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THE INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY ACT, 2000 |
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CHAPTER I |
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PRELIMINARY |
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What is the short title of the Act? |
Information Technology Act, 2000 |
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To what geographical extent does the IT Act, 2000 apply? |
The whole of India |
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Does the IT Act, 2000 apply to offences committed outside India? |
Yes, to any person committing an offence or contravention outside India |
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What does Section 1(2) of the IT Act, 2000 primarily deal with? |
Extent and application |
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Section 2(a) defines |
access |
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Section 2(b) defines |
Addressee |
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Section 2(c) defines |
adjudicating officer |
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Section 2(d) defines |
Affixing |
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Section 2(da) defines |
Appellate Tribunal |
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Section 2(e) defines |
appropriate Government |
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Section 2(f) defines |
asymmetric crypto system |
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Section 2(g) defines |
Certifying Authority |
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Section 2(h) defines |
certification practice statement |
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Section 2(ha) defines |
communication device |
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Section 2(i) defines |
Computer |
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Section 2(j) defines |
computer network |
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Section 2(k) defines |
computer resource |
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Section 2(l) defines |
computer system |
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Section 2(m) defines |
Controller |
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Section 2(na) defines |
cyber café |
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Section 2(nb) defines |
cyber security |
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Section 2(o) defines |
Data |
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Section 2(p) defines |
digital signature |
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Section 2(q) defines |
Digital Signature Certificate |
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Section 2(r) defines |
electronic form |
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Section 2(s) defines |
Electronic Gazette |
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Section 2(t) defines |
electronic record |
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Section 2(ta) defines |
electronic signature |
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Section 2(tb) defines |
Electronic Signature Certificate |
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Section 2(u) defines |
Function |
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Section 2(ua) defines |
Indian Computer Emergency Response Team |
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Section 2(v) defines |
Information |
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Section 2(w) defines |
Intermediary |
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Section 2(x) defines |
key pair |
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Section 2(y) defines |
Law |
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Section 2(z) defines |
Licence |
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Section 2(za) defines |
Originator |
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Section 2(zb) defines |
Prescribed |
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Section 2(zc) defines |
private key |
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Section 2(zd) defines |
public key |
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Section 2(ze) defines |
secure system |
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Section 2(zf) defines |
security procedure |
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Section 2(zg) defines |
Subscriber |
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Section 2(zh) defines |
verify |
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Under the IT Act, who can commit an offence outside India and still be held liable under this law? |
Any person |
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What does the term 'Access' mean under the IT Act, 2000? |
Gaining entry into, instructing, or communicating with the logical, arithmetical, or memory function resources of a computer, computer system, or computer network |
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Who is considered an 'Addressee' in the context of electronic records? |
A person who is intended by the originator to receive the electronic record but does not include any intermediary |
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What is the role of an 'Adjudicating Officer' under the IT Act, 2000? |
To resolve disputes related to cybercrimes and contraventions of the Act |
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What does 'Affixing Electronic Signature' mean? |
Adoption of any methodology or procedure by a person for the purpose of authenticating an electronic record by means of digital signature |
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Who is the 'Appropriate Government' as per the IT Act, 2000? |
The Central or State Government, depending on the matter |
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What is an 'Asymmetric Crypto System'? |
A system of a secure key pair consisting of a private key for creating a digital signature and a public key to verify the digital signature |
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Who is a 'Certifying Authority'? |
A person who has been granted a licence to issue a Digital Signature Certificate under section 24 |
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What does 'Certification Practice Statement' refer to? |
A statement issued by a Certifying Authority to specify the practices that the Certifying Authority employs in issuing Digital Signature Certificates |
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Define 'Computer' as per the IT Act, 2000. |
