Previous Year Question Papers · M.P. Civil Judge Class-2 (Entry Level) Preliminary Examination 2018

M.P. Civil Judge Class-2 (Entry Level) Preliminary Examination 2018

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Constitution of India (Total 10 Questions) (Qs. No. 1-10)

1. Constitution of India:—Which of the following writs can be issued against private individual as well as public authority?

1. Habeas corpus

2. Mandamus

3. Prohibition

Select the correct answer given above?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

2. Constitution of India:—The state shall provide free and compulsory education to all children at the age of six to fourteen years enshrined in Article?

(a) Art. 21 (b) Art.21A

3. In which of the following amendments of the constitution made in mandatory for the president to accept the advice given by council of ministers—

(a) 39th Amendment

(b) 42nd Amendment

(d) 44th Amendment.

4. Constitution of India:—An ordinance can be issued by the president at any time when—

(a) The parliament is in session

(b) Lok Sabha is not in Session

(d) Both the houses of parliament are not in session.

5. Article of Constitution of India relate to Uniform Civil Code for citizens—

(a) 'Article 45 (b) Article 44

6. Decision of Supreme Court relating to ban on smoking at public places is

(a) Murali S. Deora v. Union of India

(b) Food Corporation of India v. Bharatiya Khadya Nigam Karmachari Sangh

(d) S.R.Chaudhuriv. State of Punjab.

7. Constitution of India:—Where a law is made by a state legislature on the subject enumerated in the concurrent list, with the assent of the President, repugnant to the earlier law made by parliament, then the law so made by the state—

(a) Shall prevail in the state

(b) Shall not prevail in the state

(d) Shall prevail with the permission of High Court.

8. According to the Constitution of India the term “District Judge” shall not include—

(a) Chief Presidency Magistrate

(b) Session Judge

(d) Chief Judge of a Small Cause Court.

9. Article 24 of the Constitution prohibits employment of children in any factory or mine or in any hazardous employment below the age of

(a) Eighteen years

(b) Twelve years

(d) Sixteen years.

10. The power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment etc. under Article 72 of Constitution is exercised by the President of India—

(a) On the advice of the Prime Minister

(b) On his own as Head of the Union

(d) On the advice of the Law Minister.

Civil Procedure Code, 1908 (Total-15 Questions) (Qs. No. 11-25)

11. Civil Procedure Code:—Remedies available against an ex-parte decree include—

(a) Appeal

(b) Review

(d) All of these.

12. Civil Procedure Code:—A caveat shall not remain in force after the expiry of?

(a) 30 days (b) 60 days

13. Civil Procedure Code:—A receiver is an—

(a) Officer of the Court

(b) Agent of the plaintiff

(d) either agent of the plaintiff or defendant its depends on circumstances.

14. Civil Procedure Code:—Right to appeal is—

(a) Fundamental Right

(b) Constitutional Right

(d) All of these.

15. Under Civil Procedure Code, defendant can ask for temporary injunction against the plaintiff if—

(a) There appears to be a danger that plaintiff would waste or alienate the suit property

(b) The Plaintiff threatens to dispose off the property with a view to defrauding his creditors

(d) All of these.

16. Under Civil Procedure Code, when application for review is dismissed—

(a) Appeal can be filed against the order

(b) no appeal lies

(d) None of these.

17. Civil Procedure Code:—Amendment in pleadings relates to—

(a) order 6, rule 15 C.P.C.

(b) order 6, rule 17 C.P.C.

(d) order 6, rule 18 C.P.C.

18. Civil Procedure Code:—In normal course how many adjournment can be granted by Trial Court on sufficient cause?

(a) 5 (b) 2

19. Civil Procedure Code:—A suit may be instituted by a minor?

(a) in his name

(b) in his name by next friend

(d) relative of minor in his name.

20. Before filing a suit against government under Section 80 of Civil Procedure Code it requires a notice to be given to ha government of—

(a) 30 days (b) 80 days

21. if the appellant withdraws the appeal preferred against a decree passed ex-parte, the application under order 9, Rule 13 of Civil Procedure Code shall be—

(a) returned

(b) maintainable

(d) rejected;

22. The court cannot order execution of a decree as per Section 51 of Civil Procedure Code, in which of the following ways?

