. Section 11 penalties
c. The licensing requirement under Section 10
d. No legal consequence
25. Which principle of interpretation is employed in Section 10(3)?
a. Strict construction
b. Ejusdem generis
c. Legal fiction
d. Harmonious construction
26. Under Section 11 of the Arms Act, the power to prohibit import or export of arms vests in:
a. The State Government
b. The Central Government
c. The Commissioner of Customs
d. The licensing authority
27. The power under Section 11 is exercised by the Central Government through:
a. Executive order
b. Rules framed under the Act
c. Notification in the Official Gazette
d. Circular issued by the Ministry
28. Section 11 empowers the Central Government to prohibit:
a. Manufacture of arms
b. Sale of arms within India
c. Bringing into or taking out of India arms or ammunition
d. Possession of arms
29. The prohibition under Section 11 may relate to arms or ammunition of:
a. Any kind whatsoever
b. Such classes and descriptions as specified in the notification
c. Only prohibited arms
d. Only military weapons
30. The phrase “such classes and descriptions” in Section 11 indicates that the prohibition:
a. Must be total and absolute
b. Must apply uniformly to all arms
c. May be selective and category-specific
d. Can apply only to ammunition
31. Which of the following is NOT a requirement under Section 11 for imposing a prohibition?
a. Existence of a notification
b. Publication in the Official Gazette
c. Specification of classes or descriptions
d. Prior approval of Parliament
32. The power under Section 11 is an example of:
a. Judicial power
b. Legislative power exercised directly by Parliament
c. Delegated legislative power
d. Quasi-judicial power
33. Once a notification under Section 11 is issued, its legal effect is to:
a. Suspend licensing provisions
b. Override customs laws
c. Prohibit import or export notwithstanding individual licences
d. Automatically cancel all existing licences
34. Section 11 differs from Section 10 primarily because Section 11:
a. Deals with internal movement of arms
b. Creates a general licensing requirement
c. Empowers total or partial prohibition by notification
d. Applies only to tourists
35. Which interpretative principle best applies to the Central Government’s power under Section 11?
a. Strict construction of penal statutes
b. Harmonious construction with Sections 10 and 12
c. Expressio unius est exclusio alterius
d. Rule against delegation
36. Section 12(1) vests the power to restrict or prohibit transport of arms in:
a. The State Government
b. The District Magistrate
c. The Central Government
d. The licensing authority
37. The power under Section 12(1) is exercisable by the Central Government through:
a. Executive instructions
b. Rules framed under the Act
c. Notification in the Official Gazette
d. Order of the Commissioner of Police
38. Under Section 12(1)(a), the Central Government may direct that no person shall transport arms or ammunition unless:
a. He is a citizen of India
b. He obtains prior police permission
c. He holds a licence issued in accordance with the Act and rules
d. He transports them for personal use
39. The restriction under Section 12(1)(a) may apply to transport over:
a. The whole of India only
b. Any part of India only
c. India or any part thereof
d. Only notified border areas
40. The phrase “such classes and descriptions” in Section 12(1)(a) signifies that the restriction:
a. Must apply to all arms
b. Must apply only to prohibited arms
c. May be selective and category-specific
d. Applies only to ammunition
41. Which of the following best distinguishes Section 12(1)(a) from Section 12(1)(b)?
a. Section 12(1)(a) regulates possession, while 12(1)(b) regulates sale
b. Section 12(1)(a) permits transport subject to licence, while 12(1)(b) permits transport without licence
c. Section 12(1)(a) restricts transport subject to licence, while 12(1)(b) prohibits transport altogether