Any electronic, magnetic, optical, or other high-speed data processing device or system which performs logical, arithmetic, and memory functions by manipulations of electronic, magnetic, or optical impulses |
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What constitutes a 'Computer Network'? |
The interconnection of one or more computers or computer systems or communication devices through communication media |
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What does 'Computer Resource' include? |
Computer, communication device, computer system, computer network, data, computer database, or software |
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Define 'Computer System'. |
A device or collection of devices, including input and output support devices and excluding calculators which are not programmable and capable of being used in conjunction with external files |
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Who is the 'Controller' under the IT Act, 2000? |
The Controller of Certifying Authorities appointed under sub-section (7) of section 17 |
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What is a 'Cyber Appellate Tribunal'? |
A tribunal established to hear appeals against orders passed by the Adjudicating Officer |
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Define 'Data' as per the IT Act, 2000. |
A representation of information, knowledge, facts, concepts, or instructions which are being prepared or have been prepared in a formalized manner |
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What is a 'Digital Signature'? |
Authentication of any electronic record by a subscriber by means of an electronic method or procedure in accordance with the provisions of section 3 |
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What does 'Digital Signature Certificate' mean? |
A certificate issued under sub-section (4) of section 35 |
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Define 'Electronic Form' with reference to information. |
Information generated, sent, received, or stored in media such as magnetic, optical, computer memory, microfilm, computer-generated microfiche, or similar device |
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What is 'Electronic Gazette'? |
Official Gazette published in electronic form |
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Define 'Electronic Record'. |
Data, record or data generated, image or sound stored, received, or sent in an electronic form or microfilm or computer-generated microfiche |
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CHAPTER II |
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DIGITAL SIGNATURE AND ELECTRONIC SIGNATURE |
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What is the primary focus of Section 3 of the IT Act, 2000? |
Authentication of electronic records |
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How can an electronic record be authenticated under the IT Act, 2000? |
Using a secure digital signature |
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As per Section 3, who is responsible for authenticating an electronic record? |
The subscriber |
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Which cryptographic method is used for digital signatures in the IT Act, 2000? |
Asymmetric cryptography |
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What are the components of the asymmetric crypto system used for authentication? |
A private key and a public key |
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What does the private key do in the digital signature process? |
It is used by the subscriber to create the digital signature |
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What is the role of the public key in the digital signature process? |
To verify the digital signature created by the private key |
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Under Section 3, when is a digital signature considered secure? |
When it is created in a manner prescribed by the Central Government using a secure system |
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What ensures the integrity and authenticity of an electronic record under Section 3? |
Use of a digital signature |
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Which government authority prescribes the secure procedure for digital signatures under the IT Act? |
Central Government |
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Which is NOT part of Section 3 of the IT Act, 2000? |
Definition of adjudicating officer |
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Section 3 of the IT Act gives legal validity to which form of signature? |
Digital signature created by a secure system |
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What is necessary for a digital signature to be considered legally valid under Section 3? |
It must be certified by a Certifying Authority |
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Who verifies the digital signature using the public key? |
Any person who receives the electronic record |
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What legal effect does Section 3 have on electronic records? |
It gives them legal validity if properly authenticated by digital signature |
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What is the focus of Section 3A of the IT Act, 2000? |
Electronic signatures as a means of authentication |
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Section 3A was inserted into the IT Act, 2000 through which amendment? |
IT Amendment Act, 2008 |
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What does Section 3A allow in addition to digital signatures? |
Other electronic signatures that are secure and reliable |
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According to Section 3A(1), an electronic signature is considered valid if it is: |
Reliable and fulfills the conditions prescribed by the Central Government |
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Who prescribes the conditions for reliability of electronic signatures under Section 3A? |
Central Government |
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What is one of the key conditions under Section 3A(2) for an electronic signature to be reliable? |
It must be linked uniquely to the signatory |
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Which is NOT a condition under Section 3A(2) for an electronic signature to be considered reliable? |
It must be alterable after affixation |
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Under Section 3A(2), what must happen if the electronic signature is altered after affixation? |
It becomes invalid |
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According to Section 3A(3), what power does the Central Government have regarding electronic signatures? |
