Chhattisgarh Public Service Commission Raipur Civil Judge (Pre) Examination, 2014

1. " ‘A’ intentionally causes B’s death partly by illegally omitting to give B food and partly by beating. A has committed the offence of

(1) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder

(2) Murder

(3) Grievous hurt

(4) Hurt

2. Act done in pursuance of order of court, if done in good faith is coverable under General Exception under which of the following sections of I.P.C.

(1) Section 76

(2) Section 77

(3) Section 78

(4) Section 79

3. ‘A’ instigate ‘B’ to murder ‘C*. B refuses to do so. A is guilty of

(1) Murder

(2) Culpable homicide

(3) Abetment of murder

(4) No offence

4. In I.P.C., punishment for rioting is provided under

(1) Section 145

(2) Section 146

(3) Section 147

(4) Section 148

5. A, being legally bound to appear before Raipur district judge as witness in obedience to a summons issued by court, intentionally omits to appear. A is guilty under which of the following provisions of I.P.C.

(1) Section 173

(2) Section 174

(3) Section 175

(4) Section 176

6. ‘A’ knowing that ‘B’ has murdered ‘C’ assists ‘B’ to hide the body with intention of screening ‘B’ from punishment. A is liable for punishment to

(1) Seven year imprisonment and fine

(2) Seven year imprisonment

(3) Five year imprisonment

(4) Five year imprisonment and fine

7. Punishment for disclosure of identity of victim of rape is provided under which of the following provision of I.P.C.

(1) Section 225

(2) Section 225A

(3) Section 226

(4) Section 228A

8. Offences against human body are provided under which of the following chapters of I.P.C.

(1) Chapter XI

(2) Chapter XII

(3) Chapter XIII

(4) Chapter XVI

9. ‘A’, a police officer tortures ‘B’ to induce ‘B’ to confess that he has committed a crime. A is guilty under which of the following are vision of I.P.C.

(1) Section 327

(2) Section 328

(3) Section 329

(4) Section 330

10. ‘A’ signs his own name to a document intending that the document was signed by another person of the same name. Which of the offences defined in I.P.C. is committed by ‘A’

(1) Section 461

(2) Section 464

(3) No offence

(4) Section 491

11. List of cognizable and non-cognizable offences is provided under of Cr.P.C.

(1) Section 106

(2) Section 110

(3) Section I

(4) Section II

12. Section 6 of Cr.P.C. provides .

(1) Territorial jurisdiction

(2) Classes of criminal courts

(3) Jurisdiction of criminal courts

(4) Power of magistrate

13. Plea bargaining is provided under which part of the Cr.P.C.

(1) Chapter XIX

(2) Chapter XX

(3) Chapter XXA

(4) Chapter XXIA

14. Power to order execution of bond for behavior under Section 106 of Cr.P.C. is vested in

(1) only judicial magistrate

(2) only police commissioner

(3) only executive magistrate

(4) None of these

15. Which Section of Cr.P.C. defines cognizable offence?

(1) Section 2(a)

(2) Section 2(b)

(3) Section 2(c)

(4) Section 2(d)

16. Under Section ‘41-C’ of Cr.P.C. State Government shall establish police control room

(1) Only at district level

(2) Only at state level

(3) Only at commissioner level

(4) At state and district level

17. Under which provision an arrested person person has right to meet an advocate of his choice during interrogation

(1) Section 39 of Cr.P.C.

(2) Section 40 of Cr.P.C.

(3) Section 41A of Cr.P.C.

(4) Section 41D of Cr.P.C.

18. Under Section 102 of Cr.P.C. who is authorized to seize stolen property?

(1) Public officer

(2) Judicial magistrate

(3) Executive magistrate

(4) Special magistrate

19. Which provision of Cr.P.C. deals with power of revision of High Court?

(1) Section 398

(2) Section 399

(3) Section 400

(4) Section 401

20. Under Section 468 of Cr.P.C. for an offence 'punishable with imprisonment exceeding one year but not exceeding three years, the limitation period for taking cognizance is

