Previous Year Question Papers · Bihar (APO) , 2013

Bihar (APO) , 2013

32 min read

1. Under Section 20 of the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, a Hindu is bound during his/her lifetime to maintain

(A) his or her legitimate or illegitimate children

(B) his or her aged or infirm parents

(D) All of the above

2. Remedies under Section 24 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 and Section 125 of the Criminal Procedure Code are

(A) dependent on each other

(B) independent of each other

(D) complementary to each other

3. After the death of the husband, a Muslim wife* can retain possession over her husband’s property until dower is paid. This is her right of

(A) pre-emption

(B) recovery

(D) pledge

4. According to Sunni Law, the chief sources of Muslim Law are:

(A) Quran, Judicial Precedents, Ijma, Qiyas

(B) Quran, Adhis, Ijma, Qiyas

(D) Quran, Equity, Ahdis, Ijma

5. The Muslim Women [Protection of Rights on Divorce] Act was enacted in

(A) 1996

(B) 1946

(D) 1986

6. If a Muslim minor has been contracted in marriage in his minority by a guardian, such a person has a right on attaining majority to repudiate the marriage. This is known in Muslim Law as

(A) Talaq-i-tafweez

(B) Talaq-ul-biddat

(D) Talaq-ul-sunnat

7. A contract of marriage between A and B is made in joke and without any specific intention. Such marriage is valid under

(A) Hanafi Law

(B) Shia Law

(D) Hanbali Law

8. If A makes a Hiba of certain property to B with a condition that B shall not transfer the property, then

(A) Hiba is void and condition is valid

(B) condition is void and Hiba is valid

(D) None of the above

9. After declaration of Wakf, the property becomes vested in

(A) God

(B) Wakif

(D) Jointly on all of the above

10. ‘A Muslim woman deserted by her husband without divorce is entitled to maintenance under Section 125 of the Criminal Procedure Code’ has been declared by the Supreme Court in the case of

(A) Chand Patel v. Bismillah Begum (2008)

(B) Mohd. Ahmad Khan v. Shah Bano (1985)

(D) Shamim Ara v. State of U.P. (2002)

11. ‘Ijma’ as a source of Muslim Law means

(A) unanimous opinion of the Muslim jurists

(B) tradition of prophet

(D) None of the above

12. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court has held that marriages of all persons .who are citizen of India belonging to various religions should pe made compulsorily registrable in their Respective States?

(A) M. Jaimoon v. M. Amman Ullah Khan and Others

(B) Khursid Bibi v. Mohd. Amin

(D) Shahnaj Bano v. Parvej Ahmad Khan

13. Which one of the following is primary source of equity?

(A) Custom

(B) Written law

(D) Conscience

14. In the conflict between equity on one hand and the text of law on the other, the court shall

(A) choose equity

(B) choose law

(D) be bound by precedents

15. Equality means

(A) literal equality

(B) proportional equality

(D) Neither (A) nor (B)

16. Statutory recognition of the principles of equity Is not found in the

(A) Specific Relief Act, 1877

(B) Indian Contract Act, 1872

(D) Indian Succession Act, 1925

17. The concept of trust originated in

(A) France

(B) England

(D) Rome

18. Who among the following cannot become beneficiary?

(A) The Government

(B) Unborn child

(D) Alien

19. Which one of the following can create trust?

(A) Convict

(B) Lunatic

(D) Infant

20. Rights of beneficiaries are provided under

(A) Sections 51 to 65 of the Indian Trust Act

(B) Sections 53 to 67 of the Indian Trust Act

(D) Sections 57 to 71 of the Indian Trust Act

21. Which one of the following is not necessary for the creation of trust?

(A) The author of trust

(B) Trustee

(D) Beneficiary

22. An injunction granted during the pendency of a suit under Section 37 of the Specific Relief Act is known as

(A) perpetual injunction

(B) mandatory injunction

(D) None of the above

23. Which of the following is true of temporary injunction?

(A) It continues until a certain specific time

(B) It is permanent between the parties

(D) It cannot be granted ex parte

24. Jurisdiction of the court to enforce specific performance of a contract is

(A) absolute

(B) discretionary

(D) extensive

25. Which one of the following Is not an immovable property?

(A) Right to ferry

(B) A decree which gives right to sale the immovable property of husband

(D) Right to receive annual payment from any village

26. Before the commencement of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, the transfer of immovable propert/in India was governed by the

