Previous Year Question Papers · Rajasthan Judicial Service (Pre.) Examination, 2019

Rajasthan Judicial Service (Pre.) Examination, 2019

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1. Under the provisions of Rajasthan Rent Control Act, 2001, a landlord has a right to inspect the premises let out by him. Which of the following statement with reference to the inspection is incorrect?

(1) The inspection can be done during day time only.

(2) A prior intimation of at least three days to the tenant is necessary.

(3) Such inspection can be carried out not more than once in three months.

(4) None of the above.

2. A suit alleging ‘public nuisance’ can be instituted by:

(A) Advocate General of the State.

(B) By two or more persons, who have suffered the damage.

(D) A member of the local body.

Which of the following combination is correct?

(1) (A)&(B)

(2) (A)&(C)

(3) (B)&(D)

(4) (C)&(D)

3. Ashok lets a house to Bharat for five years. Bharat underlets the house to Kishore at a monthly rent of Rs. 2,000/-. The five years expire, but Kishore continues in possession of the house and pays the rent to Ashok. What is the status of Kishore?

(1) Tenant holding over.

(2) Trespasser.

(3) Possession is unauthorised.

(4) None of the above.

4. The executive power of the State is vested in:

(1) Chief Secretary of the State.

(2) Chief Minister of the State.

(3) Chief Executive Officer.

(4) The Governor.

5. Decree for payment of money passed against a woman cannot be executed:

(1) by proceeding against her lega1 representatives, if she dies.

(2) by attachment and sale of her property.

(3) by appointing a receiver.

(4) by her arrest and detention in prison.

6. “Where a plaintiff omits to sue in respect of, or intentionally relinquishes any portion of his claim, he shall not afterward sue in respect of the portion so omitted or relinquished”. The genesis of this principle lies in:

(1) Section 115 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872

(2) Section 11 of the code of Civil Procedure, 1908

(3) Order II Rule 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908

(4) Order I Rule 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908

7. On rejection of plaint under provisions of Order VII Rule 11 of Civil Procedure, 1908, presenting of a fresh plaint in respect of the same cause of action, Is:

(1) Barred by principles of Res judicata.

(2) On its own force, does not preclude the plaintiff from presenting a fresh plaint.

(3) Barred under Order XXIII.

(4) None of the above.

8. ‘Rule of Heydon’s case’ is also known as:

(1) Purposive construction.

(2) Casus omissus.

(3) Literal construction.

(4) Harmonious construction.

9. The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 applies to:

(1) Proceedings before an arbitrator.

(2) Departmental proceedings.

(3) Judicial proceeding before courts.

(4) None of the above.

10. Who amongst the following cannot be appointed as Advocate General:

(1) An advocate of 66 years of age.

(2) An advocate who has not practiced in such State.

(3) An advocate having 07 years of practice at Bar.

(4) All of the above.

11. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(1) An agreement made without consideration is void irrespective of the circumstances.

(2) Every agreement in restraint of marriage of any person, other than minor, is void.

(3) Every agreement by which anyone is restrained from exercising a lawful profession, trade or business of any kind, is to that extent void.

(4) Agreements, the meaning of which is not certain or capable of being made certain, are void.

12. For the purpose of Limitation Act, 1963, a suit in the case of pauper, is instituted:

(1) When the plaint is presented to the proper office.

(2) When application for leave to sue as a pauper is made.

(3) When the application seeking leave to sue as a pauper is granted.

(4) None of the above.

13. Which of the following contracts can be enforced?

(1) A contract for the non-performance of which compensation is an adequate relief.

(2) A contract which is in its nature determinable.

(3) A contract the performance whereof involves the performance of a continuous duty.

(4) Purchase of a share of a partner in a firm.

14. Section 43 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, which deals with transfer by unauthorised person who subsequently acquires interest in immovable property transferred, underlines doctrine of:

(1) Actionable claims.

(2) Estoppel by deed.

(3) Estoppel by election.

(4) Right to pre-emption.

