1. The Constitution of India came into force on:

a. 15 August 1947

b. 26 November 1949

c. 26 January 1950

d. 26 January 1951

2. The Preamble declares India to be:

a. Sovereign, Democratic Republic

b. Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic

c. Socialist, Secular Republic

d. Sovereign, Federal Republic

3. Which Article guarantees Equality before Law?

a. Article 12

b. Article 14

c. Article 19

d. Article 21

4. Untouchability is abolished under:

a. Article 15

b. Article 16

c. Article 17

d. Article 18

5. Which Article guarantees protection of life and personal liberty?

a. Article 19

b. Article 20

c. Article 21

d. Article 22

6. The Right to Constitutional Remedies is provided under:

a. Article 30

b. Article 31

c. Article 32

d. Article 35

7. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar called which Article the “Heart and Soul” of the Constitution?

a. Article 14

b. Article 19

c. Article 21

d. Article 32

8. The Directive Principles of State Policy are contained in:

a. Part III

b. Part IV

c. Part IVA

d. Part V

9. Fundamental Duties were added by:

a. 24th Amendment

b. 42nd Amendment

c. 44th Amendment

d. 52nd Amendment

10. The Fundamental Duties are mentioned in:

a. Article 50A

b. Article 51

c. Article 51A

d. Article 52

11. The President of India is elected by:

a. Parliament only

b. Lok Sabha only

c. Electoral College

d. State Legislatures only

12. The minimum age for becoming President of India is:

a. 30 years

b. 35 years

c. 40 years

d. 45 years

13. The Vice-President is elected by:

a. Lok Sabha only

b. Rajya Sabha only

c. Both Houses of Parliament

d. State Legislatures

14. The Vice-President is the ex-officio Chairman of:

a. Lok Sabha

b. Rajya Sabha

c. NITI Aayog

d. Inter-State Council

15. Article 74 deals with:

a. Parliament

b. Council of Ministers

c. Supreme Court

d. Election Commission

16. The Prime Minister is appointed by:

a. Chief Justice of India

b. President

c. Lok Sabha

d. Rajya Sabha

17. Collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers is towards:

a. President

b. Rajya Sabha

c. Lok Sabha

d. Parliament

18. The maximum strength of Lok Sabha is:

a. 545

b. 550

c. 552

d. 560

19. Rajya Sabha is a:

a. Temporary House

b. Dissolvable House

c. Permanent House

d. Judicial House

20. One-third members of Rajya Sabha retire after every:

a. One Year

b. Two Years

c. Three Years

d. Six Years

21. Money Bill can be introduced only in:

a. Rajya Sabha

b. Either House

c. Lok Sabha

d. Joint Sitting

22. The Speaker of Lok Sabha decides whether a bill is:

a. Constitutional Bill

b. Finance Bill

c. Money Bill

d. Ordinary Bill

23. Joint sitting of Parliament is provided under:

a. Article 107

b. Article 108

c. Article 109

d. Article 110

24. The Supreme Court was established on:

a. 26 January 1950

b. 28 January 1950

c. 26 November 1949

d. 15 August 1947

25. Article 124 deals with:

a. High Courts

b. Supreme Court

c. Parliament

d. Election Commission

26. The retirement age of a Supreme Court Judge is:

a. 60 Years

b. 62 Years

c. 65 Years

d. 68 Years

27. The retirement age of a High Court Judge is:

a. 60 Years

b. 62 Years

c. 65 Years

d. 70 Years

28. Judicial Review in India is derived from:

a. UK Constitution

b. USA Constitution

c. Canada Constitution

d. Australia Constitution

29. The Election Commission is mentioned under:

a. Article 324

b. Article 325

c. Article 326

d. Article 327

30. Universal Adult Suffrage is provided under:

a. Article 324

b. Article 325

c. Article 326

d. Article 327

31. Which Article of the Constitution defines the term "State" for Fundamental Rights?

a. Article 10

b. Article 11

c. Article 12

d. Article 13

32. Laws inconsistent with Fundamental Rights are declared void under:

a. Article 12

b. Article 13

c. Article 14

d. Article 15

33. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth is provided under:

a. Article 14

b. Article 15

c. Article 16

d. Article 17

34. Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment is guaranteed by:

a. Article 14

b. Article 15

c. Article 16

d. Article 18

35. Abolition of titles is provided under:

a. Article 16

b. Article 17

c. Article 18

d. Article 19

36. The six freedoms are guaranteed under:

a. Article 18

b. Article 19

c. Article 20

d. Article 21

37. Protection against ex-post facto laws is provided under:

a. Article 19

b. Article 20

c. Article 21

d. Article 22

38. The Right to Education is guaranteed under:

a. Article 21

b. Article 21A

c. Article 22

d. Article 23

39. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour is provided under:

a. Article 22

b. Article 23

c. Article 24

d. Article 25

40. Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion is guaranteed by:

a. Article 24

b. Article 25

c. Article 26

d. Article 27

41. Cultural and Educational Rights are contained in:

a. Articles 25–28

b. Articles 29–30

c. Articles 32–35

d. Articles 36–51

42. The writ of Habeas Corpus literally means:

a. To Command

b. To Inquire

c. You may have the body

d. By what authority

43. Which writ is issued to prevent an inferior court from exceeding its jurisdiction?

a. Habeas Corpus

b. Mandamus

c. Prohibition

d. Quo Warranto

44. Which writ means "by what authority"?

a. Certiorari

b. Quo Warranto

c. Mandamus

d. Prohibition

45. The Directive Principles are borrowed from the Constitution of:

a. USA

b. Canada

c. Ireland

d. Australia

46. Article 40 deals with:

a. Uniform Civil Code

b. Village Panchayats

c. Free Legal Aid

d. Environment Protection

47. Uniform Civil Code is mentioned in:

a. Article 43

b. Article 44

c. Article 45

d. Article 46

48. Free and compulsory education for children was originally provided under:

a. Article 44

b. Article 45

c. Article 46

d. Article 47

49. Separation of Judiciary from Executive is contained in:

a. Article 48

b. Article 49

c. Article 50

d. Article 51

50. Fundamental Duties were inspired by the Constitution of:

a. USSR

b. USA

c. France

d. Canada

51. Citizenship provisions are contained in:

a. Part I

b. Part II

c. Part III

d. Part IV

52. The Attorney General of India is appointed by:

a. Prime Minister

b. Chief Justice of India

c. President

d. Parliament

53. The Attorney General holds office during the pleasure of:

a. Parliament

b. President

c. Prime Minister

d. Supreme Court

54. Which Schedule deals with allocation of seats in Rajya Sabha?

a. Third Schedule

b. Fourth Schedule

c. Fifth Schedule

d. Sixth Schedule

55. Oath of office for Union Ministers is contained in:

a. First Schedule

b. Second Schedule

c. Third Schedule

d. Fourth Schedule

56. The Council of States is another name for:

a. Lok Sabha

b. Rajya Sabha

c. Parliament

d. Legislative Council

57. The quorum to constitute a meeting of either House of Parliament is:

a. One-Tenth of total membership

b. One-Fifth of total membership

c. One-Sixth of total membership

d. Fifty Members

58. The Chairman of Rajya Sabha may be removed by:

a. President

b. Lok Sabha alone

c. Resolution of Rajya Sabha passed by majority and agreed by Lok Sabha

d. Supreme Court

59. Which Article provides for the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?

a. Article 148

b. Article 149

c. Article 150

d. Article 151

60. The CAG of India is appointed by:

a. Prime Minister

b. Parliament

c. President

d. Finance Commission

61. Which Article provides for the Finance Commission of India?

a. Article 275

b. Article 280

c. Article 281

d. Article 282

62. The Finance Commission is constituted every:

a. 3 Years

b. 4 Years

c. 5 Years

d. 6 Years

63. The Chairman and members of the Union Public Service Commission are appointed by:

a. Prime Minister

b. President

c. Parliament

d. Chief Justice of India

64. Which Article provides for the UPSC?