(1) One year

(2) Two year

(3) Three year

(4) Five year

21. Private alienation of property after attachment is

(1) Legal

(2) Irregular

(3) Void

(4) Voidable

22. Section 75 of C.P.C. deals with

(1) Power to issue summons

(2) Power to issue commission

(3) Right to appeal

(4) Res judicata

23. In C.P.C. provision for out of court settlement of suits is made under

(1) Section 75

(2) Section 76

(3) Section 88

(4) Section 89

24. Essential condition provided under section 100(i) of C.P.C. for preferring second appeal is

(1) Substantial question of fact

(2) Substantial question of law

(3) Error regarding jurisdiction

(4) Subject matter of public importance

25. If court is satisfied that a case pending before it involves a question as to validity of any Act, the Court should

(1) Decide the validity’ of Act

(2) Refer the matter to the High Court

(3) High Court should exercise power to revision

(4) Refer to supreme court for advice

26. Who of the following is exempted from personal appearance before court?

(1) Ministers of Union

(2) Ministers of State

(3) Judges of High Court

(4) All of these

27. Period of operation of caveat under C.P.C. is

(1) Fifteen days

(2) Sixteen days

(3) Ninety days

(4) Four months

28. Can a document which is not produced with the plaint and which ought to have been produced by the plaintiff, be received in the evidence on his behalf?

(1) No

(2) Yes

(3) Only with leave of court

(4} Only before framing of issues

29. What the court can do when neither party appears when it is called for hearing?

(1) Ex-parte order

(2) Refer for arbitration

(3) Refer for conciliation

(4) Dismissal of suit

30. What is maximum time granted to court by C.P.C. to draw up a decree after pronouncing judgment?

(1) 15 days

(2) 30 days

(3) 45 days

(4) 60 days

31. Under Section 3 of Evidence Act, court does not include

(1) Judge

(2) Magistrate

(3) Arbitrator

(4) District Judge

32. As per section 1 of Indian Evidence Act, the Act came into force on

(1) March 15,1872

(2) September 1,1872

(3) September 15,1872

(4) October 1,1872

33. Indian Evidence Act consists of

(1) 11 Chapters 167 Sections

(2) 11 Chapters 2 Schedules

(3) 11 Chapters 197 Sections

(4) 11 Chapters 3 Schedules

34. In Indian Evidence Act, the principle of res gestae is codified under

(1) Section 4

(2) Section 5

(3) Section 6

(4) Section 7

35. ‘A’ is tried for murder of 'B' by administering Potassium Cynide. The fact that A has purchased potassium cynide just before the murder of B is relevant under

(1) Section 4

(2) Section 8

(3) Section 9

(4) Section 10

36. In which section of Indian Evidence Act, those conditions are mentioned when facts not otherwise relevant, are relevant

(1) Section 11

(2) Section 12

(3) Section 13

(4) Section 14

37. In Evidence Act confession is defined under

(1) Section 19

(2) Section 20

(3) Section 21

(4) None of these

38. What is evidentiary value of admission?

(1) Unimportant

(2) Conclusive proof

(3) As estoppel

(4) Binding

39. In which chapter of Indian Evidence Act provisions regarding Burden of proof are codified

(1) Chapter IV

(2) Chapter V

(3) Chapter VI

(4) Chapter VII

40. Evidence given by dumb witness according to section 119, shall be treated to be

(1) Oral Evidence

(2) Documentary Evidence

(3) Hearsay Evidence

(4) Circumstantial Evidence

41. In Preamble of Constitution, word socialist was added by

(1) Section 2 of 42nd Amendment Act

(2) Section 3 of 42nd Amendment Act

(3) Section 4 of 42nd Amendment Act

(4) Section 5 of 42nd Amendment Act

42. Which of the following provisions empower President to appoint the Prime Minister?

(1) Article 74

(2) Article 75

(3) Article 76

(4) Article 77

43. A money Bill passed by Lok Sabha is deemed to have been passed by Rajya Sabha, if no action is taken within

(1) Three weeks

(2) Fourteen days

(3) Four weeks

(4) Seventeen days

44. Chief Election Commissioner of India may be removed by

(1) Resolution of cabinet by two third majority

(2) Resolution of both houses

(3) On recommendation of Chief justice of India

(4) None of these

45. The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on

(1) November 25,1949

(2) November 29,1949

(3) November 26,1949

(4) November 27,1949

46. In which of the following case Supreme Court has ruled by majority that Parliament can not amend Fundamental rights exercising its power under Article, 368.

(1) Shaskari Prasad v. Union of India

(2) Sajjan Singh Case 1000

(3) Golak Nath v. Punjab

(4) Kesavanda case

47. First women judge to be appointed to Supreme Court was

(1) M. Fatima Bivi

(2) Cyan Sudha Mishra

(3) Leela Seth

(4) Rani Jethamalani

48. What is the tenure of Chief Election Commissioner of India?

(1) Five years

(2) 62 years of age

(3) Five years or 62,years of age whichever is earlier

(4) Six years or 65 years of age whichever is Earlier

49. Which of the constitutional provisions provides personal immunity to the President of India for his official act from answerability to any court

(1) Article 362

(2) Article 363

(3) Article 364

(4) Article 361

50. After declaration eft financial emergency what is the maximum period of its operation without .approval of President?