15. Which pro^sMh in Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 bars entertainment of application to review an order made on an application for a review of a decree or order passed or made on a review:

(1) Section 11

(2) Section 10

(3) Order XLVII Rule 9

(4) Order IX Rule 9

16. Which provision of Rajasthan Rent Control Act, 2001 deals with permission to enter into the limited period tenancy and for grant of certificate for recovery of possession?

(1) Section6

(2) Section7

(3) Section8

(4) Section9

17. What is the remedy available to an aggrieved party against a final order passed by the Rent Tribunal constituted under the Rajasthan Rent Control Act 2001 ?

(1) Writ petition under Article 226/227 of the Constitution of India.

(2) Appeal to High Court under Section 96 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(3) Appeal under Section 19(6) of the Rajasthan Rent Control Act, 2001.

(4) No remedy, order is final.

18. ‘A’ and ‘B’ contract that ‘A* shall build a house for ‘B’ at a fixed price. The order in which reciprocal promises are to be performed was not fixed. What shall be the order of performance?

(1) A's promise to build the house must be performed before B's promise to pay for the house.

(2) B's promise to pay for the house must be performed before A's promise to build the house.

(3) A & B should perform their promise simultaneously.

(4) None of the above.

19. The rule of construction ‘Nocsltura soclist means:

(1) The meaning of a word is to be judged by the company it keeps.

(2) To reconcile incompatibility between the specific and general words.

(3) No word in a statute is superfluous.

(4) None of the above.

20. Which of the Act & Regulations cannot be declared unconstitutional by High Courts and Supreme Court?

(1) Acts & Regulations concerning persons from Scheduled Castes & Scheduled Tribes.

(2) Acts & Regulations concerning Parliament & its members.

(3) Acts & Regulations enlisted in Schedule VII of the Constitution.

(4) Acts & Regulations enlisted in Schedule IX of the Constitution.

21. Special provisions as to evidence relating to electronic record were inserted in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872:

(1) In the form of Section 65-B w.e.f. 17.10.2000.

(2) In the form of Section 68-B w.e.f. 17.10.2000.

(3) In the form of Section 65-B w.e.f. 12.08.2002.

(4) In the form of Section 68-B w.e.f. 12.08.2002.

22. A mutual mistake of the parties in an instrument, which does not express their real Intention, can be got rectified by either party to the instrument:

(1) By instituting a suit under Registration Act, 1908.

(2) By filing an application under Section 151 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.

(3) By instituting a suit under Section 26 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963.

(4) Cannot be rectified.

23. Power to amend the issue or frame additional issues prior to passing of a decree vests in a Court by virtue of which provision of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?

(1) Order XIV Rule 1

(2) Order XIV Rule 5

(3) Order XIV Rule 6

(4) Section 151

24. A Judge of High Court may by writing under his hand, resign his office. To whom such resignation should be addressed?

(1) Chief Justice of the High Court.

(2) Chief Justice of India..

(3) Governor of the State.

(4) President of India.

25. In case of repugnancy between the law made by the Parliament and law made by the State Legislature, with respect to any matter enumerated in concurrent list:

(1) by virtue of Article 246 of Constitution of India, law made by the Parliament shall prevail.

(2) by virtue of Article 246 of Constitution of India, law made by State Parliament shall prevail.

(3) by virtue of Article 254 of Constitution of India, law made by Parliament shall prevail.

(4) by virtue of Article 254 of Constitution of India, law made by State Legislature shall prevail.

26. Which provision of the Constitution of India abolished ‘Untouchability’ and forbids its practice in any form?

(1) Article 14

(2) Article 15

(3) Article 16

(4) Article 17

27. Complete the statement—A Court cannot issue commission:

(1) to examine any person.

(2) to make a partition.

(3) to collect evidence.

(4) to examine or adjust accounts.

28. Which of the provision of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 provides that the objection regarding territorial or pecuniary jurisdiction has to be raised at the first available opportunity?

(1) Section 10

(2) Section 11

(3) Section 20

(4) Section 21

29. The words “SOCIALIST SECULAR” were inserted in the Preamble of the Constitution by which constitutional amendment?

(1) Forty First amendment.