d. Section 12(1)(a) applies to States, while 12(1)(b) applies to Centre
42. Under Section 12(1)(b), the Central Government may:
a. Restrict transport subject to conditions
b. Prohibit transport altogether
c. Suspend licences temporarily
d. Confiscate arms
43. The power under Section 12(1)(b) is:
a. Conditional upon prior licensing
b. Dependent on State Government consent
c. Absolute in nature with respect to transport
d. Limited to emergency situations
44. The licence referred to in Section 12(1)(a) must be issued in accordance with:
a. This Act only
b. The Arms Rules only
c. This Act and the rules made thereunder
d. Customs regulations
45. Sub-section (2) of Section 12 clarifies that arms or ammunition trans-hipped are:
a. Exported arms
b. Imported arms
c. Transported arms
d. Stored arms
46. For the purposes of Section 12, trans-shipment must occur at:
a. Any railway station
b. Any inland depot
c. A seaport or an airport in India
d. Any customs warehouse
47. The legal effect of Section 12(2) is to:
a. Exclude trans-shipment from regulation
b. Bring trans-shipment within the meaning of transport
c. Treat trans-shipment as import
d. Treat trans-shipment as export
48. Which interpretative device is used in Section 12(2)?
a. Presumption of law
b. Legal fiction
c. Exception clause
d. Proviso
49. Which of the following correctly captures the scope of Section 12 as a whole?
a. Regulation of manufacture of arms
b. Control over licensing authorities
c. Centralised control over internal transport of arms
d. Penal consequences for illegal possession
50. Section 12 primarily complements which other provision of the Arms Act?
a. Section 8
b. Section 9
c. Section 10
d. Section 13
51. An application for grant of a licence under Chapter II of the Arms Act shall be made to:
a. The District Magistrate
b. The Commissioner of Police
c. The licensing authority
d. The State Government
52. An application under Section 13(1) shall be:
a. In any form decided by the applicant
b. In such form, containing such particulars and accompanied by such fee as may be prescribed
c. In writing without fee
d. In the form specified by the police
53. Under Section 13(2), on receipt of an application, the licensing authority shall call for a report from:
a. The Superintendent of Police
b. The District Magistrate
c. The officer in charge of the nearest police station
d. The intelligence bureau
54. The officer in charge of the nearest police station is required under Section 13(2) to send his report:
a. Immediately
b. Within a reasonable time
c. Within the prescribed time
d. Within thirty days
55. Section 13(2A) requires the licensing authority to decide the application:
a. Without any inquiry
b. After inquiry, if any, and after considering the police report
c. Only on the basis of police report
d. Only after hearing the applicant
56. The decision under Section 13(2A) must be made:
a. Orally
b. By notification
c. By order in writing
d. By endorsement on the application
57. Under Section 13(2A), the licensing authority may:
a. Only grant the licence
b. Only refuse the licence
c. Either grant or refuse the licence
d. Refer the matter to State Government
58. The power under Section 13(2A) is subject to:
a. The discretion of police
b. Other provisions of Chapter II
c. Approval of Central Government
d. Customs laws
59. The proviso to Section 13(2A) applies when:
a. The applicant fails to appear
b. The police report is adverse
c. The police report is not sent within the prescribed time
d. The fee is unpaid
60. In such a case, the licensing authority may:
a. Must reject the application
b. Must wait indefinitely
c. Make an order after expiry of prescribed time without further waiting for the report