(A) principles of English Law and Equity

(B) Indian Registration Act, 1908

(D) Indian Contract Act, 1872

27. Under the provisions of the Transfer of Property Act, the unborn child acquires vested interest

(A) upon his birth

(B) 7 days after his birth

(D) No such provision is made in the Act

28. The foundation of doctrine of election under the Transfer of Property Act is that a person taking the benefit of any instrument

(A) must bear the burden

(B) must not bear the burden

(D) None of the above

29. Within the meaning of Section 54 of the Transfer of Property Act, the ‘sale’ does not include

(A) hire purchase transaction

(B) auction sale

(D) None of the above

30. In case of gift if the donee dies before the acceptance, then the

(A) gift is valid

(B) gift is void

(D) court has to decide

31. Where a gift is made of a property, which is not in existence, which is the following Sections of the Transfer of Property Act declares it void?

(A) Section 122

(B) Section 123

(D) Section 125

32. Consider the following statements regarding the distinction between lease and licence:

(1) A lease is a transfer of an interest in land, whereas the licence does not create any interest in land

(2) Both lessee and licence-holders can sue a trespasser in his own name

(3) A lease can be assigned but a licence cannot be assigned

(4) A lease cannot be revoked until the end of the term, but a licence, subejct to certain exceptions, can be revoked

Which one of the above statements is/are correct?

(A) Only 2

(B) 1,3, and 4

(D) 2, 3, and 4

33. In India, the law of tort is

(A) codified

(B) in the process of codification

(D) not applied now

34. In which of the following situations slander is actionable per sei

(A) An imputation that certain person is habitual gambler

(B) An imputation that a certain person is a liar

(D) An imputation that a certain woman player is of unchaste character

35. Which of the following is a ground for rejection of a defence of fair comment in a tort of defamation?

(A) The comment is with respect to a matter of public interest

(B) The comment is an expression of fact

(D) The circumstances show that the expression by the defendant is not fair

36. Which of the following is a correct definition of trespass to land?

(A) Interference with the ownership of land without lawful justification

(B) Interference with the possession of land without lawful justification

(D) None of the above

37. An action in tort would not lie unless there is violation of rights of somebody even if damages have been caused. This is expressed by

(A) damnum sine injuria

(B) injuria nullus persona

(D) injuria domnum nullus

38. ‘Reasonable for sight as test to determine remoteness of damage was laid down in

(A) Re Polemis and Furness Withy and Co. (1921)

(B) Overseas Tankship (UK) Ltd. v. Morts Dock Engg. Co. Ltd. (1961)

(D) Huges v. Lord Advocate (1963)

39. For a person to succeed in a suit for malicious prosecution, which of the following factors must be proved?

(1) Prosecution was instituted without any reasonable and probable cause

(2) Presence of malice

(3) Absence of malice

(4) Prosecution terminated in favour of defendent

(5) Prosecution terminated-in-favour of plaintiff

Select the correct answer by using the codes' given below:

(A) 1,2 and 5

(B) 1,3 and 4

(D) 1,3 and 5

40. The plaintiff, a lady, visits to a restaurant, was injure by the ceiling fan which fell on her. The reason for the falling of the fan was latent defect in the metal of the rod of the fan. In an action against the defendant, he is

(A) liable because .of 'last opportunity rule'

(B) not liable because the injury was not foreseeable

(D) liable because of doctrine of res ipsa loquitur

41. Match List-1 and List-Il and select the correct answer by using the codes below the Lists:

List-I

(a) Consent

(b) Inevitable Accident

(d) Statutory Authority

List-II

(1) Nichols v. Marsland

(2) Vaughan v. Taff Valde Rail Co.