To prescribe procedures and standards for electronic signatures |
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Which term best describes the legal effect of a valid electronic signature under Section 3A? |
Legally recognized authentication |
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The reliability test for electronic signatures under Section 3A(2) includes? |
Identification of the signatory and control over creation data |
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What is the importance of Section 3A in the context of modern e-governance? |
It enables acceptance of multiple secure electronic authentication methods |
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Section 3A(2)(d) states that an electronic signature shall be considered reliable if it is: |
Linked to the electronic record in such a manner that if the record is changed, the signature is invalidated |
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What is meant by "electronic signature creation data" as implied in Section 3A? |
Unique credentials like private keys or credentials used to generate a signature |
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According to Section 3A, if an electronic signature meets the prescribed standards, it shall have: |
Presumptive legal validity |
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CHAPTER III |
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ELECTRONIC GOVERNANCE |
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What does Section 4 of the IT Act, 2000 primarily deal with? |
Legal recognition of electronic records |
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According to Section 4, if any law requires information to be in writing or printed form, it is deemed to be satisfied if: |
The information is available in an electronic form and accessible for future reference |
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Section 4 grants electronic records: |
Equal legal status as written documents |
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What is a key requirement for electronic records to be legally recognized under Section 4? |
They must be accessible and usable for future reference |
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Under Section 4, an electronic record is valid if it is: |
Retained in electronic form and accessible for subsequent reference |
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Section 4 of the IT Act applies to which type of laws? |
Any law that requires information to be in writing or printed form |
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What is the effect of Section 4 on paper-based legal requirements? |
It allows electronic records to fulfill the same legal requirements |
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As per Section 4, the electronic form of a document must be: |
Retained in a way that is accessible and usable for future reference |
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Which is NOT necessary for an electronic record to be considered valid under Section 4? |
It must be printed and signed |
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What type of technological format is mandated in Section 4? |
Any electronic format that can be accessed and used for future reference |
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The provision in Section 4 of the IT Act supports which of objectives? |
E-governance and digital documentation |
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What is the main benefit of Section 4 to businesses and individuals? |
Ability to use electronic communication in place of paper documents |
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Which phrase best reflects the intent of Section 4 of the IT Act? |
“Digital equivalence of paper records” |
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Is physical signature necessary for documents covered under Section 4? |
No, if the electronic record is valid and accessible |
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What is implied when a law requires something to be in writing and it is presented electronically as per Section 4? |
The electronic form is sufficient if it can be retained and referred to later |
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What is the primary focus of Section 5 of the IT Act, 2000? |
Legal recognition of electronic signatures |
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According to Section 5, where any law requires a signature or any document to be signed, that requirement is deemed satisfied by: |
An electronic signature affixed in a manner prescribed by the Central Government |
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Under Section 5, an electronic signature has the same legal validity as: |
A handwritten signature or a physical signature |
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What is a key requirement for an electronic signature to be legally valid under Section 5? |
It must be affixed using a secure electronic method as prescribed by the Central Government |
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Section 5 of the IT Act, 2000 grants legal recognition to: |
Electronic signatures used in accordance with prescribed procedures |
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The procedure and manner in which an electronic signature is affixed are prescribed by: |
The Central Government |
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What is meant by “electronic signature” under Section 5? |
An electronic method of authentication using procedures prescribed by law |
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When can an electronic signature be rejected under Section 5? |
If it is not affixed using the prescribed secure method |
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Why was Section 5 inserted in the IT Act, 2000? |
To legally recognize electronic authentication methods in place of physical signatures |
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Section 5 of the IT Act applies to: |
Any law requiring a signature on any document |
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Under Section 5, an electronic signature shall be deemed valid if: |
It is affixed using a secure method and procedure prescribed by the Central Government |
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Which authority is empowered to prescribe the procedure for electronic signatures under Section 5? |
Central Government |
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What is the primary focus of Section 6 of the IT Act, 2000? |