a. Article 315

b. Article 320

c. Article 324

d. Article 326

65. The Chief Election Commissioner is appointed by:

a. Parliament

b. Prime Minister

c. President

d. Chief Justice of India

66. Which Constitutional Amendment reduced the voting age from 21 years to 18 years?

a. 42nd Amendment

b. 44th Amendment

c. 52nd Amendment

d. 61st Amendment

67. The anti-defection law was inserted by:

a. 42nd Amendment

b. 44th Amendment

c. 52nd Amendment

d. 61st Amendment

68. The Tenth Schedule deals with:

a. Panchayats

b. Municipalities

c. Anti-Defection

d. Languages

69. Which Schedule contains the recognized languages of India?

a. Sixth Schedule

b. Seventh Schedule

c. Eighth Schedule

d. Ninth Schedule

70. At present, the Eighth Schedule contains:

a. 18 Languages

b. 20 Languages

c. 22 Languages

d. 24 Languages

71. The distribution of legislative powers between Union and States is contained in:

a. Sixth Schedule

b. Seventh Schedule

c. Eighth Schedule

d. Ninth Schedule

72. The Union List originally contained:

a. 97 Subjects

b. 66 Subjects

c. 47 Subjects

d. 100 Subjects

73. Residuary powers in India belong to:

a. States

b. Concurrent List

c. Parliament

d. President

74. Which Article deals with President's Rule in States?

a. Article 352

b. Article 356

c. Article 360

d. Article 365

75. National Emergency is proclaimed under:

a. Article 352

b. Article 356

c. Article 360

d. Article 368

76. Financial Emergency is provided under:

a. Article 352

b. Article 356

c. Article 360

d. Article 365

77. Which emergency has never been imposed in India so far?

a. National Emergency

b. President's Rule

c. Financial Emergency

d. Internal Emergency

78. Constitutional Amendment procedure is provided under:

a. Article 356

b. Article 360

c. Article 365

d. Article 368

79. The Constitution is described as "a living document" because:

a. It is unwritten

b. It can be amended

c. It is judicially enforced

d. It is federal

80. The Panchayati Raj system was constitutionalized by:

a. 71st Amendment

b. 72nd Amendment

c. 73rd Amendment

d. 74th Amendment

81. Municipalities were constitutionalized by:

a. 72nd Amendment

b. 73rd Amendment

c. 74th Amendment

d. 75th Amendment

82. The Eleventh Schedule relates to:

a. Municipalities

b. Panchayats

c. Languages

d. Tribunals

83. The Twelfth Schedule relates to:

a. Panchayats

b. Municipalities

c. Languages

d. Cooperative Societies

84. Which Article provides for Gram Sabha?

a. Article 243A

b. Article 243B

c. Article 243C

d. Article 243D

85. Reservation for SCs and STs in Panchayats is provided under:

a. Article 243C

b. Article 243D

c. Article 243E

d. Article 243F

86. The Governor of a State is appointed by:

a. State Legislature

b. Chief Minister

c. President

d. High Court

87. The minimum age to become a Governor is:

a. 30 Years

b. 35 Years

c. 40 Years

d. 45 Years

88. The Advocate General of a State is appointed by:

a. Governor

b. Chief Minister

c. High Court Chief Justice

d. President

89. The Legislative Council is a:

a. Temporary House

b. Permanent House

c. Dissolvable House

d. Judicial Body

90. The maximum strength of a Legislative Council cannot exceed:

a. One-half of Legislative Assembly

b. One-third of Legislative Assembly

c. One-fourth of Legislative Assembly

d. Equal to Legislative Assembly

91. The doctrine of Basic Structure was evolved in:

a. Golaknath Case

b. Kesavananda Bharati Case

c. Minerva Mills Case

d. Berubari Case

92. The Kesavananda Bharati judgment was delivered in:

a. 1967

b. 1971

c. 1973

d. 1975

93. The Supreme Court held that Parliament cannot amend Fundamental Rights in:

a. Shankari Prasad Case

b. Sajjan Singh Case

c. Golaknath Case

d. Kesavananda Bharati Case

94. The concept of Judicial Review in India is mainly derived from:

a. United Kingdom

b. Canada

c. United States of America

