Previous Year Question Papers · Gujarat Judicial Service Examination, 2022

Gujarat Judicial Service Examination, 2022

21 min read

1 was the first computer.

(A) Abacus

(B) Napier's Bones

(D) Param 8OOO

2. 5th generation of computers is called the age of

(A) Desktops

(B) Microsoft

(D) Artificial Intelligence

3. CTRL + C is used for...

(A) Creating text

(B) Copying text

(D) Pasting text

4. India bought its first computer in the year

(A) 1950

(B) 1966 .

(D) 1959

5. There are how many most common classifications of operating systems?

(A) 4

(B) 6 ,

(D) 9

6. Which option enables us to see and check a page before printing?

(A) Review

(B) Field

(D) None of these options

7. Booting is a. sequence.

(A) secondary

(B) startup

(D) ending

8. Under Section 29 of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, there shall lie an appeal to the Court of Session within days from the date on which the order made by the Magistrate is served on the aggrieved person or the respondent, as the case may be, whichever is later.

(A) 30

(B) 60

(D) 120

9. The Court may at any stage of the proceedings, order that the name of . any party improperly joined, whether as plaintiff or defendant, be struck out. Where do you find this provision in the Code of Civil Procedure?

(A) Order I, rule 8(2)

(B) Order I, rule 9

(D) Order I, rule 12(2)

10. The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 is..... ...

(A) an arbitrary law

(B) a substantive law

(D) None of these options

11. The Court may at any stage of the proceedings order to be struck out or amended any matter in any pleading

(A) which may be vexatitous

(B) which may tend to delay the fair trial the suit

(D) All of these options

12. An appeal against an order under rule 1, rule 2 of Order XXXIX of the C.P. Code, 1908 shall lie under which of these Orders of the said Code?

(A) Order XLI

(B) Order XLII

(D) Order XLIV

13. The provisions of ‘Precepts’ are found in which of these provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?

(A) Section 34

(B) Section 36

(D) Section 150

14. The provisions regarding ‘Discovery and Inspection’ are found in which of these Orders of the C.P. Code, 1908?

(A) Order X

(B) Order XI

(D) Order XIII

15. Where any claim is preferred to, or any objection is made to the attachment of any property attached in execution of a decree on the ground that such property is not liable to such attachment, the Court shall proceed to adjudicate upon the claim or objection in accordance with the provisions contained in

(A) Order XXIZ rule 54

(B) Order XXI, rule 55

(D) Order XXI, rule 59

16. When the plaintiff appears and the defendant does not appear when the suit is called on for hearing, then, if it is proved that the summons was duly served, the Court

(A) shall direct a second summons to be issued and served on the defendant in larger interest of justice

(B) may make an order that the suit shall be heard ex parte

(C) shall postpone the hearing of the suit to a future day to be fixed by the Court and shall direct notice of such day to be given to the defendant

(D) None of these options

17. For the purposes of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, every Court of Small Causes is subordinate to the

(A) District Court only

(B) High Court only

(D) None of these options

18. In suits by or against a corporation, any pleading may be signed and verified on behalf of the corporation by who is able to depose to the facts of the case.

(A) the secretary

(B) any director of the company

(D) Any one of these persons mentioned in options A to C

19. Secondary evidence may be given of the existence, condition or contents of a document

(A) when the original is of such a nature as not to be easily movable

(B) when the original has been destroyed or lost

(D) All of these options

20. ‘A man is in possession of stolen goods soon after the theft’ - Choose the correct presumption from the options given which the Court may presume.

(A) That he is an innocent person

(B) That he must be knowing the thief

(D) None of these options

21. Under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, when a person is bound to prove the existence of any fact, it is said that

(A) the burden of proof lies on that person

(B) he has to discharge his burden in rebuttal

(D) None of these options

22. Under Section 143 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, leading questions may be asked in

(A) examination-in-chief

(B) re-examination

(D) None of these options

23. Law of evidence is

(A) lex fori

(B) lex posterior

(D) None of these options

24. Except as otherwise provided by Chapter II of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, the specific performance of a contract may be obtained by

(A) a reversioner in possession, where the agreement is a covenant entered into with his predecessor in title and the reversioner is entitled to the benefit of such covenant

(B) any party thereto

(D) All of these options

25. No suit under section 6(2)(a) of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 shall be brought after the expiry of months from the date of dispossession.