Use of electronic records and electronic signatures in government and its agencies |
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Under Section 6, when can electronic records and signatures be used by the government and its agencies? |
When the government or its agencies specify their use for certain transactions or communications |
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Section 6 allows electronic records and signatures to be used by the government for: |
The purposes specified by the government for its dealings with the public |
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Which is a requirement for government agencies to use electronic records and signatures under Section 6? |
The government must explicitly allow their use for specific purposes |
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What does Section 6 specify about government and its agencies using electronic records for public dealings? |
The government can use electronic records and signatures for specified purposes if allowed by law |
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Which is true about the use of electronic records in government communications as per Section 6? |
The government must specify the use of electronic records and signatures for certain functions |
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What is a key feature of Section 6 regarding the flexibility of electronic records in government operations? |
The government has the authority to specify which functions can use electronic records |
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Which is true regarding the use of electronic signatures in government dealings under Section 6? |
They can be used only for specific transactions where the government has authorized them |
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What is the primary focus of Section 6A of the IT Act, 2000? |
Delivery of services by service providers in electronic form |
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Section 6A of the IT Act, 2000 mandates that service providers must ensure: |
Delivery of services electronically within a specified time frame |
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What does Section 6A require service providers to do in terms of service delivery? |
Ensure that services are delivered electronically in a manner that is accessible to the recipient |
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Section 6A applies to? |
All service providers who deliver services electronically |
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What is the primary focus of Section 7 of the IT Act, 2000? |
Retention of electronic records |
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According to Section 7, service providers or entities dealing with electronic records must ensure that the records are: |
Retained in their original electronic format for a prescribed period |
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Section 7 of the IT Act mandates that electronic records be retained in a manner that: |
Ensures that the content remains accessible and usable for future reference |
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The retention period for electronic records as prescribed under Section 7 is: |
Specified by the Central Government |
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Under Section 7, the retention of electronic records should allow: |
The records to be accessible, usable, and retrievable |
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Section 7 requires that service providers ensure the retention of electronic records for: |
The period specified by the Central Government |
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Which is TRUE under Section 7 regarding the retention of electronic records? |
The retention must be in a manner that ensures the records remain usable for the specified period |
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What is the primary purpose of Section 7A of the IT Act, 2000? |
To mandate the audit of documents maintained in electronic form |
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Section 7A of the IT Act, 2000 requires that: |
Electronic records be audited periodically to ensure compliance with regulations |
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Who is responsible for conducting the audit of documents maintained in electronic form under Section 7A? |
The service provider or entity maintaining the records |
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What is a key objective of the audit under Section 7A? |
To ensure that electronic records are maintained securely and in compliance with legal requirements |
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Section 7A requires that the audit be: |
Periodic and conducted to ensure compliance with prescribed standards |
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What action is taken if an audit under Section 7A reveals non-compliance with prescribed regulations? |
Legal actions or penalties may be imposed for non-compliance |
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The audit under Section 7A should ensure that the electronic records: |
Are securely maintained, accessible, and usable as per legal and regulatory requirements |
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What is the primary purpose of Section 8 of the IT Act, 2000? |
To mandate the publication of rules, regulations, and notifications in the Electronic Gazette |
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Under Section 8, rules, regulations, and notifications issued under the IT Act must be published in: |
The Electronic Gazette |
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Section 8 of the IT Act, 2000 applies to the publication of: |
Rules, regulations, and notifications under the IT Act |
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What is the significance of publishing rules, regulations, etc., in the Electronic Gazette under Section 8? |
It ensures they are legally binding and publicly accessible |
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Who is responsible for the publication of rules, regulations, etc., in the Electronic Gazette under Section 8? |
The Central Government or any authority designated by the government |
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Section 8 mandates that the Electronic Gazette should: |
Be used for the publication of all official notices, rules, and regulations under the IT Act |
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What is the legal effect of publishing a rule, regulation, or notification in the Electronic Gazette according to Section 8? |