(b) By attachment and sale of property

(b) A decree for restituting of conjugal rights, by sending the person husband or wife as the case may be to civil prison

(d) By delivery of any property specifically decreed.

23. Civil Procedure Code:—Procedure for suits relating to matters concerning the family is given in—

(a) Order 32-A C.P.C.

(b) Order 29 C.P.C.

(d) Order 30 C.P.C.

24. Under order 32 Rule 1 of Civil Procedure Code a minor means a person who has not attained his majority within the meaning of

(a) Juvenile Justice Act

(b) Civil Procedure Code

(d) Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act.

25. Civil Procedure Code:—Pleading means—

(a) Plaint or rejoinder

(b) Plain t or written statement

(d) Plaint alone.

Transfer of Property Act, 1882 (Total-7 Questions) (Qs. No. 26-32)

26. Transfer of Property Act:—Which of the following is a ground for determination of a lease by forfeiture?

(a) On expiry of lease period

(b) On breach of express conditions

(d) On vesting of lessor interest in the lessee.

27. Transfer of Property Act:—The doctrine of part performance is dealt in.

(a) Section 52 of T.P. Act

(b) Section 53 of T.P. Act

(d) Section 53-A of T.P. Act.

28. Doctrine of ‘Indipendens’ embodied in section 52 Transfer of Property Act—

(a) Invalidate the transfer of immovable property during pending of the suit

(b) It only enacts that the purchaser pendente lite suit is bound by the result of the result of the litigation

(d) It protect the right of collusive transferee.

29. Transfer of Property Act:—If ‘A’ transfers house worth Rs. 2000 to ‘B’ and ‘B’ transfers a field worth Rs. 1200 and in additional pay Rs. 800 in cash to ‘A’ the transfer is—

(a) Exchange

(b) Sale

(d) None of these

30. Transfer of Property Act:—In case of gift, if the donee dies before acceptance, then—

(a) gift is void

(b) gift is valid

(d) None of these.

31. Transfer of Property Act:—Which of the following properties can not be transferred—

(a) Interest in mortgaged property

(b) Right to future maintenance

(d) Share in copyright.

32. Within the meaning of Section 51 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, the transferee:

(a) is not entitled to value of improvements

(b) is entitled to value of improvements

(d) None of these.

Indian Contract Act, 1872 (Total-8 Questions) (Qs. No. 33-40)

33. Indian Contract Act:—A contract of Insurance, the performance of which depends upon a future event falls under the category of ?

(a) Contingent contract

(b) Contract of indemnity

(d) g was z-contract.

34. Indian Contract Act:—An agreement to remain unmarried is—

(a) Valid (b) Void

35. Indian Contract Act:—A ‘contract of insurance’ is a contract of—

(a) guarantee (b) bailment

36. Indian Contract Act:—A, a tradesman, leaves goods at B’s house by mistake. B treats the goods as his own. He is bound to pay A for them

(a) Under Section 69 of Indian Contract Act

(b) Under Section 70 of Indian Contract Act

(d) Under Section 68 of Indian Contract Act.

37. Indian Contract Act:—In a contract in which time is not essence of the contract, the failure to perform the contract before specified time—

(a) Contract win become void

(b) The Promisee is entitled to compensation from the promisor for any loss occasioned to him by such failure

(d) Contrart will become voidable at the option of the promisee.

38. Indian Contract Act:—In which one of the following consideration is not required—

(a) Contract of Bailment

(b) Contract of Guarantee

(d) Contract of Insurance.

39. ‘A’ agree with ‘B’ to discover treasure by magic. Under Indian Contract Act, the agreement is—

(a) Void (b) illegal

40. Indian Contract Act:—‘A’ and ‘B’ make a contract grounded on the erroneous belief that a particular debt is barred by the Indian Law of Limitation?

(a) The contract is voidable

(b) The contract is not voidable

(d) The contract is void because both parties are under mistake.