(A) one

(B) two

(D) six

26. Dispute arising out of which of these agreements given would mean ‘Commercial dispute'?

(A) joint venture agreements

(B) technology development agreements

(D) All of these options

27. Chapter IDA - ‘Pre-institution Mediation and Settlement’ in the Commercial Courts Act, 2015 was inserted in the year

(A) 2018

(B) 2017

(D) 2015

28. An offence punishable under the Indecent Representation of Women (Prohibition) Act, 1986 shall be

(A) non-bailable and cognizable

(B) non-bailable and non-cognizable

(D) None of these options

29. The punishment for causing death by negligence under section 304A of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 is

(A) imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to five years, or with fine, or with both

(B) imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine, or with both

(D) imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to seven years, or with fine, or with both

30. Indian Penal Code was drafted by

(A) Lord William Bentik

(B) Lord Delhousie

(D) Dr. Ambedkar

31. Whoever wages war against the Government of India, or attempts to wage such war, or abets the waging of such war, shall be punished with

(A) imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to five years, or with fine, or with both

(B) imprisonment for life and shall also be liable to fine

(D) imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to seven years and shall also be liable to fine

32 is designated as ‘grievous hurt’ under the Indian Penal Code, 1860.

(A) Any hurt which endangers life

(B) Any hurt which causes the sufferer to be during the space of twenty days in severe bodily pain

(D) All of these options

33 is an offence against the Public Tranquillity.

(A) Bribery

(B) Affray

(D) Obstruction to lawful apprehension

34. In which of these cases were the Transgender people recognized as a Third gender?

(A) Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India

(B) Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab

(D) National Legal Services Authority v. Union of India

35. Any person may obtain an extract from the register of births and deaths relating to any birth or death under of the Registration of Births and Deaths Act, 1969.

(A) Section 12

(B) Section 17

(D) Section 20

36. Promises which form the consideration or part of the consideration for each other, are called

(A) reciprocal promises

(B) acceptance

(D) None of these options

37 means and includes causing, however innocently, a party to an agreement, to make a mistake as to the substance of the thing which is the subject of the agreement.

(A) fraud

(B) undue influence

(D) misrepresentation

38. The bailment of goods as security for payment of a debt or performance of a promise is called

(A) hypothecation

(B) pledge

(D) collateral security

39. 25 persons are in a room. 15 of them play hockey, 17 of them play football and 10 of them play both hockey and football. Then the number of persons playing neither hockey nor football is

(A) 2

(B) 17

(D) 3

40. Seven machines take 7 minutes to make 7 identical toys. At the same time rate how many minutes would it take for 100 machines to make 100 toys?

(A) 1

(B) 7

(D) 700

41. Ten friends planned to share equally the cost of buying a gift for their teacher. When two of them decided not to contribute, each of the other friends had to pay Rs. 150 more. The cost of the gift was Rs

(A) 666

(B) 3000

(D) 6000

42. 'A’ bought a certain quantity of bananas at a total cost of Rs. 1500. He sold 1/3 of these bananas at 25% loss. If he earns an overall profit of 10%, at what percentage profit did ‘A’ sell the rest of the bananas?

(A) 25.00%

(B) 27.00%

(D) 25.75%

43. Rahul, Murali, Srinivas and Arul are seated around a square table. Rahul is sitting to the left of Murali, Srinivas is sitting to the right of Arul. Which of the Mowing pairs are seated opposite each other?

(A) Rahul and Murali

(B) Srinivas and Arul

(D) Srinivas and Rahul

44. Under the Information Technology Act, 2000, whoever commits or conspires to commit cyber terrorism shall be punished with

(A) imprisonment which may extend to imprisonment for ten years

(B) imprisonment which may extend to imprisonment for life

(D) imprisonment which may extend to imprisonment for five years

45 means any facility from where access to the internet is offered by any person in the ordinary course of business to the members of the public.

(A) Data provider

(B) Cyber cafe

(D) Bluetooth

46. Choose the appropriate word from the options given to complete the following sentence: “One of his biggest was his ability to forgive."

(A) Vice

(B) Virtues

(D) Strength

47. The grammatical categories of ‘Strength, strengthen’ are

(A) Noun, Verb

(B) Verb, Noun

(D) Adjective, Noun

48. A sheaf is of

(A) Train

(B) Aeroplane

(D) Arrows

49. The synonym of the word ‘APEX’ is

(A) Peak

(B) underground

(D) greedy

50. The antonym of the word ‘Malign’ is

(A) Praise

(B) support

(D) slender

51. Select the most appropriate word that can replace the highlighted word without changing the meaning of the sentence: ‘Now-a-days, most children have a tendency to belittle the legitimate concerns of their parents’.