(3) Holmes v. Mather

(4) Hall v. Brookland Auto Racing Club A B C D

(A) 4 1 2 3

(B) 4 3 1 2

(D) 2 3 4 1

42. Tort of conspiracy occurs where

(A) two or more persons combine to help a third party

(B) two or more persons combine to injure a third party by lawful means

(D) two or more persons combine not to injure a third party by unlawful means

43. The main supporter of the theory, that it is ‘Law of Tort’ and not ‘Law of Torts’ is

(A) Flemming

(B) Dr. William

(D) Winfield

44. Assertion (A): X, a journalist, writes an article containing defamatory matter about the public life of a doctor. X when sued, will not be liable. Reasons (R): A journalist is privileged in writing on matters of public interest.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

45. The management of a school has given instruction of the driver of its vehicle not to allow any unauthorized persojfto board the vehicle. A similar information was pasted on the vehicle itself stated that no unauthorized person was permitted to travel in the vehicle. The driver allowed an unauthorized passenger to board and drove negligently causing an accident in which the unauthorized passenger was killed. The school management is

(A) liable because the driver was negligent in permitting the deceased to travel for which the school management was vicariously liable

(B) not liable because by violating the instruction of the company, the driver was acting outside his course of employment

(C) liable because mere pasting of information 'the unauthorized travel was not permitted' does not negate liability of the school management

(D) not liable because the passenger himself had voluntarily chosen to travel in the vehicle unauthorizedly

46. Which of the following sets of defences available in an action for defamation?

(A) Truth, privilege, mistake

(B) Privilege, mistake, fair comment

(D) Truth, mistake, fair comment

47. Consider the following statements:

(1) Tortious liability arises from breach of duty primarily fixed by law

(2) The duty is towards persons generally

(3) Breach of duty is redressible by an action for unliquidated damages

(4) The quantum of damages is determined by parties themselves

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) 1,2 and 4

(B) 1, 2 and 3

(D) 1,3 and 4

48. An agreement without consideration is

(A) void ab initio

(B) voidable contract at the option of the promisor

(D) illegal

49. Which of the following cases is related to ‘doctrine of frustration’?

(A) Felt House v. Bindly

(B) Hardley v. Baxandale

(D) Mohri Bibi v. Dharmadas Chose

50. A sells by auction to B a horse which A knows to be unsound. A says nothing to B about the horse’s unsoundness. This is

(A) misrepresentation by A

(B) fraud by A

(D) None of the above

51. Section 70 of the Indian Contract Act does not apply in case of

(A) government

(B) minor

(D) public corporation

52. “No one is allowed to enrich himself at the expense of another.” This principle is known as

(A) quantum meruit

(B) quasi-contiact

(D) nudum pactum

53. A threat to commit suicide in performance of the contract amounts to

(A) undue influence

(B) fraud

(D) coercion

54. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(A) Acceptance must be in writing

(B) Acceptance must be comunicated

(D) Oral acceptance is a valid acceptance

55. A sees that the child of B is drowning in the water. A saves the child from drowning in the water. B promises to give him Rs. 25,000. In this context, which one of the following propositions is correct?

(A) B is liable because the agreement is not nudum pactum

(B) B is liability arises in quasi-contract

(D) B's liability is statutory

56. The correct sequence in formation of contract is

(A) offer, consideration, acceptance, agreement

(B) agreement, consideration, offer, acceptance

(D) offer, acceptance, consideration, agreement

57. Acceptance sent through post

(A) cannot be revoked at all

(B) can be revoked at any time

(D) can be revoked before it comes to the knowledge of the offerer

58. Illegality renders a contract

(A) void

(B) voidable

(D) punishable

59. A agrees to pay B, a teacher, Rs. 15,000 if B passed his son in the examination. B does so but A refuses to pay the money. In this case, which one of the following gives the correct legal position of the agreement?,

(A) The agreement is valid and enforceable

(B) The agreement is void being opposed to public policy

(D) The agreement is voidable at the option ofB

60. The display of articles in a showroom indicating their prices amounts to

(A) offer

(B) cotmteroffer

(D) invitation to offer

61. A, a jewellery wholesaler, leaves some jewellery at B’s jewellery shop by mistake. B treats the jewellery as his own. Which one of the following remedies is available to A?