Specific Relief Act, 1963 (Total-6 Questions) (Qs. No. 41-46)

41. In Specific Relief Act all other words and expressions used but not defined, then their definition and meaning would be the same which has been defined under.

(a) Transfer of Property Act, 1882

(b) Civil Procedure Code, 1908

(d) Easement Act.

42. Specific Relief Act:—What is true in respect of mandatory injunction?

(a) compels the performance of certain positive acts

(b) Is awarded where the temporary Injunction is meaningless

(d) All of these.

43. Specific Relief Act:—Specific performance of contract may be ordered where?

(a) There exists no standard for ascertaining actual damage by non-performance of the act to be done

(b) Compensation is adequate relief

(d) The contract by its nature determinable.

44. Specific Relief Act:—The specific performance of a contract-may be obtained by—

(a) any party thereto

(b) the representative in interest of any party thereto

(d) All of these.

45. Under Section 6 of Specific Relief Act a suit for recovery of possession of immovable property may be brought within from the date of dispossession

(a) 6 Months (b) 3 Months

46. An order or decree passed in a suit presented u/s 6 of the Specific Relief Act is—

(a) Appealable

(b) Re-viewable

(d) Appealable & Re-viewable Both.

Limitation Act, 1963 (Total-4 Questions) (Qs. No. 47-50)

47. In which of the following cases, Section 10 of Limitation Act applies?

(a) Trust*arising by operation of law

(b) Trust for a specific purpose

(d) All of these

48. Limitation Act:—Limitation to obtain a declaration of title of immovable property—

(a) two years, when the right to sue first accrues

(b) three years, when the right to sue first accrues

(d) twelve years, when the right to sue first accrues.

49. Limitation Act:—Period of Limitation for the enforcement of a decree granting a mandatory injunction is—

(a) Twelve years

(b) One years

(d) No period of limitation is prescribed.

50. “Where once time has begun to run, no subsequent disability or inability to institute a suit or make an application stops it” is provided in section of Limitation Act:

(a) Section 4 (b) Section 9

M.P. Accommodation Control Act, 1961 (Total 5 Questions) (Qs. No. 51-55)

51. M.P. Accommodation Control Act:—Where an order for the eviction of a tenant is made under Section 12 on he ground specified in clause (e) of sub-section (1) the tenant is entitled to amount by way of compensation from landlord?

(a) Double the amount of the annual standard rent of the accommodation

(b) Amount of the annual standard rent

(d) As per the order of court.

52. M.P. Accommodation Control Act:— Essential supply enjoyed by a tenant in respect of the accommodation let to him is cut-off by the landlord. Who will make an order to restore such supply?

(a) Collector

(b) Civil Court

(d) Municipal Corporation or Municipality as the case maybe.

53. M.P. Accommodation Control Act:—For a construction, which has materially altered the accommodation to the detriment of the landlord’s interest or is likely to diminish its value substantially, by the tenant—

(a) Oral permission from landlord is sufficient

(b) Written permission of landlord is necessary

(d) No such permission is required.

54. The Provisions of M.P. Accommodation Control Act applies to

(a) Only Municipal Corporation area

(b) Only Municipal Corporation and Nagar Palika area

(d) Whole of Madhya Pradesh.

55. M.P. Accommodation Control Act:—Tenant may be evicted on the ground of bona fide need of landlord for residential purpose, but the need does not extend to—

(a) his son's need

(b) need of the other family members

(d) need of any other tenant paying more rent.

M.P. Land Revenue Code, 1959 (Total-5 Questions) (Qs. No. 56-60)

56. M.P. Land Revenue Code:—Does the khasra entries confer title?

(a) yes, name of Bhumiswami is entered in it

(b) no, entry in revenue record is only for the purpose of Land Revenue.

(d) yes, entries shall be presumed to be correct.

57. M.P. Land Revenue Code:—Whether a non tribal acquires Bhumiswami rights of revenue land by “will ‘executed in his favour by aboriginal tribe?

(a) No, permission of collector is required before execution of will

(b) Yes, permission of collector is not required

(d) Yes, acquiring of Bhumiswami right by will is not transfer.