(2) Forty Second amendment.

(3) Forty Fourth amendment.

(4) Forty Sixth amendment.

30. Which provision of the Constitution confers upon a High Court the power to punish for contempt of itself?

(1) Article 215

(2) Article 217

(3) Article 225

(4) Article 226

31. Which of the following facts are required to be proved?

(1) All laws in force in the territory of India.

(2) Public festivals and holidays notified in official Gazette.

(3) The Rules of the road.

(4) None of the above.

32. The period of limitation for filing a suit to set aside transfer of property made by a guardian of a ward, by the ward’s legal representative, when the ward dies before attaining majority, is:

(1) Three years from the date when the ward would have become major.

(2) Three years from the date when such fact comes to the notice of the legal representative.

(3) Three years from the date of death of the ward.

(4) Twelve years from the date of the transfer.

33. Under which provision of Code of Civil Procedure, restoration or setting aside of orders passed ex parte can be sought regarding an application filed under Order XXI of CPC which has been dismissed for non appearance or decided ex parte?

(1) Order IX Rule 13

(2) Order XXI Rule 58

(3) Order XXI Rule 106

(4) Order XXI Rule 100

34. The period of limitation for filing a suit relating to tort against one who, having right to use property for specific purpose, perverts it to other purpose is:

(1) One year from the date the perversion first becomes known to the person injured.

(2) Two years from the date the perversion first becomes known to the person injured.

(3) Three years from the date the perversion first becomes known to the person injured.

(4) Four years from the date the perversion first becomes known to the person injured.

35. The principle of ‘force majeure’ emanates from which provision of the Indian Contract Act, 1872?

(1) Section 52

(2) Section 54

(3) Section 56

(4) Section 58

36. Under which provision, can the Court issue a warrant of arrest against a person released on bail and require him to furnish sufficient sureties?

(1) Section 440 Cr.P.C.

(2) Section 446 Cr.P.C.

(3) Section 441 Cr.P.C.

(4) Section 443 Cr.P.C.

37. In which of the following, the Hon’ble Supreme Court held that in a case arising from Negotiable Instruments Act, successive sentences may be directed to run concurrently if both transactions are part of single transaction?

(1) (2010) 5 SCC 663, Damodar S. Prahbu v. Sayed Babalal II

(2) (2016) 3 SCC 1, Done Ayengia v. State of Assam & Ors.

(3) (2009) 1 SCC 706, Mahindra & Mahindra Financial Services Ltd. & Anr. v. Rajiv Dubey.

(4) (2016) 10 SCC 761, Shyam Pal v. Dayawati Besoya & Ors.

38. Which provision of Indian Evidence Act stipulates that the fact of a woman being habituated to sexual intercourse will not be relevant on the issue of consent In a prosecution for rape or outraging the modesty of the said woman?

(1) Section 50

(2) Section 53-A

(3) Section 54

(4) Section 51

39. In reference to the trial of summons cases by a Magistrate, which of the following statements is correct?

(1) The Court shall frame charge after hearing the accused and the prosecution.

(2) The Court may discharge the accused after hearing the prosecution and the accused.

(3) There is no requirement for tire Court to hear the accused and the particulars of the offence shall be stated to him.

(4) None of the above.

40. Ram while going on pilgrimage, entrusted a box containing jewellery to his neighbor Shayam. Shayam dishonestly with the intent to commit mischief, breaks open the box without having any authority. Shayam has committed the offence of:

(1) Section 406 of Indian Penal Code.

(2) Section 379 of Indian Penal Code.

(3) Section 462 of Indian Penal Code.

(4) None of the above.

41. In which of the following situations, the general principle of presumption of innocence of a child in conflict with law shall not be applicable?

(1) When the child is charged for the offence of murder punishable under Section 302 ofIPC.

(2) When the child is charged for the offence of gang rape punishable under Section 376(2)(g) ofIPC.

(3) Where the Juvenile Justice Board has passed an order under Section 15 read with Section 18(3) of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act that the child should be tried as an adult.

(4) None of the above.