d. Seek extension from police
61. Under Section 13(3)(a)(i), grant of licence under Section 3 is mandatory when required by:
a. Any resident of India
b. Any licensee
c. A citizen of India
d. Any agriculturist
62. The firearm covered under Section 13(3)(a)(i) for protection or sport is:
a. Any rifled gun
b. Any handgun
c. A smooth bore gun having a barrel of not less than twenty inches
d. Any automatic weapon
63. A muzzle loading gun under Section 13(3)(a)(i) may be licensed only for:
a. Sport
b. Self-defence
c. Bona fide crop protection
d. Trade
64. The proviso to Section 13(3)(a)(i) empowers the licensing authority to grant:
a. A rifled firearm for crop protection
b. Any prohibited arm
c. Any other smooth bore gun where muzzle loading gun is insufficient
d. Automatic firearms
65. Under Section 13(3)(a)(ii), a licence under Section 3 shall be granted for:
a. Hunting
b. Self-defence
c. Target practice
d. Training police
66. Such target practice must be by a member of:
a. Any sports club
b. A rifle club or rifle association
c. A shooting range
d. Any recognised NGO
67. The rifle club or association under Section 13(3)(a)(ii) must be:
a. Recognised by the State Government
b. Licensed by the District Magistrate
c. Licensed or recognised by the Central Government
d. Registered under Societies Act only
68. Section 13(3)(b) applies to licences under:
a. Section 3 only
b. Section 4 only
c. Sections 3 (other cases), 4, 5, 6, 10 or 12
d. All sections of the Act
69. Under Section 13(3)(b), the licensing authority must be satisfied that the applicant:
a. Has no criminal record
b. Has a good reason for obtaining the licence
c. Is financially sound
d. Is recommended by police
70. Which of the following best describes the nature of licences under Section 13(3)(a)?
a. Discretionary
b. Automatic without application
c. Mandatory upon satisfaction of statutory conditions
d. Prohibited
71. Section 14(1) opens with a non obstante clause overriding:
a. The entire Arms Act
b. Section 12
c. Section 13
d. All rules made under the Act
72. Under Section 14(1)(a), the licensing authority shall refuse to grant a licence under Sections 3, 4 or 5 when it relates to:
a. Any firearm
b. Prohibited arms or prohibited ammunition
c. Non-prohibited arms
d. Sporting firearms
73. The refusal under Section 14(1)(a) is:
a. Discretionary
b. Conditional
c. Mandatory
d. Subject to police report
74. Section 14(1)(b) applies to refusal of licences:
a. Only under Section 3
b. Only under Sections 4 and 5
c. In any other case under Chapter II
d. Only under Section 10
75. Under Section 14(1)(b)(i), refusal may be made if the licensing authority has reason to believe that the applicant is:
a. Unemployed
b. Unlicensed
c. Prohibited by law from acquiring or possessing arms
d. Not a citizen of India
76. Section 14(1)(b)(i)(2) specifically refers to a person who is:
a. Physically disabled
b. Mentally ill in the past
c. Of unsound mind
d. Under police surveillance
77. The phrase “for any reason unfit for a licence” under Section 14(1)(b)(i)(3) indicates:
a. A narrow ground limited to medical reasons
b. A residuary and broad ground
c. A ground limited to criminal conviction
d. A ground requiring judicial determination
78. Under Section 14(1)(b)(ii), refusal may be ordered where the licensing authority deems it necessary for:
a. Administrative convenience
b. Revenue purposes
c. Security of public peace or public safety
d. Compliance with police instructions
79. The expression “deems it necessary” in Section 14(1)(b)(ii) indicates:
a. Mandatory refusal
b. Mechanical exercise of power
c. Subjective satisfaction of the licensing authority
d. Automatic cancellation
80. Section 14(2) expressly prohibits refusal of a licence merely on the ground that the applicant:
a. Has no criminal antecedents
b. Does not own or possess sufficient property
c. Is unemployed
d. Resides in a rural area
81. The use of the word “merely” in Section 14(2) signifies that:
a. Property ownership is totally irrelevant
b. Property ownership can never be considered
c. Property ownership alone cannot be the sole ground for refusal
d. Property ownership must always be proved
82. Under Section 14(3), when a licence is refused, the licensing authority shall:
a. Orally inform the applicant
b. Record reasons in writing
c. Publish reasons in the Gazette
d. Send reasons to police
83. The obligation to furnish reasons under Section 14(3) arises:
a. Automatically
b. With prior court order
c. On demand by the applicant
d. After appeal is filed
84. The statement of reasons furnished under Section 14(3) must be:
a. Detailed and exhaustive
b. A brief statement
c. A verbatim copy of the file
d. Sworn on affidavit
85. The licensing authority may refuse to furnish reasons if it forms the opinion that:
a. The applicant is dangerous
b. The police report is adverse
c. It will not be in the public interest to furnish such statement
d. The applicant is illiterate
86. Which of the following best characterises the refusal powers under Section 14(1)(a)?
a. Discretionary refusal
b. Policy-based refusal
c. Statutory mandatory refusal
d. Temporary refusal
87. Which of the following best describes Section 14 as a whole?
a. Procedural safeguard for applicants
b. Unfettered discretion of licensing authority
c. Balance between individual right and public safety
d. Penal provision
88. Section 14 primarily acts as a limitation upon:
a. Section 10
b. Section 11
c. Section 12
d. Section 13
89. A licence granted under Section 3 of the Arms Act shall ordinarily remain in force for what period?
a. One year from the date of grant
b. Three years from the date of grant
c. Five years from the date of grant
d. Ten years from the date of grant
90. The duration prescribed under Section 15(1) for a licence under Section 3 operates subject to which of the following conditions?
a. That the licence is not suspended
b. That the licence is not revoked earlier
c. That the licence is not challenged before court
d. That the licensee continues to own the firearm
91. Under the first proviso to Section 15(1), a licence under Section 3 may be granted for a shorter period in which of the following situations?
a. Only when the licensing authority considers it necessary
b. Only when the Central Government directs so
c. When the applicant so desires or when the licensing authority records reasons in writing
d. Only in cases involving prohibited arms
92. Which of the following is mandatory when the licensing authority grants a licence under Section 3 for a shorter period on its own assessment?
a. Prior approval of the State Government
b. Communication to the police station concerned
c. Recording of reasons in writing
d. Opportunity of hearing to the applicant
93. The second proviso to Section 15(1) makes a licence granted under Section 3 subject to which conditions?
a. Conditions specified in Section 14
b. Conditions specified in Section 10
c. Conditions specified in sub-clauses (ii) and (iii) of clause (a) of sub-section (1) of Section 9
d. Conditions prescribed under the Arms Rules only
94. As per the second proviso to Section 15(1), the licensee is required to produce which of the following before the licensing authority after every five years?
a. Only the licence
b. Licence along with firearm or ammunition and connected documents
c. Only firearm or ammunition
d. Licence and proof of residence
95. The obligation to produce licence, firearm or ammunition and connected documents arises:
a. Only at the time of initial grant
b. After every renewal
c. After every five years from the date of grant or renewal
d. Only when demanded by the police
96. Under Section 15(2), the duration of a licence granted under provisions other than Section 3 shall be:
a. Five years uniformly
b. Such period as prescribed by the Central Government
c. Such period as the licensing authority may determine in each case
d. One year unless renewed
97. Which of the following licences does Section 15(2) apply to?
a. Only licences under Section 3
b. Only licences under Section 5
c. All licences under Chapter II other than those under Section 3
d. All licences under the Arms Act
98. Section 15(3) lays down the general rule regarding renewal of licences. Which of the following correctly states that rule?