58. Under M.P. Land Revenue Code, ‘Agriculture Year” means the year commencing on the First Day of ?

(a) January

(b) April

(d) October.

59. M.P. Land Revenue Code:—On whom order government lessee may be ejected from his land?

(a) State Government

(b) Civil Court

(d) Collector.

60. Section of M.P. Land Revenue Code, 1959 relates to rights of way and other private easement

(a) 131 (b) 129

Indian Evidence Act, 1872 (Total-15 Questions) (Qs. No. 61-75)

61. Indian Evidence Act:—Opinion of an expert is—

(a) Supportive and corroborative in nature

(b) Relevant but unsafe

(d) Both supportive and corroborative in natures Relevant but unsafe.

62. As the trial proceeds burden of proof under Section 101 of Indian Evidence Act—

(a) Goes on shifting

(b) May shift

(d) Both May shift & Never shifts.

63. Indian Evidence Act:—Who amongst the following are competent witness?

(a) chance witness

(b) victim of rape

(d) All of these.

64. Indian Evidence Act:—Evidence given by a dumb witness in the court by writing or signs shall be deemed to be:

(a) Documentary evidence

(b) Oral evidence

(d) None of these.

65. Indian Evidence Act:—A statement recorded by Investigation Officer under section 161 Cr.P.C. can be used:

(a) for contradiction

(b) for corroboration

(d) None of these.

66. Indian Evidence Act:—Presumption as to Electronic records and electronic Signature—

(a) Section 85-B of Evidence Act

(b) Section 85-C of Evidence Act

(d) Section 85-A of Evidence Act.

67. Indian Evidence Act:—A disputed handwriting can be proved—

(a) by examining a person acquainted with the handwriting of the writer of the questioned document

(b) by comparison of the court the disputed signature with some admitted signature

(d) All of these

68. In a case related to the abetment of suicide by a woman the provision of presumption is available in Section of Evidence Act—

(a) 114 (b) 113A

69. Indian Evidence Act:—‘A’ and ‘B’ were jointly tried for the murder of ‘C’. During the trial ‘A’ said... “B” and I murdered ‘C’. What is the nature of this evidence against ‘B’?

(a) Substantive evidence

(b) Corroborative evidence

(d) Direct evidence.

70. A dying declaration under Section 32 of the Indian Evidence Act Is admissible in evidence—

(a) Only when it is reduced in writing

(b) Even when it is made to a police officer

(d) Only when it is made to a Executive Magistrate.

71. *A’ is charged with travelling on a railway without a ticket. Under the Indian Evidence Act, the burden of proving that he had a ticket, Is on—

(a) Prosecution

(b) Accused

(d) Prosecution witness.

72. Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872, evidence of “hostile witness”—

(a) Cannot be taken into consideration for any purpose

(b) It cannot be relied on by the prosecution

(d) It can be relied on by the prosecution as well as the defence.

73. Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872, the Rule of ‘‘Res gestae" is applicable in

(a) Civil cases only

(b) Criminal cases only

(d) Not applicable in any case.

74. The opinion of examiner of electronic evidence is a relevant fact under which provision of the Indian Evidence Act?

(a) 45A (b) 47A

75. Under Indian Evidence Act, the evidence given by dog squad Is:

(a) Not admissible .

(b) Not admissible because dependent on the canine inference

(d) Admissible.

Indian Penal Code, 1860 (Total-15 Questions) (Qs. No. 76-90)

76. Indian Penal Code:—K.M. Nanavati v. State of Maharashtra is a leading case on—

(a) Exercise of legal powers

(b) Grave and sudden provocation

(d) Sudden quarrel.

77. Indian Penal Code:—Police Officer arrested and detained a person in lock up despite production of a bail order from court. Police officer is liable—

(a) Wrongful restrain

(b) Wrongful confinement

(d) Abduction.

78. Indian Penal Code‘A’ beat his wife she fell down and becomes unconscious. Believing her to be dead and to save himself from being arrested for murder, ‘A’ hanged her in fan with rope. Post mortem disclosed her death from hanging. ‘A’ is liable for?

(a) Murder

(b) Causing death by negligence

(d) Grievous hurt.