It is considered legally binding and effective as if it had been published in a physical Gazette |
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Which is TRUE regarding the Electronic Gazette as per Section 8? |
It serves as an official platform for the publication of rules, regulations, and notifications under the IT Act |
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What is the primary focus of Section 10A of the IT Act, 2000? |
To ensure that contracts formed through electronic means are valid |
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According to Section 10A of the IT Act, 2000, contracts formed through electronic means are: |
Valid if they are formed in accordance with the provisions of the IT Act |
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Which is a requirement for a contract to be valid under Section 10A? |
The contract must be formed through electronic means, in compliance with the IT Act |
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Which statements is TRUE under Section 10A of the IT Act, 2000? |
Contracts formed through electronic means are considered valid as long as they comply with the provisions of the IT Act |
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Section 10A ensures that contracts formed through electronic means: |
Are valid and enforceable under Indian law |
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What is the legal status of contracts formed electronically as per Section 10A? |
They are valid and enforceable just like contracts formed physically |
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Under Section 10A, which is NOT a requirement for the validity of an electronic contract? |
The contract must be in writing and signed physically |
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According to Section 10A, contracts that are formed through electronic means: |
Are legally valid and enforceable under the IT Act |
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Section 10A of the IT Act, 2000 helps in: |
Ensuring the validity and enforceability of electronic contracts |
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CHAPTER IV |
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ATTRIBUTION, ACKNOWLEDGEMENT AND DESPATCH OF ELECTRONIC RECORDS |
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What is the main focus of Section 11 of the IT Act, 2000? |
Attribution of electronic records to their originator |
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According to Section 11, an electronic record is attributed to the originator when: |
It is sent from the originator’s computer or device |
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In the context of Section 11, what is meant by "originator" in relation to an electronic record? |
The person who sends or generates the electronic record |
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Under Section 11, if an electronic record is created by a person, it is attributed to that person unless: |
It is generated by a computer program without their knowledge |
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How does Section 11 of the IT Act deal with electronic records in terms of their origin? |
It establishes that the record is attributed to the originator based on the transmission of the record |
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What is the requirement under Section 11 for an electronic record to be attributed to an originator? |
The record must be sent from the originator’s device or account |
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Section 11 of the IT Act, 2000 primarily ensures that: |
Electronic records can be attributed to their creators or senders in a legally recognized manner |
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Who is considered the "originator" of an electronic record under Section 11? |
The person who creates or sends the electronic record |
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In Section 11, what happens if an electronic record is generated by an automated process without human intervention? |
It is attributed to the person who owns the computer or system that generated the record |
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According to Section 11, if an electronic record is created and sent by the originator's system, how is it attributed to the originator? |
The record is attributed to the originator because it was generated from their system |
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Section 11 ensures that electronic records are: |
Attributed to the correct originator based on the record's transmission |
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What is the primary focus of Section 12 of the IT Act, 2000? |
To establish the process for acknowledging the receipt of electronic records |
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According to Section 12, when an electronic record is received, the recipient is required to acknowledge the receipt: |
Immediately or within a reasonable time |
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What is the purpose of acknowledgment of receipt under Section 12 of the IT Act? |
To confirm that the recipient has received the electronic record |
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What is the primary focus of Section 14 of the IT Act, 2000? |
To ensure that electronic records are secure and protected from tampering |
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Under Section 14, what is required for an electronic record to be considered "secure"? |
It must be encrypted and protected against unauthorized access |
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What is the purpose of ensuring the security of electronic records under Section 14? |
To prevent unauthorized alteration, tampering, or loss |
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In Section 14, what does "secure electronic record" mean? |
A record that is encrypted, authenticated, and protected from alteration |
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Section 14 defines that a secure electronic record must: |
Be protected through security procedures that ensure its integrity |
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Under Section 14, a secure electronic record ensures that: |
The record is encrypted and cannot be altered or accessed by unauthorized parties |
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Which is an example of a "secure electronic record" under Section 14? |
A contract stored in a secure digital storage system with encryption |
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What is one of the key requirements for an electronic record to be secure, as per Section 14? |