a. Licences are renewable only once
b. Licences are renewable at the discretion of the Central Government
c. Every licence is renewable for the same period for which it was originally granted
d. Renewal is automatic without inquiry
99. The rule of renewal under Section 15(3) is subject to which qualification?
a. The applicant must own immovable property
b. The licensing authority may otherwise decide for reasons recorded in writing
c. The police report must be favourable in all cases
d. The renewal fee must be identical to the original fee
100. Which provisions expressly apply to the renewal of a licence under Section 15(3)?
a. Sections 9 and 10
b. Sections 11 and 12
c. Sections 13 and 14
d. Sections 16 and 17
101. The effect of applying Sections 13 and 14 to renewal proceedings is that:
a. Renewal is a mere formality
b. Renewal must follow the same procedure and grounds as grant and refusal
c. Renewal cannot be refused
d. Renewal is decided only by the police
102. Which of the following statements is legally correct regarding Section 15 of the Arms Act?
a. All licences under Chapter II have a fixed duration of five years
b. Licences under Section 3 alone have a statutorily prescribed duration
c. Renewal of licence does not require compliance with refusal provisions
d. The licensing authority cannot deviate from original duration at renewal
103. Under Section 16 of the Arms Act, 1959, which of the following aspects of a licence are to be prescribed?
a. Fees payable, conditions subject to which the licence is granted or renewed, and the form of the licence
b. Only the fees payable and duration of the licence
c. Fees payable and the authority competent to grant the licence
d. Form of licence and grounds for refusal only
104. Section 16 of the Arms Act permits prescription of different fees, conditions, and forms for licences on what basis?
a. Based on the discretion of the licensee
b. Based on the type of arms involved
c. Based on different types of licences
d. Based on the financial status of the applicant
105. The first proviso to Section 16 primarily introduces which of the following principles?
a. Uniformity in licensing conditions
b. Delegation of power to State Governments
c. Classification of licences with differential regulatory treatment
d. Judicial review of licensing fees
106. Under the second proviso to Section 16, the licensing authority is empowered to do which of the following?
a. Alter the statutory provisions of the Act
b. Add conditions in addition to the prescribed conditions
c. Waive the prescribed conditions entirely
d. Ignore the prescribed form of the licence
107. Which of the following statements correctly reflects the scope of discretion of the licensing authority under Section 16?
a. The licensing authority may impose conditions only if expressly prescribed in the rules
b. The licensing authority has unfettered power to impose any condition it deems fit
c. The licensing authority may impose additional conditions in a particular case, in addition to prescribed conditions
d. The licensing authority may modify the fees prescribed by the rules
108. Section 16 of the Arms Act is an enabling provision primarily concerned with:
a. Substantive rights of licence holders
b. Penal consequences for breach of licence conditions
c. Procedural and regulatory aspects of grant and renewal of licences
d. Powers of search and seizure
109. The licensing authority is empowered under Section 17(1) to vary which of the following conditions of a licence?
a. All conditions without exception
b. Only conditions prescribed under the Act
c. All conditions except those which have been prescribed
d. Only conditions requested by the licensee
110. For the purpose of varying licence conditions under Section 17(1), the licensing authority may require the licence-holder to:
a. Appear personally before the authority
b. Submit a fresh application
c. Deliver up the licence by notice in writing within specified time
d. Pay an additional prescribed fee
111. Under Section 17(2), variation of licence conditions can be initiated:
a. Only suo motu by the licensing authority
b. Only on the direction of the Central Government
c. On the application of the licence-holder
d. Only after police recommendation
112. Even when variation is sought by the licence-holder under Section 17(2), which conditions cannot be varied?
a. Conditions relating to public safety
b. Conditions imposed by the licensing authority
c. Conditions which have been prescribed
d. Conditions relating to duration of licence
113. Under Section 17(3), suspension or revocation of a licence must be done:
a. Orally
b. By a general order
c. By order in writing
d. After giving mandatory personal hearing
114. Which of the following grounds under Section 17(3)(a) independently justifies suspension or revocation of a licence?