79. Indian Penal Code:—Robbery Is dacoity if committed conjointly by—

(a) More than two persons but less than five persons.

(b) Five or more than five persons

(d) At least ten person.

80. Indian Penal Code:—In case of an offence punishable with fine only, imprisonment for non-payment of fine.

(a) has to be simple

(b) has to be rigorous

(d) either has to be simple or has to be rigorous.

81. Indian Penal Code:—‘A’ and ‘B’ corporation officers legally demolished the illegal constructed structure of ‘C’ and removed the material for safe custody; which offence is committed by ‘A’ and ‘B’?

(a) criminal breach of trust

(b) dishonest misappropriation of property

(d) No offence.

82. Punishment for Trafficking of person is

(a) Section 366A of IPC

(b) Section 368 of IPC

(d) Section 370 of IPC.

83. Section 354D Indian Penal Code is related

(a) Voyeurism

(b) Touching of woman with sexual Intent

(d) Stalking.

84. Indian Penal Code:—Which is not the essential ingredient of offence of “Dowry Death”—

(a) Cruelty or harassment towards woman by her husband or any relative of her husband in for or in connection or with any demand of dowry

(b) Cruelty must be soon before her death

(d) Death of woman within seven years of her marriage.

85. Recently Supreme Court has interpreted the Exception 2 to S. 375 of IPC as “Sexual intercourse or sexual acts by a man with his own wife, the wife not below 18 years, Is not rape”. The case is—

(a) Independent Thought v. Union of India

(b) Youth Advocate Association v. Union of India '

(d) Alakh Alok Shrivastava v. Union of India.

86. Indian Penal Code:—A finds the key of Z’s house door, which Z had lost and enter Z’s house having open the door with that key. A . is guilty of—

(a) Theft

(b) Cheating

(d) Robbery.

87. Indian Penal Code:—‘A’ without any excuse fires a loaded cannon into a crowd of persons and kills one of them. Although he may not have had a premeditated design to kill any particular individual. ‘A’ committed offence of

(a) Section 299IPC (b) Section 300IPC

88. To constitute an offence of Criminal conspiracy under Indian Penal Code, what is the necessary condition to be proved?

(a) There must be a prior meeting of two or more persons

(b) There must be an agreement of two or more persons to do an illegal act or to do a legal act by illegal means

(d) Two or more persons commit a crime on a sudden provocation with guilty mind.

89. Which section of IPC is based on the maxim “de minimis non curat lex”(the law takes no account of trifles)?

(a) Section 91 (b) Section 92

90. According to Indian Penal Code taking property dishonestly from the dead body

(a) Does not amount any offence

(b) Amount to the offence of theft

(d) Amount to the offence of criminal breach of trust.

Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 (Total-15 Questions) (Qs. No. 91-105)

91. Criminal Procedure Code:—When the trial relates to an offence u/s 376 of the I.P.C. the trial shall, as far as possible be completed within a period of—

(a) 6 months (b) 1 year

92. Direction to the police to investigate under section 202 of Criminal Procedure Code—

(a) Can not be given without examining tire complainant on oath

(b) Can be given without examining the complainant on oath

(d) Cannot given in any circumstances.

93. Under section 209 Criminal Procedure Code which of the following cases can be committed to the court of sessions by a magistrate, if it appears to the magistrate that offence is triable exclusively by the court of sessions?

(a) A case instituted on police report

(b) A case Instituted otherwise on a police report

(d) None of these.

94. Criminal Procedure Code:—Which of the following statements is wrong?

(a) When a complaint is dismissed, the court shall record the reasons.

(b) When an accused is discharged, the court need not record the reasons

(d) When cognizance is taken of an offence, the court need not record the reasons.

95. Under Cr.P.C. the period of limitation shall commence—

(a) On the date of taking cognizance

(b) On the date of commission of offence

(d) None of these.

96. Under Section 125 Cr.P.C., a Magistrate of the first Class can order a person to make a monthly allowance for the maintenance of his—

(a) Married daughter who has attained majority

(b) Brother

(d) Father.