(1) Four months

(2) Three months

(3) Two months

(4) One month

51. Which of the following statement is incorrect

(1) Every cohtractis an agreement but every agreement is not a contract

(2) The test of contractual intention should be objective and not subjective

(3) Acceptance is complete when it is communicated to the offeror

(4) The party inviting tender is 18 years old to accept the tender

52. Which provision of Indian Contract Act provides definition of free consent

(1) Section 13

(2) Section 14

(3) Section 10

(4) Section 11

53. Agreement, the meaning of which is not certain are

(1) Valid

(2) Voidable

(3) Void

(4) Effective

54. In Indian Contract Act, Contingent contract is defined under

(1) Section 30

(2) Section 31

(3) Section 37

(4) Section 36

55. Section 4 of Indian Contract Act deals

(1) About persons by whom promise is to be performed

(2) About compensation on non performance of promise

(3) About violability of agreement

(4) About legality of contract

56. In Indian Contract Act, certain relations resembling with contracts are provided under

(1) Chapter IV

(2) Chapter V

(3) ChapterVI

(4) Chapter VII

57. In Indian Contract Act, the responsibility of finder of goods is provided under

(1) Section 68

(2) Section 69

(3) Section 70

(4) Section 71

58. Transfer of Property Act, 1882, came into force on

(1) March 1,1882

(2) April 1,1882

(3) May 1,1882

(4) None of these

59. In Transfer of Property Act, conditions of oral transfer are provided under

(1) Section 8

(2) Section 9

(3) Section 10

(4) Section 11

60. Section 58 of Transfer of Property Act defines

(1) Mortagor

(2) Mortgage

(3) Mortgage money

(4) All of these

61. In Transfer of Property Act, rights and liabilities of mortgagee is provided under

(1) Section 55 to 57

(2) Section 61 to 65

(3) Section 67 to 77

(4) Section 78

62. In Transfer of Property Act, rights of seller and buyer are provided under

(1) Section 64 to 66

(2) Section 67 to 77

(3) Section 78 to 80

(4) Section 55

63. In Transfer of Property Act, effect of holding over of lease is provided under

(1) Section 114A

(2) Section 115

(3) Section 116

(4) Section 117

64. in Transfer of Property Act, provision regarding onerous gift is provided in

(1) Section 124

(2) Section 125

(3) Section 126

(4) Section 127

65. Specific Relief Act, 1963, came into Operation on

(1) December 14,1963

(2) January 1,1964

(3) February 1,1964

(4) March 1,1964

66. Section 44 of Specific Relief Act is related with

(1) Permanent injunction

(2) Negative agreement

(3) Compensation

(4) Repeal

67. In which section of Specific Relief Act, 1963 provision regarding perpetual injunction has been made?

(1) Section 34

(2) Section 38

(3) Section 39

(4) Section 44

68. Provision regarding grant of mandatory injunction has been made under which of the following sections of Specific Relief Act, 1963

(1) Section 31

(2) Section 35

(3) Section 39

(4) Section 43

69. Section 42 of Specific Relief Act, 1963 provides for

(1) Injunction to perform negative agreements

(2) Injunction when refused

(3) Damages in lieu of injunction

(4) Mandatory injunction

70. Computation of limitation time, for date used in an instrument, will be calculated according to which Calendar?

(1) Hindu Calender

(2) Islamic Calender

(3) English Calender

(4) Gregorian Calender

71. Fora suit for which no Limitation period is provided, the period of limitation will be

(1) Three years

(2) Five years

(3) Twelve years

(4) Thirty years

72. In which section of Indian Limitation Act, time limit is provided for acquiring easement by way of prescription?

(1) Section 24

(2) Section 25

(3) Section 26

(4) Section 27

73. In which section of India Limitation Act, effect of death before accrual of right to sue is provided?

(1) Section 16

(2) Section 18

(3) Section 19

(4) Section 20

74. Grounds of legal disability provided under Section 6 of Limitation Act are

(1) Minority

(2) Insanity

(3) Idiocy

(4) All of these

75. Under Registration Act, Inspector General of Registration is appointed by

(1) President

(2) President on advice of Central /.Government

(3) President on recommendation of Governor

(4) State Government

76. When the office of Registrar is temporarily vacant, who has power to act as Registrar till permanent arrangement is made?