a. Mere allegation of misconduct
b. Holder being of unsound mind
c. Non-renewal of licence
d. Non-payment of fee
115. Section 17(3)(a) permits suspension or revocation where the licence-holder is unfit for a licence:
a. Only due to physical disability
b. Only due to criminal conviction
c. For any reason rendering him unfit under the Act
d. Only due to age
116. The phrase “security of the public peace or public safety” appears in which clause of Section 17(3)?
a. Clause (a)
b. Clause (b)
c. Clause (c)
d. Clause (d)
117. Which of the following situations squarely falls under Section 17(3)(c)?
a. Violation of licence conditions after grant
b. False information given during renewal
c. Suppression of material information at the time of applying for licence
d. Failure to deliver licence after revocation
118. Section 17(3)(c) applies where wrong information is provided:
a. Only by the licence-holder
b. Only by a police officer
c. By the licence-holder or any other person on his behalf
d. Only by an agent authorised in writing
119. Contravention of any condition of the licence attracts which specific clause of Section 17(3)?
a. Clause (a)
b. Clause (b)
c. Clause (d)
d. Clause (e)
120. Failure to comply with a notice requiring delivery-up of licence under Section 17(1) attracts:
a. Mandatory suspension only
b. Mandatory revocation only
c. Discretionary suspension or revocation under Section 17(3)(e)
d. Penalty proceedings only
121. Which sub-section expressly empowers the licensing authority to revoke a licence on the request of the licence-holder himself?
a. Section 17(1)
b. Section 17(2)
c. Section 17(3)
d. Section 17(4)
122. Which of the following correctly distinguishes suspension from revocation under Section 17?
a. Suspension is permanent, revocation is temporary
b. Suspension is for a period as the authority thinks fit, revocation brings the licence to an end
c. Both have identical legal effect
d. Revocation can be ordered only by courts
123. Which of the following statements is legally correct regarding Section 17 of the Arms Act?
a. Prescribed conditions can be varied by mutual consent
b. Suspension or revocation can be ordered without written reasons
c. Public safety alone is a sufficient ground for suspension or revocation
d. Revocation cannot be done at the request of the licence-holder
124. Under Section 17(5), when the licensing authority varies, suspends or revokes a licence, it is required to:
a. Record reasons in writing and furnish them automatically to the holder
b. Record reasons in writing and furnish a brief statement on demand unless it is against public interest
c. Furnish reasons only orally
d. Furnish reasons only to the police
125. The exception to furnishing reasons under Section 17(5) arises when:
a. The licence-holder refuses to pay the fee
b. The authority is of the opinion that it will not be in the public interest to furnish the statement
c. The variation or revocation is requested by the Central Government
d. The licence was obtained more than five years ago
126. Section 17(6) empowers the authority to whom the licensing authority is subordinate to:
a. Grant new licences
b. Suspend or revoke a licence on any ground available to the licensing authority
c. Overrule only variation orders
d. Modify prescribed conditions of the licence
127. In Section 17(6), the provisions of Section 17 apply to subordinate authorities:
a. In full, without exception
b. As far as may be
c. Only for variation orders
d. Only for suspension orders
128. Under Section 17(7), a court convicting the holder of a licence under the Act or rules:
a. May only impose a fine
b. May suspend or revoke the licence
c. Must refer the matter to the licensing authority
d. Has no power to affect the licence
129. The proviso to Section 17(7) provides that if the conviction is set aside on appeal:
a. The suspension or revocation continues
b. The suspension or revocation is automatically extended
c. The suspension or revocation becomes void
d. The licence-holder must pay a penalty
130. Section 17(8) extends the power of suspension or revocation to:
a. Appellate courts and High Courts in revision
b. Central Government only
c. State Government authorities
d. Police officers in charge
131. Under Section 17(9), the Central Government may:
a. Suspend or revoke individual licences only
b. Direct any licensing authority to suspend or revoke licences, or do so itself for all or any licences throughout India or any part thereof
c. Grant licences to selected individuals
d. Fine licence holders for contraventions
132. Section 17(10) mandates that on suspension or revocation of a licence:
a. The holder may continue possession for a grace period of 30 days
b. The holder shall surrender the licence without delay to the authority that suspended or revoked it, or as specified in the order
c. The licence is automatically cancelled and no action is required
d. The holder may appeal before surrendering the licence
133. Which of the following best describes the cumulative intent of Sections 17(5)–(10)?
a. To create a hierarchy and procedure for variation, suspension, and revocation of licences including judicial and Central Government powers, while ensuring accountability and surrender of licences
b. To give the Central Government absolute discretion over licences
c. To restrict suspension or revocation only to cases of criminal conviction
d. To make surrender optional
134. The reason-recording requirement under Section 17(5) is similar to which earlier provision of the Arms Act?
a. Section 13 (Grant of licences)
b. Section 14 (Refusal of licences)
c. Section 15 (Duration and renewal of licences)
d. Section 16 (Fees for licences)
135. Which of the following authorities can, according to Section 17, suspend or revoke a licence?
a. Licensing authority
b. Subordinate authority
c. Courts (trial, appellate, High Court)
d. Central Government
e. All of the above
136. Under Section 18(1) of the Arms Act, 1959, an appeal lies against an order of the licensing authority in which of the following situations?