(A) A is entitled to the same jewellery from B

(B) B is entitled to hire charges

(D) A is to forgo his claim over jewellery

62. When the damages cannot be assessed, the party may be awarded by the court

(A) exemplar damages

(B) actual damages

(D) nominal damages

63. Which of the following Is true about an incorporated company?

(A) Its life depends on the life of its members

(B) Its nationality depends on the nationality of its shareholders

(D) As such it never dies

64. Articles of Association are not to be registered in case of

(A) a public company limited by share

(B) a company limited by guarantees

(D) a private company limited by share

65. The proper authority for convening a General Meeting of a company is the

(A) Chairman of the Board of Directors

(B) Managing Director

(D) Shareholders

66. An Act is said to be ultra vires of a company when it is beyond the powers

(A) of the directors but not the company

(B) of the directors

(D) confessed on the company by the Articles

67. The minimum number of the members for a private company and for a public company are respectively

(A) 10 and 50

(B) 10 and 100

(D) 2 and 7

68. Under Section 2(b) of the Indian Partnership Act, ‘business’ includes

(A) every trade and occupation

(B) every occupation and profession

(D) every trade and profession

69. The historic case laying down the test for determining the existence of partnership is

(A) Grave v. Smith

(B) Waugh v. Carver

(D) Cox v. Hickman

70. Where a partnership firm is constituted for a fixed period and after the expiration of that term the firm continues to carry on business without any agreement

(A) the partnership stands extended till the new agreement is made

(B) the partnership becomes the partnership at will

(D) the partnership stands dissolved on the date of the expiry of the term and no partnership can be said to be in existence

71. General duties of partners have been laid downin

(A) Section 9 of the Act

(B) Section 10 of the Act

(D) Section 13 of the Act

72. ‘Goodwill’ of the partnership business is the property of partnership under

(A) Section 14

(B) Section 15

(D) Section 17(b)

73. The Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 came into force on

(A) 9th December, 1881

(B) 9th December, 1882

(D) 1st March, 1882

74. If a minor draws, indorses, delivers or negotiates an instrument, such instrument binds

(A) all parties to the instrument including the minor

(B) only the minor and not other parties to the instrument

(D) None of the above

75. Crossing of cheque affects the

(A) negotiability of the cheque

(B) mode of payment on the cheque

(D) None of the above

76. For the purpose of attracting the provisions of Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, a cheque has to be presented to the bank within a period of

(A) six months

(B) 15 days from the date on v’hich it is drawn

(D) None of the above

77. The term ‘cheque’ in the electronic form is defined in the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 under

(A) Section 6(a)

(B) Section 6(1)(a)

(D) Section 6A

78. The Sale of Goods Act, 1930 came into force on

(A) 1st April, 1930

(B) 1st July, 1930

(D) 31st January, 1931

79. Section 9 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 provides for

(A) agreement to sell at valuation

(B) ascertainment of price

(D) Both (A) and (B)

80. The rule in the Latin maxirn nemo det qubd' non habet under the Sale of Goods Act Is contained in

(A) Section 27

(B) Section 29

(D) Section 28

81. How many Sections and Chapters are there in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?

(A) 167 Sections and 11 Chapters

(B) 172 Sections and 16 Chapters

(D) 180 Sections and 15 Chapters

82. Facts alleged by one party and denied by thdother in a case are termed as

(A) positive facts

(B) negative facts

(D) facts in issue

83. The facts which form part of same transaction are relevant under

(A) Section 5 of the Indian Evidence Act

(B) Section 6 of the Indian Evidence Act

(D) Section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act

84. A, who is unable to speak by birth, gives his testimony by writing in open Court. Evidence so given Is treated under the Indian Evidence Act as

(A) documentary evidence

(B) oral evidence

(D) All of the above

85. An expert is competent to testify on which of the following?

(A) Matters of Science

(B) Questions of Art

(D) All of the above

86. A woman is raped and makes statement that A raped her. Two days later she commits suicide. Her statement regarding rape is