97. Criminal Procedure Code:—An accused person pleads guilty and has been convicted on such plea by Chief Judicial Magistrate and a sentence of imprisonment of four years is passed against him—

(a) An appeal shall lie to the High Court only to the extent of legality of the sentence

(b) An appeal shall lie to the Court of sessions only to the extent of legality of the sentence

(d) None of these.

98. In which one of the following Sections of the Criminal Procedure Code provision for free legal aid is made?

(a) Section 301

(b) Section 304

(d) Section 406.

99. Criminal Procedure Code:—An accused can make an application for plea bargaining if and when he is alleged to have committed the offence

(a) Affecting socio-economic condition of the country

(b) Theft

(d) Of Murder.

100. Section 311A of Criminal Procedure Code empowers Magistrate—

(a) To proceed against other person appearing guilty of offence

(b) To record confession of accused during trial

(d) To visit and inspect any place in which an offences is alleged to have been committed.

101. Criminal Procedure Code:—All hospitals, public or private shall provide the first aid and medical treatment, free of cost to the victims of offence of acid attack and rape

(a) Under section 357B of Cr.P.C.

(b) Under section 357C of Cr.P.C.

(d) Under section 53A (2) of Cr.P.C.

102. Who among the following is not entitled to claim maintenance under section 125 of Criminal Procedure Code?

(a) Wife living in adultery

(b) Major married daughter who can not maintain herself

(d) all of these.

103. When can a trial court release an accused on bail under section 389(3) of Cr.P.C. after conviction?

(a) Where accused is on bail and imprisonment is not exceeding 3 Years

(b) Where accused is on bail and imprisonment is not exceeding 5 Years

(d) Where accused is on bail and imprisonment is not exceeding 2 Years.

104. Who can withdraw a case from the . prosecution under Section 321, Cr. P.C?

(a) The State Government

(b) Public Prosecutor Incharge of a case with the permission of Court

(d) District Magistrate.

105. Under Section 357A(2) of Criminal Procedure Code, which of the Authority is authorised to decide quantum of compensation?

(a) Sessions Judge

(b) Legal Service Authority

(d) District Magistrate.

Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 (Total-5 Questions) (Qs. No. 106-110)

106. Negotiable Instruments Act:—”! promise to pay B Rs. 500, and all other sums which shall be due to him.” This is a—

(a) Promissory note

(b) Bill of exchange

(d) None of these.

107. Under section 138 of Negotiable Instruments Act, complaint may be made within .....from cause of action arises—

(a) 15 days (b) One month

108. Offences under Negotiable Instruments Act are compoundable

(a) under Section 145 N.I. Act

(b) under section 147 N.I. Act

(d) under section 320 of Cr.P.C.

109. In a prosecution under Section 138 of Negotiable Act, 1881, it shall not be a defence that—

(a) The cheque does not bear his signature

(b) That the cheque was not issued for the discharged of any debt or other liability

(c) That the Cheque has not been presented to the bank within period of six months from the date on which it is drawn or from the period of its validity whichever is earlier

(d) That the drawer had no reason to believe when he issued the cheque that the cheque may be dishonoured on presentment.

110. Offences under the Negotiable Instruments Act are triable by—

(a) Sessions Judge

(b) Judicial Magistrate first Class

(d) Judicial Magistrate Second Class.

General Knowledge (Total-20 Questions) (Qs. No. 111 -130)

111. The Nodal Agency for Swachh Bharat Mission Gramin is—

(a) Ministry of Environment

(b) Ministry of Rural development

(d) Ministry of Panchayati Raj.

112. Tropic of Cancer does not pass through which among the following district of Madhya Pradesh

(a) Vidisha (b) Rajgarh

113. India should be given “Dominion status” was proposed in?

(a) Cripps Mission

(b) Cabinet mission plan

(d) C.R. Plan.

114. Calcutta High Court is the oldest High Court of India, when it was established?

(a) 1774 (b) 1773

115. “Hima Das” the Indian Sprinter belongs to which state?

(a) West Bengal (b) Assam

116. The First Chief Justice of High Court of Madhya Pradesh?

(a) Justice G.P Singh

(b) Justice P.V. Dixit

(d) Justice N.D. Ojha.