(1) Governor

(2) Governor on advice of State Government

(3) Inspector General of Registration

(4) District Judge

77. Section 16A of Registration Act was inserted in

(1) Year 2001

(2) Year 1950

(3) Year 1939

(4) Year 1937

78. What is provided under Section 17 of Registration Act?

(1) Storage of documents

(2) Validation of use of computers

(3) Documents of which registration is compulsory

(4) Documents of which registration is optional

79. In Registration Act, provision of re-registration of certain documents is made under

(1) Section 22

(2) Section 23

(3) Section 23A

(4) Section 22A

80. Under Negotiable Instruments Act, promissory note can be drawn for minimum period of

(1) Thirty days

(2) Six months

(3) One year

(4) No time limit is fixed

81. Negotiable instrument is defined under

(1) Section 25 of Reserve Bank of India

(2) Section 13 of Banking Regulation Act

(3) Section 13 of Negotiable Instruments Act

(4) Section 3 of Banking Instruments Act,

82. Under Negotiable Instruments Act, “Bill of Exchange” is defined under

(1) Section 3

(2) Section 10

(3) Section 12

(4) Section 13

83. Instruction of “Stop Payment” remains valid for

(1) Three months

(2) One Year

(3) Two years

(4) None of these

84. In which section of Negotiable Instruments Act, “Public holiday” is explained? -

(1) Section 21

(2) Section 22

(3) Section 24

(4) Section 25

85. Court Fees Act came into force on

(1) March 1,1870

(2) March 11,1870

(3) April 1,1870

(4) April 11,1870

86. In which section of Court Fees Act provision for refund of fees on application for review of judgment is provided?

(1) Section 11

(2) Section 12

(3) Section 13

(4) Section 14

87. Section 19 of Court Fees Act is related with

(1) Documents exempted from court fees

(2) Documentation of court fees in appeals

(3) Documentation of court fees in revision

(4) Documentation of court fees in pauper's suits

88. Chapter V of Court Fees Act is related to

(1) Mode of levying fees

(2) Miscellaneous provisions

(3) Provisions related with probates

(4) Interpretation clause

89. Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act, 2011 came into force on

(1) May 23,2011

(2) June 1,2011

(3) July 1,2012

(4) November 6,2012

90. In Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act 2011, powers of Rent Control Tribunal are provided under

(1) Section 8

(2) Section 7

(3) Section 6

(4) Section 5

91. Schedule 1 of Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act is i elated with

(1) Appointment of Rent Controller

(2) Rights of Tenants

(3) Procedure of determination of rent

(4) Establishment of Tribunal

92. In Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act rights of land lord are provided under ?

(1) Schedule 1

(2) Schedule 2

(3) Schedule 8

(4) Schedule 6

93. Section 257 of Land Revenue Code is related with

(1) Establishment of Gram Sabha

(2) Establishment of Revenue Board

(3) Exclusive jurisdiction of revenue authorities

(4) Power of revision of District Judge

94. In Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code 1959 schedule IV was inserted by

(1) Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code Amendment Act 2011

(2) Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code Amendment Act 2012

(3) Chhattisgarh Amendment Act 2000

(4) Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code Amendment Act 2001

95. Under Chhattisgarh Excise Act power to declare a drink as ‘country liquor’ is vested in

(1) Excise Commissioner

(1) Excise Minister

(3) Governor

(4) State Government

96. Under Chhattisgarh Excise Act power to declare a drink as ‘foreign liquor’ is vested in

(1) Central Government

(2) State Government

(3) Excise Commissioner

(4) President

97. Whose prior permission is essential for granting license to sale liquor in the Cantonment?

(1) President

(2) Central Government

(3) Commanding Officer

(4) Defense Secretary

98. Under Chhattisgarh Excise Act, liquor can not be sold to a person below what year of age?

(1) 18 years

(2) 21 years

(3) 16 years

(4) 15 years

99. Power to issue order for closing liquor shop for preservation of public peace is vested in

(1) Excise Commissioner

(2) Superintendent of Police

(3) Excise Officer

(4) District Magistrate

100. First offence of Bhang cultivation is punishable with

(1) Imprisonment of 6 months to 2 years and fine of Rs. 10000/- to 50000/-

(2) Imprisonment upto 2 years and fine upto Rs. 50000/-

(3) Imprisonment of 6 months or fine of Rs. 2000 or both

(4) Fine up to Rs. One Lakh