(A) admissible as dying declaration

(B) not admissible as dying declaration

(C) admissible as dying declaration only if there is some evidence directly connecting her death with the incident of rape

(D) None of the above

87. What is the meaning of ‘tribal areas’ for the purpose of Section 1 of the Criminal Procedure Code?

(A) Municipal area of Shillong

(B) Municipal area of Mizoram

(D) Arunachal Pradesh as prescribed by the Constitution

88. The police officer shall bring an arrested person before the court without any delay. This is the mandate of

(A) Section 76

(B) Section 77

(D) Section 79

89. Who among the following can tender pardon to accomplice under Section 306 of the Criminal Procedure Code?

(A) Chief Judicial Magistrate

(B) Metropolitan Magistrate

(D) All of the above

90. In which of the following circumstances Magistrate has power to convert summon cases into warrant cases?

(A) Without any ground

(B) In the interest of justice

(D) None of the above

91. Examination of person accused of rape by medical practitioner is inserted in the Criminal Procedure Code by the amendment of

(A) 2008

(B) 2005

(D) 1955

92. Doctrine of res judicata as contained in Section 11 of the Civil Procedure Code is based on the maxim

(A) interest reipublicae ut sitfinis-litium

(B) quifacit per aliumfacit per se

(D) ubi jus ibi remedium

93. ‘Interpleader suit’ has been defined under which of the following Sections of the Civil Procedure Code?

(A) Section 88

(B) Section 89

(D) Section 91

94. Which of the following Sections of the Civil Procedure Code prohibits arrest or detention of women in the execution of a decree for money?

(A) Section 56

(B) Section 55

(D) Section 60

95. In which of the following cases, it was held that ‘inherent power has not been conferred on a court, it is a power inherent in a court’?

(A) Rajani Bai v. Kamla Devi

(B) Manohar Lal v. Seth Hiralal

(D) Stayabrata Biswas v. Kalyan Kumar Kisku

96. A decree becomes final, when

(A) it conclusively determines the rights of the parties

(B) no appeal has been preferred against the decree

(D) None of the above

97. The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 has replaced the

(A) Arbitration Act, 1940

(B) Arbitration (Protocol and Convention) Act, 1937

(D) All of the above .

98. Which of the following disputes can be adjudicated upon through arbitration?

(A) Arising out of legal relations

(B) Arising out of contractual relations

(D) All of the above

99. An arbitrator is not bound to follow which of the following enactments?

(A) Civil Procedure Code and Criminal Procedure Code

(B) Civil Procedure Code and the Indian Evidence Act

(D) None of the above

100. If there is no agreement between the parties to an arbitration proceeding in respect of number of arbitrators, there shall be

(A) one arbitrator

(B) two arbitrators

(D) five arbitrators

101. The number of Fundamental Duties under the Indian Constitution Is

(A) 12

(B) 11

(D) 13

102. The President of India is elected by

(A) the Members of the State Legislature and both the Houses of the Parliament

(B) the Members of the Lok Sabha and the State Vidhan Sabha

(D) the elected Members of the State Vidhan Sabha arid Members of both the Houses of the Parliament

103. How many members of the Anglo-Indian community can be nominated by the President in the Lok Sabha?

(A) 12

(B) 2

(D) 10

104. Match List-I with List-Il and select the correct answer from the codes given below the Lists:

List-I (Article No.)

A 50

B 43

C 44

D 39A

List-II (Matter Dealt)

(1) Free Legal Aid

(2) Separation of Judiciary

(3) Living Wages for Workers

(4) Uniform Civil Code

A B C D

(A) 4 3 2 1

(B) 1 3 2 4

(D) 3 2 4 1

105. Assertion (A): The Constitution vests the executive powers of the Union in the President of India.

Reason (R): The President of India is the constitutional head of the State.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(D) . (A) is false but (R) is true

106. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

(A) Writ of available against prohibition: public servant only

(B) Writ of quo available against warranto: subordinate courts only

(D) Writ of available against certiorari: autonomous body only

107. The Parliament has power to legislate with respect to a matter in the State List provided it is in the

(A) national interest

(B) interest of the State concerned

(D) interest of minority

108. The Constitution of India, as framed by the Constituent Assembly, was finally adopted and enacted on

(A) 15th August, 1947

(B) 26th November, 1949

(Q 30th January, 1949

(D) 26th January, 1950

109. Match List-I with List-Il and select the correct answer from the codes given below the Lists:

List-I

A Advisory opinion of the Supreme Court is also binding on all courts

B Basic structure of the Constitution cannot be amended

C Presidential satisfaction under Article 356 is judicially reviewable to a limited extent

D A law made by legislature to deprive a person of his personal liberty must be just, fair and reasonable

List-II

(1) Keshwanand Bharti v. State of Kerala

(2) S.R. Bommai v. Union of India

(3) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India

(4) In reference to the Special Courts Bill, 1978

A B C D

(A) 2 1 3 4

(B) 1 2 3 4

(D) 4 3 2 1

110. ‘Right to Privacy’ as a Fundamental Right Is implicit in

(A) Right to Freedom

(B) Right to Personal Liberty

(D) Right against Exploitation

111. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court held that ‘strike by lawyers is illegal and unethical, and it infringes Fundamental Rights of litigants for speedy trial?

(A) Dr. B.L. Wadhera v. NCT of Delhi

(B) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India

(D) Indra Sawhney v. Union of India

112. Which one of the following is not a Fundamental Duty under Article 51A of the Constitution of India?

(A) To render national service when called upon to do so

(B) To cast vote in election

(D) To develop scientific temper

113. The term ‘Economic Justice’ in the Preamble to the Constitution of India is a resolution for

(A) equal distribution of wealth

(B) economy in the administration of justice

(D) cheap justice of the poorer

114. When the Chief Justice of India is appointed by the President, he is required to consult with

(A) the Council of Ministers and all the Judges of the Supreme Court

(B) the Prime Minister, the Law Minister and the Attorney General of India

(D) such of the Judges of the Supreme Court and the High Court, as he deems necessary

115. Though the Directive Principles of State Policy contained in the Constitution are not enforceable by any court, yet they are

(A) fundamental in governance of the country

(B) binding on the State

(D) superior to Fundamental Rights

116. Power of the President to promulgate ordinances during the recess of the Parliament is discussed in the Constitution vide

(A) Article 213

(B) Article 123

(D) None of the above

117. Article 39A of the Indian Constitution relates to

(A) right to work

(B) right to strike

(D) participation of workers in the management of industries

118. Consider the following statements:

The Fundamental Duties provided in the Constitution are:

1 to cherish and follow the noble ideas

2 to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women

3 to safeguard private property

4 to protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(A) Only 3

(B) 1 and 3

(D) 1,2 and 4

119. Assertion (A): The Supreme Court is a court of record.

Reason (R): It delivers judgement in open court.

(A) Both (A)sand (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

120. Right to Freedom of Religion cannot be restricted on the ground of

(A) morality

(B) public order

(D) security of State

121. A corporation is ‘State’ for the purposes of enforcement of Fundamental Rights, if

(A) it is a lawfully registered body

(B) it is the agency or instrumentality of the government

(D) its employees are governed by the government rules

122. Which of the following writs may be issued in case a public servant ultra vires the authority?

(A) Habeas corpus

(B) Mandamus

(D) Quo warranto

123. Match List-I with List-Il and select the correct answer from the codes given below the Lists:

List-I

A Original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court

B Appeal in criminal cases to the Supreme Court

C Appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court for appeals from the High Courts in regard to Civil Cases

D Advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court

List-II

1 Article 134

2 Article 131

3 Article 143

4 Article 133

A B C D

(A) 2 1 4 3

(B) 3 2 4 1

(D) 1 3 4 2

124. Which of the following cases is in connection with parliamentary privileges?

(A) A.K. Gopalan v. Union of India

(B) Minerva Mills v. Union of India

(D) Keshav Singh v. Speaker of the U.P. Assembly

125. A non-legislator can remain a Minister

(A) for 6 months only

(B) for 1 year only

(D) fill the dissolution of the Legislative Assembly

126. Which of the following determines the federal character of the Indian Constitution?

(A) Written Constitution

(B) Independent Judiciary

(D) Judicial Review

127. Public Interest Litigations are entertained by the Supreme Court under

(A) Article 19

(B) Article 36

(D) Article 131

128. Disputes between the States In India come to the Supreme Court under

(A) appellate jurisdiction

(B) advisory jurisdiction

(D) None of the above

129. Under which one of the following Articles of the Constitution an accused person has been guaranteed the right to be informed of the nature and cause of accusation?