It must be protected from unauthorized access and alteration |
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What is the primary focus of Section 15 of the IT Act, 2000? |
To define the process for creating and validating electronic signatures |
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According to Section 15, what is a "secure electronic signature"? |
A signature that is digitally signed with encryption techniques and linked to the signer |
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Which is NOT a characteristic of a secure electronic signature under Section 15? |
It can be easily copied by unauthorized persons |
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According to Section 15, a secure electronic signature ensures? |
The authenticity of the signer and the integrity of the electronic record |
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How is a secure electronic signature typically created under Section 15? |
Through a process involving asymmetric cryptography, ensuring the signature’s authenticity and integrity |
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What is the role of encryption in creating a secure electronic signature under Section 15? |
It helps maintain the confidentiality and integrity of the signed document |
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Section 15 of the IT Act defines a secure electronic signature as one that: |
Is linked to the signatory and can detect any subsequent alterations to the record |
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What happens if a secure electronic signature is altered after it is created? |
The record is considered tampered, and the integrity is compromised |
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Which is necessary for an electronic signature to be secure under Section 15? |
It must ensure the integrity of the signed document and cannot be forged |
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Section 15 of the IT Act ensures that a secure electronic signature: |
Cannot be easily forged and is linked to the signer in a verifiable way |
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According to Section 15, who can verify the secure electronic signature? |
A third-party certification authority or any relevant entity authorized by law |
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Under Section 15, which is NOT a feature of a secure electronic signature? |
It can be altered by any third party without detection |
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The secure electronic signature ensures that: |
Any subsequent change to the signed electronic record can be detected |
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Who is responsible for providing secure electronic signatures under Section 15? |
Certification Authorities (CAs) authorized under the IT Act |
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What is the primary objective of Section 16 of the IT Act, 2000? |
To ensure the implementation of security procedures for electronic records and transactions |
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Section 16 mandates that a body corporate must implement: |
Security procedures and practices to protect sensitive data and electronic transactions |
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What does Section 16 require a body corporate or person to ensure regarding their security procedures? |
The procedures should ensure confidentiality, integrity, and availability of electronic records |
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Under Section 16, who is responsible for implementing security procedures and practices? |
Individuals and bodies corporate engaged in electronic records and transactions |
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What is one of the core requirements of security procedures under Section 16? |
To protect sensitive data from unauthorized access, alteration, or destruction |
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Which is NOT a responsibility outlined in Section 16 for ensuring security practices? |
Allowing all users to have access to the data |
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According to Section 16, security procedures must include: |
Methods to prevent unauthorized access and alterations |
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Under Section 16, what is expected of bodies corporate regarding the security of electronic records? |
They must ensure records are stored in encrypted formats to prevent unauthorized access |
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Which is a part of the security procedures and practices defined in Section 16? |
Developing methods to prevent unauthorized access and tampering of electronic records |
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Section 16 of the IT Act, 2000 emphasizes the importance of: |
Protecting sensitive information from unauthorized access, alteration, or destruction |
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Who can be held accountable if the security procedures and practices outlined in Section 16 are not implemented properly? |
Individuals or bodies corporate responsible for electronic records |
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Section 16 of the IT Act requires the adoption of security procedures to protect: |
All electronic records and transactions from unauthorized access or manipulation |
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In Section 16, "reasonable security practices" are defined as those that: |
Protect electronic records from unauthorized access and maintain their integrity |
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What is the role of the security practices as described in Section 16 regarding unauthorized access? |
To ensure unauthorized individuals cannot access, alter, or destroy the data |
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Under Section 16, the security procedures should: |
Ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of electronic records |
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What is one of the key objectives of the security procedures as per Section 16 of the IT Act? |
To protect sensitive data and electronic records from unauthorized access, alteration, or destruction |
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In Section 16, it is specified that bodies corporate should: |
Continuously update and audit security practices and systems |
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Which could be considered a breach of security procedures under Section 16? |
Allowing unrestricted access to sensitive electronic records |