42. A Police Officer receives a sum of Rs. 5000/ - as fine from violator. He deposits the amount in the Treasury three months after the stipulated period. He commits:

(1) Offence punishable under Section 407 IPC.

(2) Offence punishable under Section 409 IPC.

(3) Offence punishable under Section 420 IPC.

(4) None of the above.

43. Under which provision of law, the Court while considering the case of a person convicted for an offence not punishable with death or imprisonment of life, is under an obligation to call for the report of Probation Officer?

(1) Section 9 of the Probation of Offenders Act.

(2) Section 7 of the Probation of Offenders Act.

(3) Section 4 of the Probation of Offenders Act.

(4) None of the above.

44. A person (payee) signs a blank cheque and gives the same to another person (holder) and the holder fills up the blank space pertaining to amount and date and presents the same in his bank account and It is dishonoured. In such a situation, which of the following statement would be correct?

(1) The holder has committed forgery.

(2) The cheque will have to be treated ?s invalid.

(3) The Bank would not accep t the-cheque.

(4) The holder will be entitled to maintain a complaint filed upon the cheque being dishonoured upon being presented in the bank.

45. In which celebrated judgment, did the Hon’ble Supreme Court classified the witnesses into three categories (i) wholly reliable, (ii) wholly unreliable, (iii) neither wholly reliable r.or wholly unreliable?

(1) AIR 1957 SC 614, Vadivelu Thevar v. State of Madras.

(2) AIR 1974 SC 275, Guli Chand & Ors. v. State of Rajasthan.

(3) AIR 2012 SC 1357, Ramnaresh & Ors. v. State of Chhattisgarh.

(4) (1994) 2 SCC 467, Bheru Singh v. State of Rajasthan.

46. When a child in conflict with law is in custody while undergoing trial, is declared adult under Section 18(3) of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act upon crossing the age of 18 years during the course of trial. Which of the following option is available to the trial court in such a situation?

(1) To allow the child to go home after advise or admonition.

(2) To drop the proceedings and release the child from custody forthwith.

(3) To direct the child to be released or probation of good conduct.

(4) Send the child to a place of safety.

47. Under which provision of law, a body incorporate is required to appoint an authorized representative for the purpose of inquiry or trial before a criminal court?

(1) Section 302 of Cr.P.C.

(2) Section 303 of Cr.P.C.

(3) Section 305 of Cr.P.C.

(4) None of the above.

48. Which of the following statements is correct?

(A) The presumption under Section 113-A of the Indian Evidence Act would be attracted, if the marriage of the accused and the deceased took place more than 7 years prior to the suicide of the woman and cruelty soon before death is established by the prosecution.

(B) That because Section 113-A of the Indian Evidence Act is attracted to a case, the prosecution is not required to prove its case beyond reasonable doubt against the accused.

(1) Statement (A).

(2) Statement (B).

(3) BothStatements(A)&(B)

(4) None of the above statements.

49. Which of the following can not be a ground to deny bail to a person, who is apparently a child In conflict with law?

(1) When the offence alleged against such person is a heinous offence and the child has been ordered to be tried as an adult under Section 18(3) of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act.

(2) When there are reasonable grounds to believe that the child may come into association with known criminal if released on bail.

(3) That the person may be exposed to moral, physical or psychological danger.

(4) That the person released on bail would defeat the ends of justice.

50. Kalu prosecutes Khema for stealing a car from him, Khema is convicted. Kalu afterwards sues Ganesh for the car which Khema had sold to him before his conviction. The Judgment of conviction of Khema in the suit between Kalu and Ganesh is:

(1) Relevant.

(2) Irrelevant.

(3) Relevant only with prior permission of court.

(4) None of the above.

51. Which provision of Cr.P.C. provides protection against double jeopardy?

(1) Section 305

(2) Section 300

(3) Section 188

(4) Section 203

52. in which judgment, the Hon’ble Supreme Court laid down that a complaint based on a second or successive dishonor of cheque is maintainable, if no complaint based on an earlier dishonor of cheque followed by statutory notice issued on the basis thereof had been filed:

(1) (2013) 1SCC 177, M.S.R. Leathers v. S. Palaniappan & Anr.