d. Australia

95. Which Constitutional Amendment inserted the words “Socialist” and “Secular” in the Preamble?

a. 24th Amendment

b. 42nd Amendment

c. 44th Amendment

d. 52nd Amendment

96. The Right to Property is now a:

a. Fundamental Right

b. Constitutional Right

c. Natural Right

d. Legal Right only

97. Right to Property is protected under:

a. Article 31

b. Article 300A

c. Article 32

d. Article 226

98. Which Article empowers High Courts to issue writs?

a. Article 32

b. Article 136

c. Article 226

d. Article 227

99. The writ of Mandamus is issued:

a. To release a detained person

b. To command a public authority to perform a duty

c. To transfer a case

d. To quash a law

100. The writ of Certiorari is issued to:

a. Appoint a public officer

b. Transfer legislative power

c. Quash the order of a subordinate court/tribunal

d. Detain a person

101. Which Article deals with the Supreme Court's advisory jurisdiction?

a. Article 131

b. Article 136

c. Article 143

d. Article 145

102. The President seeks the opinion of the Supreme Court under:

a. Original Jurisdiction

b. Appellate Jurisdiction

c. Advisory Jurisdiction

d. Review Jurisdiction

103. The Supreme Court is a Court of Record under:

a. Article 127

b. Article 129

c. Article 131

d. Article 136

104. High Courts are Courts of Record under:

a. Article 214

b. Article 215

c. Article 216

d. Article 217

105. Which Article provides for Special Leave Petition (SLP)?

a. Article 131

b. Article 136

c. Article 141

d. Article 142

106. Law declared by the Supreme Court is binding on all courts under:

a. Article 136

b. Article 141

c. Article 142

d. Article 143

107. Complete justice jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is under:

a. Article 139

b. Article 141

c. Article 142

d. Article 144

108. The Election Commission is a:

a. Constitutional Body

b. Statutory Body

c. Executive Body

d. Judicial Body

109. The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) is removed in the same manner as:

a. Governor

b. Prime Minister

c. Supreme Court Judge

d. Attorney General

110. The Chief Information Commissioner is appointed under:

a. Constitution

b. Right to Information Act, 2005

c. Lokpal Act

d. Human Rights Act

111. The National Human Rights Commission was established under:

a. Human Rights Act, 1993

b. Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993

c. Civil Rights Act, 1955

d. Lokpal Act, 2013

112. The Chairman of NHRC must be:

a. Former President

b. Former Chief Justice of India

c. Former Governor

d. Former Attorney General

113. Which Constitutional Amendment added Part IX to the Constitution?

a. 42nd Amendment

b. 44th Amendment

c. 73rd Amendment

d. 74th Amendment

114. Which Constitutional Amendment added Part IX-A?

a. 52nd Amendment

b. 61st Amendment

c. 73rd Amendment

d. 74th Amendment

115. The concept of Public Interest Litigation (PIL) was pioneered in India by:

a. Justice M. Hidayatullah

b. Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer and Justice P.N. Bhagwati

c. Justice S.R. Das

d. Justice K. Subba Rao

116. In which case was the "Basic Structure Doctrine" first applied to strike down a constitutional amendment?

a. Golaknath Case

b. Minerva Mills Case

c. A.K. Gopalan Case

d. Berubari Case

117. Which case established that Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles are complementary?

a. Champakam Dorairajan

b. Minerva Mills

c. Golaknath

d. Shankari Prasad

118. The Constitution of India is described as:

a. Completely Federal

b. Completely Unitary

c. Federal with Unitary Bias

d. Confederation

119. The residuary legislative powers are mentioned in:

a. Union List

b. State List

c. Concurrent List

d. No List, but vested in Parliament

120. Which Article imposes a constitutional duty on the Union to protect States against external aggression and internal disturbance?