(A) disparage

(B) bedrudge

(D) applaud'

52. Choose the correct idiom, from the options given, for: “loose one's temper".

(A) Flesh and blood

(B) In cold blood

(D) Fly off the handle

53. Choose the correct word for the expression given: “a room for the display of works of art".

(A) artery

(B) artillery

(D) library

54. Which of the options given, best completes the given sentence: ‘She will feel much better if she ’.

(A) will get some rest

(B) gets some rest

(D) is getting some rest

55. Any person aggrieved by an order made by the Committee or the Board under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 may, within 30 days from the date of such order, prefer an appeal to the

(A) Wakf Board

(B) Children's Court

(D) High Court

56. Under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015, ‘heinous offences’ includes the offences for which the minimum punishment under the Indian Penal Code (45 of 1860) or any other law for the time being in force is

(A) imprisonment for five years or more

(B) imprisonment for seven years or more

(D) imprisonment for ten years or more

57. The provisions regarding ‘bail to a person who is apparently a child alleged to be in conflict with law’ is found in which of these sections of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protects of Children) Act, 2015?

(A) Section 12

(B) Section 11

(D) Section 9

58. Which of these Acts define the expression ‘penetrative sexual assault’ ?

(A) Indian Penal Code, 1860

(B) The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012

(D) The Indecent Representation of Women (Prohibition) Act, 1986

59. Under section 35 of the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012, the Special Court shall complete the trial, as far as possible, within a period of from the date of taking cognizance of the offence.

(A) one year

(B) two years

(D) three years

60. Under section 216 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, any Court may alter or add to any charge at any time

(A) before the witnesses are examined

(B) before the arguments are concluded

(D) None of these options

61. Proceedings under section 125 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 may be taken against any person in any district

(A) where he or his wife resides

(B) where he last resided with his wife

(D) All of these options

62 is the main legislation on procedure for administration of substantive criminal law in India.

(A) Indian Evidence Act, 1872

(B) Indian Penal Code, 1860

(D) The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973

63. In which of these cases did the Hon’ble Supreme Court held that *... Section 198(2), Cr.P.C. which contains procedure for prosecution under Chapter XX of the Indian Penal Code shall be unconstitutional to the extent that it is applicable to the offence of Adultery under section 497, I.P.C.’?

(A) Baba Saheb Maruti Kamble v. State of Maharashtra

(B) Joseph Shine v. Union of India

(D) Sunil Batra v. Delhi Administration

64. The provisions regarding ‘Recruitment of persons other than district judges to the judicial service’ is found in which of these Articles of the Constitution of India?

(A) Article 233

(B) Article 233A

(D) Article 237

65. Part III of the Constitution of India guarantees

(A) Citizenship

(B) Directive Principles of State Policy

(D) Fundamental Duties

66. The words ‘unity and integrity of the Nation’ were substituted for the words ‘unity of the Nation’ by the

(A) Constitution (Forty-second Amendment) Act, 1976

(B) Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956

(D) Constitution (Ninety-third Amendment) Act, 2005

67. In which of these cases has the Hon’ble Supreme Court of India held that ‘Timely delivery of justice is part of human rights. Denial of speedy justice is a threat to public confidence in the administration of justice'?

(A) K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) v. Union of India

(B) Hussain v. Union of India

(D) Ravinder Singh v. State of Himachal Pradesh

68. What is the proper court-fee to be paid on a Vakalatnama when presented for the conduct of any one case to a District Court or Court of Session?

(A) Rs. 2/-

(B) Rs. 3/-

(D) Rs. 10/-

69. Give the meaning of “Nemo Debet Esse Judex in Propria Sua Causai’.

(A) No man can be judge in his own case

(B) A man shall not be vexed twice for one and the same cause

(D) No one is to be punished for the crime or wrong of another

70. Audi Alteram Partem means

(A) alternate parties to the proceedings

(B) no one shall be condemned unheard

(D) None of these options

71. ‘Minor’ under the Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act, 1956 means

(A) a person who has not completed the age of eighteen years

(B) a person who has completed the age of sixteen years but has not completed the age of eighteen years

(D) a person who has completed the age of twelve years but has not completed the age of eighteen years

72 means an instrument made in relation to a Will, and explaining,, altering or adding to its dispositions, and shall be deemed to form part of the Will.

(A) Corrigendum

(B) Addendum

(D) Deed of amendment

73. The Sale of Goods is a law

(A) Administrative

(B) Adjective

(D) None of these options

74. Under section 2(4) of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, “document of title to goods” includes

(A) warehouse keeper's certificate

(B) railway receipt

(D) All of these options

75. An application for setting aside arbitral award may not be made after months have elapsed from the date on which the party making that application had received the arbitral award or, if a request had been made under Section 33, from the date on which that request had been disposed of by the arbitral tribunal.