a. Refusing to grant a licence
b. Varying the conditions of a licence
c. Suspending or revoking a licence
d. All of the above
137. Which of the following orders is expressly not appealable under Section 18(1)?
a. Orders of the licensing authority refusing a licence
b. Orders suspending a licence
c. Orders made by, or under the direction of, the Government
d. Orders varying licence conditions
138. According to Section 18(2), when is an appeal inadmissible?
a. If the appellant fails to attach the licence
b. If it is preferred after the expiry of the period prescribed for appeal
c. If the appeal is against suspension of a licence
d. If the appeal does not include the fee
139. Which exception allows the appellate authority to admit a late appeal under Section 18(2)?
a. If the appellant has political connections
b. If the appellant satisfies that he had sufficient cause for not preferring the appeal within the prescribed period
c. If the licence-holder is of unsound mind
d. If the appellate authority chooses to waive the rules
140. Section 18(3) states that the period prescribed for an appeal shall be computed in accordance with:
a. The Arms Rules
b. The Indian Evidence Act, 1872
c. The Indian Limitation Act, 1908
d. The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
141. Which of the following is mandatory when preferring an appeal under Section 18(4)?
a. The appeal must be oral
b. The appeal must be accompanied by a brief statement of reasons for the order appealed against (if furnished) and prescribed fee
c. The appeal must be submitted to the Central Government only
d. The appeal can be submitted without any reasons
142. Under Section 18(5), the appellate authority shall follow:
a. Its own discretion without any procedure
b. Such procedure as may be prescribed
c. The procedure under Section 17
d. The procedure of the High Court
143. The proviso to Section 18(5) mandates that no appeal shall be disposed of unless:
a. The appellant pays an additional fee
b. The appellant has been given a reasonable opportunity of being heard
c. The appeal is submitted within one month
d. The licence is surrendered
144. Under Section 18(6), the order appealed against shall ordinarily:
a. Be automatically stayed pending disposal of the appeal
b. Continue in force unless the appellate authority directs otherwise
c. Be enforced immediately and unconditionally
d. Be deemed null and void
145. Which of the following best describes the effect of Section 18(6)?
a. Appeal automatically suspends the order
b. Appeal has no effect on the order unless stay is directed by the appellate authority
c. Order is suspended until the appellant pays a fee
d. Order is reversed automatically on filing appeal
146. Under Section 18(7), the orders of the appellate authority:
a. Can be challenged in any court of law
b. Are final
c. Are reviewable only by the Central Government
d. Can be modified by subordinate authorities
147. Section 18 provides a mechanism for appeal against decisions of:
a. Licensing authorities only
b. Subordinate authorities only
c. Both licensing authorities and authorities to whom they are subordinate
d. Central Government only
148. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the procedure and fees under Section 18?
a. The appeal must always be oral and free of fee
b. The appeal must be by written petition, accompanied by reasons (if furnished) and such fee as prescribed
c. Fees are optional and appeal can be filed without reasons
d. Procedural rules are discretionary and not prescribed
149. The limitation period for filing an appeal under Section 18 is:
a. Provided by the licensing authority arbitrarily
b. Prescribed in the Arms Act and computed under the Indian Limitation Act, 1908
c. One year from the date of order automatically
d. Decided by the appellate authority in each case
150. Under Section 19(1) of the Arms Act, who may demand production of a licence from a person carrying arms or ammunition?
a. Only the Central Government
b. Any police officer or any other officer specially empowered by the Central Government
c. Any citizen
d. The nearest magistrate
151. The power to demand production of licence under Section 19 applies to:
a. Persons carrying arms or ammunition in public places only
b. Any person carrying arms or ammunition
c. Only persons with prior criminal record
d. Only persons carrying prohibited arms
152. Under Section 19(2), if a person fails to produce a licence or show entitlement to carry arms:
a. The officer may warn the person and let him go
b. The officer may require the person to give his name and address and may seize the arms or ammunition if necessary
c. The officer must immediately arrest the person
d. The officer can only record a report
153. Which of the following is a condition for seizure of arms or ammunition under Section 19(2)?
a. Person refuses to pay the licence fee
b. Officer considers it necessary after failure to produce licence or proof of entitlement
c. Person is carrying arms for personal protection
d. Person belongs to a law-abiding organization
154. According to Section 19(3), when may the officer arrest a person without a warrant?
a. When the person refuses to give name and address
b. When the officer suspects the person may give a false name or intends to abscond
c. In both (a) and (b)
d. Only after approval from the licensing authority
155. The power of arrest under Section 19(3) is:
a. Restricted to police officers only
b. Extended to specially empowered officers under the Act
c. Restricted to offences under the IPC only
d. Available to any citizen
156. Section 19 ensures which of the following objectives?
a. Protection of arms manufacturers
b. Effective enforcement of licence requirements and prevention of illegal carriage of arms or ammunition
c. Centralised control of firearm trade
d. Regulation of firearm prices
157. Under Section 19, an officer empowered to demand production of licence may seize arms or ammunition:
a. Only if the person admits to having no licence
b. If the officer considers it necessary after the person fails or refuses to produce the licence