(2) (1998) 6 SCC 514, Sadanandan Bhadran v. Madhavan Sunil Kumar.

(3) (1999) 4 SCC 567, Sil Import USA v. Exim Aides Silk Exporters Bangalore.

(4) (2004) 13 SCC 498, Krishna Exports & Ors. v. Raju Das.

53. Under which provision of law, the Sessions Court can make a reference to the High Court regarding the validity of any Act, Ordinance or Regulation, the determination of which is necessary for the disposal of the case?

(1) Section 396 of Cr.P.C.

(2) Section 368 of Cr.P.C.

(3) Section 366 of Cr.P.C.

(4) Section 395 of Cr.P.C.

54. Which of the following provisions of Indian Evidence Act permits evidence recorded in one case to be considered relevant in a subsequent proceeding?

(1) Section 32

(2) Section 37

(3) Section 38

(4) Section 33

55. Under which provision of law, can a court direct any person to write any words or figures for comparison of handwriting?

(1) Section 91 of Cr.P.C.

(2) Section 54-A of Cr.P.C.

(3) Section 73 of Indian Evidence Act.

(4) Section 311 of Cr.P.C.

56. Which provision of Cr.P.C. empowers a criminal court to recall and re-examine witnesses in a criminal case?

(1) Section 217

(2) Section 311

(3) Both(1)&(2)

(4) None of above

57. In which of the following cases, did the Hon’ble Supreme Court decide the Issue of territorial jurisdiction of the court to entertain a complaint under the Negotiable Instruments Act in reference to the Amending Ordinance of 2015?

(a) Bridgestone India Pvt. Ltd. v. Inderpal Singh. (2016) 2 SCC 75,

(b) KS. Josepha v. Philip Carbon Black Ltd. & Ors. (2016) 11 SCC 105,

(d) None of the above.

58. The right of private defence of the body does not extend to voluntary causing of death or of any other harm to the assailant, if the offence which occasions the exercise of the right to be of any of the descriptions hereinafter enumerated:

(1) An assault with the intention of committing rape.

(2) An assault with the intention of kidnapping or abducting.

(3) An assault with the intention of wrongfully confining a person under circumstances which may reasonable cause him to have recourse to the public authorities for his release.

(4) An assault of causing of grievous hurt on provocation.

59. A trial court in State of Rajasthan delivers its judgment in English. Under which provision of law, can the accused seek a translated copy of the judgment in Hindi language?

(1) Section 353 of Cr.P.C.

(2) Section 362 of Cr.P.C.

(3) Section 364 of Cr.P.C.

(4) Section 363 of Cr.P.C.

60. Under which provision of law, a sentence of death passed by the Sessions Court is subject to confirmation by the High Court?

(1) Section 369 of Cr.P.C.

(2) Section 367 (j>f Cr.P.C.

(3) Section 366 of Cr.P.C.

(4) Section 370 of Cr.P.C.

61. Which of the following irregularities vitiate the proceedings, if any Magistrate not being empowered by law in this behalf, does may of the following things?

(1) Makes an order under Section 133 of Cr.P.C. as to a local nuisance.

(2) Makes an order under Part C or Part D of Chapter X of Cr.P.C.

(3) Holds an inquest under Section 176 of Cr.P.C.

(4) Makes an order for maintenance.

62. The trial court while recording evidence in a case wherein the accused is in custody, records the evidence of witness without ensuring presence of the accused in the court, which of the following statement would be correct?

(1) The judgment passed by trial court in such proceedings would be vitiated by virtue of Section 273(1) of Cr.P.C.

(2) The judgment passed by trial court in such proceedings would be saved by virtue of Section 460 of Cr.P.C.

(3) The judgment passed by trial court in such proceedings would be saved by virtue of Section 465 of Cr.P.C.

(4) The judgment passed by trial court in such proceedings would be saved by virtue of Section 317 of Cr.P.C.