(A) one

(B) two

(D) four

76. The provisions regarding ‘Interim measures ordered by arbitral tribunal are found in which of these sections of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996?

(A) Section 16

(B) Section 17

(D) Section 34

77 was the Political Guru of Gandhiji.

(A) Gopal Krishna Gokhale

(B) Mahadev Desai

(D) John Ruskin

78 founded the Theosophical Society in India and started the Home Rule League.

(A) Bipin Chandra Pal

(B) Sarojini Naidu

(D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

79. Which one of the given options is classified as one of the inner planets?

(A) Mars

(B) Saturn

(D) Uranus

80. The national tree of India is

(A) The Mango Tree

(B) The Palm Tree

(D) The Nilgiri Tree

81. The largest Country of world (area-wise) is

(A) China

(B) Russia

(D) USA

82 is the classical dance of Tamil Nadu.

(A) Kathakali

(B) Bharatnatyam

(D) .Mohiniattam

83. India has languages which have been given the official language status.

(A) 22

(B) 23

(D) 25

84. The sport organization FIDE is associated with the game of

(A) Football

(B) Table Tennis

(D) Badminton

85. The study of is called Selenology.

(A) Sun

(B) Neptune

(D) Moon

86. The location of the famous tourist spot ‘Laxman Jhula’ is

(A) Delhi

(B) Chhatarpur (Madhya Pradesh)

(D) None of these options

87. The Richter scale was invented by an American seismologist named Charles Richter to quantify the magnitude or strength of

(A) tides

(B) an earthquake

(D) tornado

88. The period of limitation for filing a suit to cancel or set aside an instrument or decree or for the rescission of a contract is

(A) Three years

(B) One year

(D) Thirty years

89. The period of limitation for preferring an appeal, under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (5 of 1908), to a High Court from any decree or order is

(A) 120 days

(B) 90 days

(D) 30 days

90. Under section 2(a) of the Limitation Act, 1963, “applicant” includes

(A) any person whose estate is represented by the applicant as executor, administrator or other representative

(B) any person from or through whom an applicant derives his right to apply

(D) All of these options

91. The period of limitation for preferring an application to record an adjustment or satisfaction of a decree is 30 days. The time from which period begins to run is

(A) When the payment or adjustment is made

(B) When the payment or adjustment is refused

(D) None of these options

92 is a transfer of ownership in exchange for a price paid or promised or part-paid and part-promised.

(A) Mortgage

(B) License

(D) Lease

93. Under section 122 of the Transfer of Property Act, if the donee dies before the acceptance of the gift, such a gift is

(A) void

(B) voidable

(D) None of these options

94. The person committing an offence under section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act,1881 shall be punished with

(A) imprisonment for two years with fine to twice the amount of cheque

(B) imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine which may extend to twice the amount of the cheque

(C) imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years, and with fine may extend to twice the amount of the cheque, or with both

(D) imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine which may extend to twice the amount of the cheque

95. In which of these cases did the Hon'ble Supreme Court observed thus “The consequences scuttling the criminal process at a pre-trial stage can be grave and irreparable. QuasAproceedings at preliminary stages will result in finality without the parties having had opportunity to adduce evidence and the consequence then is that the proper forum i.e. trial Court is ousted from weighing the material evidence. If this is allowed, the accused may be given an un-merited advantage in the criminal process...'?

(A) Akhilesh Prasad v. Jharkhan Public Service Commission and Others

(B) Ratish Babu Unnikrishnan v. State (Govt, of NCT of Delhi) and Another

(D) Ram Chander v. State of Chhattisgarh

96. Court shall take cognizance of any offence punishable under section 138 of N.I. Act,. 1881 upon complaint made within of the date on which the cause of action arises under clause ( ) of the proviso to section 138.

(A) six months

(B) three months

(D) one month

97. Every offence under the Pre-conception and Pre-natal Diagnostic Techniques (Prohibition to Sex Selection) Act, 1994 shall be

(A) cognizable, non-bailable and non- compoundable

(B) cognizable, bailable and compoundable

(D) non-cognizable, bailable and non- compoundable

98. The provisions regarding ‘Effect of non-registration’ are found in which of these sections of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932?

(A) Section 69

(B) Section 59

(D) None of these options

99. Under the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, “business” includes

(A) every trade

(B) profession

(D) All of these options

100. Under the Gujarat Prohibition Act, 1949, “liquor” includes

(A) spirits

(B) wine

(D) All of these options