c. Only after obtaining a warrant from a magistrate
d. Only if the arms are prohibited under the Act
158. The phrase “specially empowered officer” in Section 19(1) refers to:
a. An officer authorised by the State Government
b. An officer empowered by the Central Government
c. Any officer of the Armed Forces
d. An officer authorised by a local magistrate
159. Under Section 19, which of the following is mandatory before seizing arms or ammunition?
a. Giving a warning to the person
b. Recording the offence in the police station
c. Considering it necessary in the circumstances after the person fails or refuses to produce licence
d. Seeking prior approval from the licensing authority
160. Under Section 20 of the Arms Act, 1959, a person may be arrested without a warrant if:
a. He is carrying arms or ammunition in his home
b. He is found carrying or conveying arms or ammunition under circumstances giving just grounds of suspicion for unlawful use
c. He owns a licensed firearm
d. He is transporting arms with proper documentation
161. Section 20 applies to arms or ammunition:
a. Only if they are unlicensed
b. Only if they are prohibited
c. Whether covered by a licence or not
d. Only if they belong to the police
162. Who may exercise the power of arrest under Section 20?
a. Only a magistrate
b. Only a police officer
c. A magistrate, police officer, any other public servant, or any person employed or working on a railway, aircraft, vessel, vehicle, or any other means of conveyance
d. Only Central Government officers
163. The power of seizure under Section 20 allows the arresting authority to:
a. Only record the offence in a diary
b. Seize such arms or ammunition from the person arrested
c. Release the person after warning
d. Confiscate all property of the person
164. The suspicion under Section 20 must relate to:
a. The person’s prior criminal history
b. The arms or ammunition being intended for unlawful use
c. The person’s social background
d. The possession exceeding legal limits
165. Section 20 extends arrest powers to personnel working on:
a. Railways
b. Aircraft
c. Vessels or vehicles
d. All of the above
166. The essential legal test for arrest under Section 20 is:
a. Presence of arms or ammunition only
b. Possession of prohibited arms
c. Just grounds of suspicion that arms or ammunition may be used for unlawful purposes
d. Licence validity
167. Section 20 can be invoked even if the person:
a. Has a valid licence for the arms or ammunition
b. Is a law enforcement officer
c. Is transporting arms for private sale
d. Is a tourist
168. The phrase “any other public servant” under Section 20 includes:
a. Only government employees working in offices
b. Any person working in public service, including transport authorities
c. Only police constables
d. Only magistrates
169. Section 20 primarily aims to:
a. Regulate firearm ownership for sport
b. Prevent unlawful use of arms or ammunition and provide immediate powers to arrest and seize in suspicious circumstances
c. Establish licensing fees
d. Standardise firearm documentation
170. Under Section 21(1), when must a person deposit arms or ammunition?
a. Only when licence expires
b. Only when licence is revoked or suspended
c. When possession ceases to be lawful due to any reason, including licence expiry, suspension, revocation, or notification under Section 4
d. Only when directed by police
171. According to Section 21(1), arms or ammunition may be deposited with:
a. The officer in charge of the nearest police station
b. A licensed dealer, subject to prescribed conditions
c. A unit armoury if the person is a member of the armed forces of the Union
d. All of the above
172. In Section 21(1), the term “unit armoury” includes:
a. Only armouries on land-based military establishments
b. An armoury in a ship or establishment of the Indian Navy
c. Any private gun club
d. Only central government armouries
173. Which of the following persons is responsible for depositing arms when possession ceases to be lawful?
a. Any person in possession of the arms or ammunition
b. The police officer
c. The licensing authority
d. A licensed dealer
174. Under Section 21(2), who is entitled to receive back deposited arms?
a. Only the original depositor
b. The depositor or, in case of his death, his legal representative
c. Any member of the public
d. The police officer who took the arms
175. Section 21(2)(a) allows return of deposited arms when:
a. The depositor pays a fee
b. The depositor becomes entitled by virtue of this Act or any other law to have the same in his possession
c. The police officer approves it
d. The licence is still valid
176. Under Section 21(2)(b), the depositor may dispose of deposited arms by sale or otherwise:
a. To anyone he chooses
b. Only to persons entitled by virtue of this Act or other law, and not prohibited from possession