63. Which provision stipulates that lunatic can be a competent witness?

(1) Section 84 of Indian Penal Code

(2) Section 118 of Indian Evidence Act

(3) Section 119 of Indian Evidence Act

(4) None of the above

64. In which of the following judgments, the Hon’ble Supreme Court held that where an act of domestic violence commenced prior to the enactment of The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act and continued even thereafter also, in such a situation, the aggrieved person is entitled to protection of the Act?

(1) (2014) 3 SCC 712, Sarswath v. Babu.

(2) (2015) 2 SCC 145, Meena Chaudhary v. Commissioner of Delhi Police.

(3) (2013) 15 SCC 755, Indra Sarmav.K.K.V. Sarma.

(4) None of the above

65. Under which provision is the Court acquitting the accused, required to take a bond from him/her for appearance In the higher court?

(1) Section 439 Cr.P.C.

(2) Section 436-ACr.P.C.

(3) Section 436 Cr.P.C.

(4) Section 437-ACr.P.C.

66. Which of the following documents cannot be admitted in evidence in a criminal trial without formal proof?

(1) certified copies of public documents.

(2) Report issues by a govt, scientist after chemical/serological examination of samples forwarded to him by the investigating agency.

(3) A report issued by a govt, handwriting expert after comparison of the disputed signatures with an admitted signature.

(4) A document which is admitted by the opposite party.

67. A Metropolitan Magistrate sentenced an accused of theft for three months simple imprisonment and a fine of Rs. 200/-. Accused can file an appeal against such judgment In:

(1) The Court of Sessions.

(2) The High Court.

(3) The Court of Chief Metropolitan Magistrate.

(4) No appeal can be filed.

68. Public servant “A” while discharging his official functions, issues a document with incorrect particulars knowing that by this action, he is likely to harm another public servant “B”. The public servant “A” is responsible for which of the following offence?

(1) Forgery.

(2) Creating of false document.

(3) Cheating.

(4) None of the above.

69. Under which provision of Cr.P.C., can a party approach an Executive Magistrate and pray for dropping of the proceedings initiated under Section 145 of Cr.P.C.?

(1) Section 145(2)

(2) Section 146(1)

(3) Section 148

(4) Section 145(5)

70. Under which provision of law, can the court award compensation to a person groundlessly arrested?

(1) Section 349 of Cr.P.C.

(2) Section 357 of Cr.P.C.

(3) Section 358 of Cr.P.C.

(4) None of the above.

71. Choose the correct Active voice sentence:

It is being said that too little money is being spent by the Government on roads.

(1) People are saying that the Government is spending too little money on roads.

(2) People were saying that too little money has been spent on roads by the Government.

(3) People said that too little money spent by Government on reading.

(4) People have said that Government have spend too money on roads.

72. Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate option.

The last train the station at 11.30 a.m.

(1) will leaving

(2) have been left

(3) leaves

(4) was left

73. Fill In the blanks with the most appropriate option.

The new witness yesterday and the judde the investigations early this morning.

(1) arrived, started

(2) arrived, starting

(3) have arrived, would be start

(4) had arrived, had start

74. The word similar in meaning to “Quote” Is:

(1) sight

(2) sue

(3) sigh

(4) cite

75. Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate modal.

When I was a child. I understand adults but now I don’t.

(1) do

(2) should

(3) could

(4) must

76. Complete the following sentence with correct subordinating conjunction:

he worked hard, he did not win.

(1) However

(2) Though

(3) Nevertheless

(4) Moreover

77. The synonym of “Advise” is:

(1) Council

(2) Counsel

(3) Practice

(4) Proposal

78. “to make a long story short” means

(1) paraphrase

(2) come to the "point

(3) display composition skills

(4) have narrative excellence

79. Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate phrasal verb.

The situation is difficult and calls great tact.

(1) out

(2) up

(3) to

(4) for

80. Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate modal.

He by lazy, but he is not stupid.

(1) needn't

(2) mustn't

(3) shall

(4) may

81. Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate modal.

He have escaped by this window because it has been broken open.