(A) Article 22(1)

(B) Article 22(3)

(D) Article 22(4)

130. Which of the following items comes under the Concurrent List?

(A) Inter-State Rivers

(B) Trade Unions

(D) Local Government

131. Article 246 of the Indian Constitution deals with

(A) the Election Commission

(B) the Parliament's exclusive powers to make laws with respect to matters in the Union List

(Q the Finance Commission

(D) administrative relations between the Centre and the State

132. Which of the following In India is empowered to admit into the Union or establish new State?

(A) Rajya Sabha

(B) President

(D) Parliament

133. Assertion (A): Dr. Ambedkar described Article 32 as the very soul of the Constitution.

Reason (R): Article 32 provides effective remedies against violation of Fundamental Rights.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

134. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution provides for the appointment of an 'Acting Chief Justice’ of the Supreme Court?

(A) Article 126

(B) Article 125

(D) Article 130

135. A retired Judge of the High Court cannot

(A) practise in the Supreme Court

(B) practise in any High Court in India

(D) None of the above

136. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution gives the Governor the power to grant pardon In certain cases?

(A) Article 165

(B) Article 161

(D) Article 155

137. The voting age has been reduced from 21 years to 18 years by the Parliament In the year

(A) 1991

(B) 1978

(D) 1989

138. Which of the following Assemblies is presided over by a non-member?

(A) Rajya Sabha

(B) Lok Sabha

(D) All of the above

139. What is the minimum gap permissible between two Sessions of the Parliament?

(A) 6 months 10 days

(B) 6 months

(D) 90 days

140. The Attorney-General of India holds office during the pleasure of the

(A) President

(B) Chief Justice of India

(D) Parliament

41. Which of the following Is not ‘State’ for the purpose of Article 12 of the Constitution?

(A) National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT)

(B) A Nationalized Bank

(D) Griha Kalyan Kendra

142. Consider the following statements:

The salient features of the Indian Constitution provide

1 single citizenship for whole of India

2 strictly federal form of Government

3 unique blend of rigidity and flexibility Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) 1,2 and 3

(B) 1 and2

(D) 1 and 3

143. Which one of the following marriages Is valid under Hindu Law?

(A) A man marrying his deceased wife's sister

(B) A man marrying his divorced wife's sister

(D) All of the above

144. One person Is said to be an agnate of another, If

(A) two are related by blood or adoption but who only through males

(B) two are related by blood or adoption but not only through males

(D) two are related by blood or adoption but not who only through females.

145. Under Section 13 of the Hindu Marriage Act, the number of grounds for divorce, which are common to husband or wife,' is

(A) 7

(B) 9

(D) 15

146. A Hindu wife may claim maintenance from her husband on which of the following grounds?

(A) While marriage is subsisting

(B) While divorce petition is pending

(D) All of the above

147. During the pendency, of appeal against the decree of divorce

(A) the parties are competent to contract another marriage

(B) the parties are not Competent to contract another marriage and their incapacity to do so is absolute'.

(D) None of the above

148. Which one of the following was the first case, where in the Supreme Court made recommendation to make Irretrievable breakdown of marriage as a ground for divorce?

(A) Jorden Diengdeh v. S.S. Chopra (1985)

(B) Kailas Das (Ghosh) v. Ashish Kumar Das (2004)

(D) Navin Kohli case (2006)

149. A groom of 22 years of age marries a bride of 15 years of age. The marriage under Hindu Law is

(A) valid but punishable

(B) void

(D) illegal

150. Premarital relation of spouse is a statutory ground for

(A) divorce

(B) judicial separation

(D) None of the above