c. Only to the police
d. Only after ten years
177. Section 21(2) explicitly excludes the return or disposal of:
a. Prohibited firearms
b. Anything of which confiscation has been directed under Section 32
c. Licensed arms
d. Ammunition above prescribed limits
178. The requirement to deposit arms under Section 21 is to be done:
a. Without unnecessary delay
b. Within 30 days
c. Within one year
d. When requested by the licensing authority
179. The authority or entity with whom arms are deposited may vary based on:
a. Type of arms
b. Whether the depositor is a member of the armed forces
c. Prescribed conditions under the Act
d. Both b and c
180. Section 21 ensures which of the following objectives?
a. Enforcing lawful possession of arms
b. Providing a mechanism for return or legal disposal of deposited arms
c. Preventing unlawful retention of arms after licence cessation
d. All of the above
181. According to Section 21, a legal representative can claim deposited arms:
a. Only if the depositor is abroad
b. Only if the depositor dies
c. Only after paying a penalty
d. Only with police permission
182. Under Section 21(3), when shall deposited arms or ammunition be forfeited to the Government?
a. When the depositor requests it
b. If not received back or disposed of within the prescribed period under sub-section (2)
c. When the police decides to keep it
d. Immediately upon deposit
183. Section 21(3) provides an exception to forfeiture in the case of:
a. Revocation of licence
b. Suspension of licence
c. Death of the depositor
d. Deposit with a licensed dealer
184. Which authority is empowered to order forfeiture of deposited arms or ammunition under Section 21(3)?
a. The Central Government
b. The district magistrate
c. The police officer
d. The licensing authority
185. Before making a forfeiture order, Section 21(4) requires the district magistrate to:
a. Confiscate the items immediately
b. Issue a written notice to the depositor or legal representative to show cause within thirty days
c. Ask the police for advice
d. Return the items to the depositor
186. The notice under Section 21(4) must be served:
a. Verbally in public
b. In the prescribed manner
c. Only by registered post
d. Only to the police
187. After receiving a cause shown by the depositor, Section 21(5) allows the district magistrate to:
a. Pass such order as he thinks fit
b. Must return the arms without discretion
c. Forfeit the arms without considering the cause
d. Consult the licensing authority for permission
188. Under Section 21(6), the Government may:
a. Never return forfeited items
b. Return to the depositor or legal representative the forfeited items or proceeds, wholly or in part, at any time
c. Only return items after ten years
d. Only return items with court approval
189. The combined effect of Section 21(3)–(6) ensures:
a. Penalising all depositors
b. A balance between public interest (forfeiture) and fairness to depositor/legal representative (notice and possible return)
c. Exclusive power to police
d. Immediate confiscation without notice
190. The period within which a depositor must show cause against forfeiture under Section 21(4) is:
a. 15 days
b. 30 days from service of notice
c. 60 days
d. Indefinite
191. In which situation is forfeiture explicitly not applicable under Section 21(3)?
a. When licence is revoked
b. When licence is suspended and the item is covered by the licence during suspension
c. When the depositor is abroad
d. When arms are deposited with a licensed dealer
192. Under Section 22(1) of the Arms Act, a magistrate may conduct a search if he has reason to believe that:
a. The person has expired licence
b. The person has arms or ammunition for any unlawful purpose or cannot be left in possession without danger to public peace or safety
c. The person is under 21 years of age
d. The person owns more than one firearm
193. Before ordering a search under Section 22(1), a magistrate must:
a. Consult the police only
b. Record the reasons for his belief
c. Issue a warrant to the licensing authority
d. Wait for a complaint
194. Search and seizure under Section 22(1) can be conducted even if:
a. The person has no licence
b. The person has lawful entitlement to possess the arms or ammunition
c. The arms are unlicensed only
d. The person is a tourist
195. Under Section 22(1), arms or ammunition seized by a magistrate may be:
a. Disposed immediately
b. Detained in safe custody for such period as the magistrate thinks necessary
c. Returned to the person immediately
d. Sold at auction
196. Who may conduct the search under Section 22(2)?
a. The magistrate personally
b. An officer specially empowered by the Central Government
c. Either A or B, in the presence of the magistrate
d. Only the police
197. The phrase “reason to believe” in Section 22(1) implies that:
a. The magistrate must have subjective suspicion
b. The magistrate must have objectively recorded reasons for belief of unlawful possession or danger to public safety
c. Any hearsay is sufficient
d. The magistrate can act without any record
198. Section 22 allows seizure of arms or ammunition even when:
a. The person has a revoked licence
b. The person has a valid licence or entitlement under law
c. The arms are prohibited
d. The arms are antique
199. Section 22(2) ensures that:
a. All searches must be conducted by police only
b. Every search is conducted by or in the presence of a magistrate or specially empowered officer
c. Searches can be conducted privately without any official presence
d. Only the Central Government can conduct the search
200. The purpose of Section 22 is primarily to:
a. Regulate firearm trade
b. Prevent danger to public peace and safety by unlawful possession or use of arms or ammunition
c. Enforce licensing fees
d. Standardise firearm storage
201. A magistrate seizing arms under Section 22 must ensure:
a. Safe custody of the arms or ammunition for a necessary period
b. Immediate auction of the seized arms
c. Return to the person immediately
d. Disposal through licensing authority
202. Under Section 23 of the Arms Act, who may stop and search vessels, vehicles, or other conveyances?
a. Only a magistrate
b. Only a police officer
c. A magistrate, a police officer, or any officer specially empowered by the Central Government
d. Only customs officers