(1) need

(2) dare

(3) ought

(4) must

82. Fill In the blanks with the most appropriate option.

We just the most extraordinary verdict today.

(1) to, hear

(2) have, heard

(3) will, hearing

(4) can, heard

83. Complete the following sentence with correct subordinating conjunction:

You must start at once you will be late.

(1) therefore

(2) although

(3) otherwise

(4) because

84. Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate option.

of my friends advised me to take taxi home.

(1) No, the

(2) One, a

(3) More, no article

(4) These, some

85. The antonym of “Proclaim” is:

(1) suppress

(2) pretend

(3) attend

(4) distend

86. निम्न में से कौन-सा अशुद्ध शब्द नहीं है?

(a) प्रमाणिक

(b)रचियता

(c)कनियत्री

(d) अतयाक्षरी

87. किस स्थिति में अवतरण चिहन का प्रयोग सामान्यतः नहीं होता है?

(a) किसी के महत्त्वपूर्ण वचन उद्धृत करने में।

(b) अप्रचलित अथवा विशेष प्रचलित शब्दों में।

(d) रचना का अनुवाद करते हुए।

88. किस शब्द का संधि-विच्छेद त्रुटिपूर्ण हैं?

(a) अभीष्ट अभि इष्ट

(b) वाङ्मय - वाक् मय

(d) महेश्वर्य महा एश्वर्य

89. निम्न में से कौनसा, वचन संबंधी त्रुटि वाला वाक्य है?

(a) महात्मा जी का दर्शन करके में धन्य हो गया।

(b) श्रोताओं में कई श्रेणियों के लोग थे।

(d) हर एक ने टोपी पहन रखी थी।

90. निम्न में से किस विकल्प के सभी शब्द पर्यायवाची है?

(a) विभावरी निशाचरी. रजनी

(b) मधुकरी भिक्षा, भीख

(d) अंबुधि, अर्णन, नीरद

91. किस मुहावरे का अभिप्राय गलत है?

(a) आकाश के तारे तोड़ लाना असंभव कार्य कर डालना।

(b) आँख का काजल चुरा लेना बड़ी बारीकरी से चोरी करना।

(d) ताल कटना संगीत में बाधा उपस्थित होना।

92. अपने घर, गाँव या नगर में किसी का आदर नहीं होता', अभिव्यक्ति हेतु निकटतम लोकोक्ति हैं

(a) घर की खाँड किरकिरी, बाहर का गुड़ मीठा।

(b) घरके पीरों को तेल का मलीदा।

(d) घर आये नाग न पूजिए, बामी पूजन जाय।

93. 'रोगी को बहुत घबराहट हो रही थी। वाक्य में रेखाकित शब्द

(a) संज्ञा

(b) क्रिया

(d) अव्यय

94. 'वह आवमी आ रहा हैं', वाक्य में 'वह' की व्याकरणिक कोटि है।

(a) संज्ञा

(b) सर्वनाम

(d) अव्यय

95. 'नौकर चिड्डी लाया', वाक्य में क्रिया है।

(a) अकर्मक

(b) सकर्मक

(d) प्रेरणार्थक

96. 'कसौटी' शब्द है।

(a) तत्सम

(b) तद्भव

(d) विदेशी

97. निम्न में से कौनसा 'नि' उपसर्ग से निर्मित शब्द है?

(a) निरपराध

(b) निराकर

(d) निर्गम

98. निम्न में से कौनसा वाक्य अशुद्ध है?

(a) वह क्रोध में भरकर चिल्लाने लगा।

(b) अब मेरी बात मान लो।

(d) धन से रहित जीवन व्यर्थ है।

99. निम्न में से कौनसा सही विलोम वर्ग नहीं है?

(a) भिज्ञा- अनभिज्ञ

(b) विधवा - सथवा

(d) नैसर्गिक कृत्रिम

100. निम्न में से कौनसा शब्द-युग्म अर्थ की दृष्टि से त्रुटिपूर्ण है?

(a) निर्झर झरना निर्जर कृपा

(b) प्रसाद कृपा प्रासाद - छह

(d) अभिराम सुंदर