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Under Section 16, what type of records are required to have security procedures in place? |
All types of electronic records and transactions |
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What is the effect of failing to implement security procedures as outlined in Section 16? |
It may lead to the organization being held liable for any unauthorized access or breach |
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CHAPTER VI |
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REGULATION OF CERTIFYING AUTHORITIES |
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According to Section 17 of the IT Act, 2000, who is responsible for the appointment of the Controller and other officers? |
The Union Government |
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Section 17 of the IT Act, 2000, specifies the appointment of which positions? |
The Controller of Certifying Authorities |
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Who has the authority to appoint the Controller and other officers under Section 17 of the IT Act, 2000? |
The Union Government |
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What is the role of the Controller of Certifying Authorities as per Section 17? |
To manage and oversee certifying authorities for electronic signatures |
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Under Section 17 of the IT Act, 2000, the Union Government is empowered to appoint: |
The Controller and other officers for the administration of the Act |
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Section 17 empowers the Union Government to appoint officers for: |
Administering and enforcing the provisions of the Information Technology Act |
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Under Section 17, the officers appointed by the Union Government assist in: |
Ensuring compliance with the provisions of the IT Act |
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Who determines the qualifications and tenure of the Controller and other officers under Section 17? |
The Union Government |
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Section 17 mentions that the Controller and other officers are responsible for: |
Overseeing the registration of certifying authorities |
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Who appoints the Controller and other officers in accordance with Section 17 of the IT Act? |
The Union Government |
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Under Section 17, the Union Government's powers to appoint officers include appointing: |
A Controller to monitor Certifying Authorities and enforce standards |
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As per Section 17, the Controller of Certifying Authorities is required to: |
Supervise the issuance of digital signatures and certificates |
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What happens if the Controller and other officers are not appointed under Section 17? |
The IT Act cannot be fully implemented without the appointment of these officers |
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What is the main focus of the responsibilities of the officers appointed under Section 17? |
Ensuring compliance with digital contracts and cybersecurity protocols |
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Who has the authority to make decisions regarding the tenure and qualifications of the officers appointed under Section 17? |
The Union Government |
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What is the significance of Section 17 in the context of the IT Act, 2000? |
It provides a legal basis for appointing officers who ensure the effective enforcement of the IT Act |
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What is the primary function of the Controller of Certifying Authorities as outlined in Section 18 of the IT Act, 2000? |
To oversee the working of Certifying Authorities and ensure they comply with the provisions of the Act |
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Under Section 18 of the IT Act, 2000, the Controller is responsible for: |
Ensuring the proper functioning of Certifying Authorities and electronic signatures |
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Which is a responsibility of the Controller under Section 18 of the IT Act? |
Issuing guidelines to Certifying Authorities for the issuance of digital certificates |
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Section 18 specifies that the Controller’s functions include: |
Monitoring the working and compliance of Certifying Authorities |
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According to Section 18, the Controller is responsible for: |
Ensuring Certifying Authorities are licensed and their operations are transparent |
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Section 18 of the IT Act requires the Controller to: |
Monitor and enforce compliance by Certifying Authorities with the prescribed security standards |
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The Controller's duties under Section 18 include overseeing: |
The functioning of Certifying Authorities and their adherence to regulatory standards |
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What role does the Controller play in the process of issuing digital certificates? |
The Controller monitors Certifying Authorities to ensure they are issuing digital certificates properly |
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Under Section 18, the Controller has the responsibility to: |
Ensure Certifying Authorities maintain the confidentiality and security of the digital certificates they issue |
|
Section 18 assigns the Controller the task of: |
Monitoring the legality and security of electronic signatures and digital certificates |
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The Controller of Certifying Authorities can issue guidelines for: |
The secure and proper use of digital certificates and signatures |
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Section 18 empowers the Controller to ensure that Certifying Authorities: |
Follow prescribed security procedures and practices for the issuance of digital certificates |
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Under Section 21 of the IT Act, 2000, who is authorized to issue electronic signature certificates? |
Certifying Authorities licensed by the Controller |
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What is the primary requirement for an entity to issue electronic signature certificates under Section 21 of the IT Act, 2000? |
The entity must obtain a license from the Controller |