a. Article 352

b. Article 355

c. Article 356

d. Article 360

121. Which Constitutional Amendment made the Right to Education a Fundamental Right?

a. 84th Amendment

b. 85th Amendment

c. 86th Amendment

d. 87th Amendment

122. Article 21A provides free and compulsory education to children between:

a. 5–14 years

b. 6–14 years

c. 6–18 years

d. 7–14 years

123. The National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) Act was declared unconstitutional in:

a. 2014

b. 2015

c. 2016

d. 2017

124. Which case struck down the 99th Constitutional Amendment establishing NJAC?

a. Kesavananda Bharati

b. Minerva Mills

c. Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Association v. Union of India

d. Golaknath

125. The power to amend the Constitution is vested in:

a. President

b. Parliament

c. Supreme Court

d. Parliament and State Legislatures jointly

126. Which Amendment is known as the "Mini Constitution"?

a. 24th Amendment

b. 42nd Amendment

c. 44th Amendment

d. 52nd Amendment

127. The 44th Constitutional Amendment restored many democratic safeguards after:

a. 1962 Emergency

b. 1965 War

c. 1975 Emergency

d. Kargil War

128. In which case did the Supreme Court expand Article 21 by introducing "procedure established by law must be just, fair and reasonable"?

a. A.K. Gopalan

b. Maneka Gandhi

c. Golaknath

d. Kesavananda Bharati

129. The doctrine of "Prospective Overruling" was adopted in:

a. Golaknath Case

b. Kesavananda Bharati Case

c. Minerva Mills Case

d. Maneka Gandhi Case

130. Which Article provides for impeachment of the President?

a. Article 56

b. Article 61

c. Article 72

d. Article 74

131. The President can promulgate Ordinances under:

a. Article 121

b. Article 123

c. Article 143

d. Article 213

132. The Governor can promulgate Ordinances under:

a. Article 153

b. Article 161

c. Article 213

d. Article 217

133. Which Article grants pardoning power to the President?

a. Article 72

b. Article 74

c. Article 76

d. Article 78

134. The pardoning power of the Governor is contained in:

a. Article 153

b. Article 161

c. Article 163

d. Article 166

135. Which Constitutional Amendment lowered the voting age from 21 to 18 years?

a. 52nd Amendment

b. 61st Amendment

c. 69th Amendment

d. 73rd Amendment

136. The Anti-Defection Law is contained in:

a. Ninth Schedule

b. Tenth Schedule

c. Eleventh Schedule

d. Twelfth Schedule

137. Which case is known for laying down guidelines against sexual harassment at the workplace?

a. Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan

b. Indra Sawhney

c. Olga Tellis

d. S.R. Bommai

138. Reservation for OBCs in Central Services was upheld in:

a. Kesavananda Bharati

b. Minerva Mills

c. Indra Sawhney

d. Golaknath

139. The "Creamy Layer" concept was evolved in:

a. Vishaka Case

b. Indra Sawhney Case

c. Bommai Case

d. Nagaraj Case

140. Secularism was held to be part of the Basic Structure in:

a. S.R. Bommai Case

b. Golaknath Case

c. Berubari Case

d. A.K. Gopalan Case

141. The Supreme Court described the Constitution as federal with a strong centralizing tendency in:

a. State of West Bengal v. Union of India

b. Kesavananda Bharati

c. Bommai

d. Minerva Mills

142. Which Article provides for the establishment of Administrative Tribunals?

a. Article 323A

b. Article 323B

c. Article 324

d. Article 325

143. Which Article empowers Parliament and State Legislatures to establish other tribunals?

a. Article 323A

b. Article 323B

c. Article 324

d. Article 326

144. The Public Accounts Committee consists of:

a. Members of Lok Sabha only

b. Members of Rajya Sabha only

c. Members from both Houses of Parliament

d. Ministers only

145. The Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee is traditionally:

a. Prime Minister

b. Finance Minister

c. Speaker

d. Member of Opposition

146. Which case recognized the Right to Privacy as a Fundamental Right?

a. Maneka Gandhi

b. Puttaswamy

c. Vishaka

d. Bommai

147. Right to Privacy was held to be part of:

a. Article 14 only

b. Article 19 only

c. Article 21 and Part III freedoms

d. Directive Principles only

148. Which Article provides for a Uniform Civil Code?

a. Article 43

b. Article 44

c. Article 45

d. Article 46

149. The Inter-State Council is established under:

a. Article 262

b. Article 263

c. Article 280

d. Article 312

150. Which case is regarded as the most important judgment on the Basic Structure Doctrine?

a. Golaknath v. State of Punjab

b. Minerva Mills v. Union of India

c. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala

d. S.R. Bommai v. Union of India

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