117. Veins carry blood?

(a) Away from the heart

(b) Towards the Heart

(d) None of these.

118. Ramnath Kovind is ; President of India?

(a) 12th (b) 13th

119. Who won the men’s Gold Medal in 10 M. Air Pistel event in the 2018 Asian Games?

(a) Bajrang Punia

(b) Sourabh Choudhary

(d) Abhishek Verma.

120. Who was awarded year 2017 Dada Saheb Phalke Award?

(a) Hema Malini

(b) Vinod Kharina (Pusthumous)

(d) Rekha.

121. Calorie is unit of—

(a) Heat (b) Density

122. When is International Yoga Day celebrated?

(a) 4th June (b) 21st June

123. Who is the current Chief Election Commissioner of India?

(a) V.S. Sampath (b) H.S. Brahma

124. On which date “National Legal Service Day” is observed in India?

(a) 26th November

(b) 26th January

(d) 9th November.

125. Who gave the slogan “Do or Die”?

(a) Mahatma Gandhi

(b) Subhash Chandra Boss

(d) Chandra Shekhar Azad.

126. Which one of the following units is used to measure intensity of noise—

(a) Decible (b) Hz

127. Which Literary personality is not associated with Madhya Pradesh

(a) Dharmvir Bharti

(b) Shared Joshi

(d) Harishankar Parsai.

128. Chromosomes are made up of?

(a) RNA and Lipids

(b) DMA and sugar

(d) DNA and RNA.

129. Where is the headquarter of West Central Railway Zone situated?

(a) Jabalpur (b) Bhopal

130. Who propounded the theory of economic drain of India during British Imperialism?

(a) C.V. Raman

(b) C. Rajgopalachari

(d) W.C. Bannerjee.

Computer Knowledge (Total-10 Questions) (Qs. No. 131-140)

131. A light sensitive device that converts drawing, printed text into digital form is....

(a) Keyboard (b) Printer

132. http stands for—

(a) High Text Transfer Protocol

(b) Hyper Task Transfer Protocol

(d) High Task Transfer Protocol.

133. Which one works as an output and input device?

(a) Modem (b) Scanner

134. DVD is short form for—

(a) Digital Versatile Disk

(b) Digital Volatile Disk

(d) Digital Valid Disk.

135. Upon switching off the power, the type of memory that readily loses data is classified as—

(a) Volatile Memory

(b) Impect Storage

(d) Non-lmpect Storage.

136. Debug is term denoting—

(a) Error correction process

(b) Writing of instructions in developing a new program

(d) Determining useful life.

137 is the preferred file format for saving photographic image.

(a) Java (b) jpeg

138. The software that allows you to read web pages and surf the internet is called a—

(a) Web Crawler (b) Search Engine

139. ‘Word Processing’, ‘Spread Sheet’ and ‘Photo Editing’ are example of—

(a) Application Software

(b) System Software

(d) Platform Software.

140. Servers are computers that provide resources to other computers connected to a

(a) mainframe (b) supercomputer

English Knowledge (Total-10 Questions) (Qs. No. 141-150)

141. Prohibited by law or Treaty from being imported or exported

(a) Contraband (b) Smuggled

142. One who makes an official Examination of Accounts.

(a) Clerk (b) Accountant

143. To hold a heavy heart means

(a) about to die

(b) to be weighed down with sorrow

(d) to be fed up with life.

144 best expresses the meaning of the phrase “off and on”

(a) repeatedly (b) always

145 best expresses the meaning of the phrase “Ins and outs”

(a) entrances and exits

(b) details and complexities

(d) rules and regulations.

146 best expresses the meaning of the idiom “Take to one’s heels”

(a) to measure upto one's standard

(b) to shake in one's shoes

(d) to run slowly.

147. Antonym of word “fake” is

(a) Genuine (b) FALSE

148. Word which best express the meaning of the “Nebulous”

(a) Vague (b) Tiny

149. I think I’ve got a cold, I cant stop

(a) Sneeze (b) The sneezing

150. One who does not believe in God is called—

(a) Theist (b) Atheist