|
Under Section 21, who is responsible for granting the licence to issue electronic signature certificates? |
The Controller of Certifying Authorities |
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According to Section 21 of the IT Act, 2000, a Certifying Authority must be licensed to issue electronic signature certificates for: |
Any electronic transactions that require authentication by signature |
|
Which is a key requirement for obtaining a licence to issue electronic signature certificates under Section 21? |
The entity must comply with the security requirements and regulations prescribed by the Controller |
|
Section 21 empowers the Controller to: |
Grant licences to Certifying Authorities for issuing digital signatures |
|
A Certifying Authority needs to be licensed under Section 21 to: |
Issue electronic signature certificates for secure online transactions |
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What is the role of the Controller in the licensing process of Certifying Authorities under Section 21? |
The Controller grants and manages the licenses to issue electronic signature certificates |
|
Section 21 specifies that no person can issue electronic signature certificates unless they: |
Have been granted a licence by the Controller |
|
According to Section 21, which entities is eligible to apply for a licence to issue electronic signature certificates? |
A Certifying Authority that meets the necessary security and regulatory requirements |
|
Under Section 21, the licence to issue electronic signature certificates is granted by: |
The Controller of Certifying Authorities |
|
Section 21 of the IT Act requires that a Certifying Authority issuing electronic signature certificates must: |
Comply with the security standards and regulations prescribed by the Controller |
|
Under Section 21, what happens if a Certifying Authority issues electronic signature certificates without a valid licence? |
The Certifying Authority faces legal consequences and penalties |
|
In Section 21, the Controller has the authority to: |
Grant or revoke licences for Certifying Authorities based on compliance |
|
According to Section 21 of the IT Act, a Certifying Authority that wishes to issue electronic signature certificates must: |
Have the capacity to ensure the security of the digital certificates issued |
|
Section 21 of the IT Act specifies that a Certifying Authority must comply with: |
The security requirements laid down by the Controller |
|
If a Certifying Authority fails to comply with the provisions of Section 21, what action can the Controller take? |
The Controller may revoke its licence to issue electronic signature certificates |
|
According to Section 21, the validity of electronic signature certificates depends on: |
The compliance of the Certifying Authority with the licensing conditions and security standards |
|
Who determines the conditions and security requirements for obtaining a licence to issue electronic signature certificates under Section 21? |
The Controller of Certifying Authorities |
|
Section 21 of the IT Act, 2000 applies to: |
Certifying Authorities issuing electronic signature certificates |
|
According to Section 22 of the IT Act, 2000, who is responsible for submitting the application for a licence to issue electronic signature certificates? |
The Certifying Authority seeking to issue electronic signature certificates |
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Under Section 22 of the IT Act, the application for a licence to issue electronic signature certificates must be made to: |
The Controller of Certifying Authorities |
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What must the applicant include in the application for a licence under Section 22 of the IT Act, 2000? |
Security policies and operational procedures that comply with the Act |
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According to Section 22 of the IT Act, what is the first step for an applicant seeking to obtain a licence to issue electronic signature certificates? |
Submit a detailed application to the Controller of Certifying Authorities |
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The application for a licence under Section 22 must be submitted by the entity seeking to: |
Provide electronic signature services in compliance with the IT Act |
|
Section 22 mandates that the application for a licence includes details of: |
The applicant’s compliance with prescribed security standards |
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Under Section 22, what happens if the application for a licence is found to be incomplete or incorrect? |
The Controller may reject the application or request further information |
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Which is a potential requirement for an applicant submitting an application for a licence under Section 22? |
Compliance with the prescribed security procedures |
|
Section 22 allows the Controller to: |
Evaluate the security measures and practices of the applicant before issuing a licence |
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What must an applicant provide to ensure compliance with Section 22 when applying for a licence to issue electronic signature certificates? |
Detailed operational procedures that ensure the security of electronic signatures |
|
Under Section 22, the Controller may ask the applicant for a licence to provide: |
Further details about the security measures they intend to implement |
|
According to Section 22, if the Controller is satisfied with the application, they will: |
Approve the application and issue a licence to the applicant |
|
Section 22 of the IT Act, 2000 requires that the application for a licence should be: |
Submitted in a prescribed format, including details of the applicant’s infrastructure |
|
Which does Section 22 require an applicant for a licence to provide? |
A description of the digital certificate services the applicant plans to offer |
|
What happens if the Controller does not grant the licence to an applicant under Section 22? |
The applicant can reapply after making necessary changes to the application |
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Under Section 23 of the IT Act, 2000, which entity is responsible for the renewal of a licence to issue electronic signature certificates? |
The Controller of Certifying Authorities |
|
Section 23 of the IT Act, 2000, provides for the renewal of the licence granted to: |
Certifying Authorities to issue electronic signature certificates |
|
Under Section 23, how often can a licence to issue electronic signature certificates be renewed? |
As specified in the terms and conditions of the licence |
|
To renew a licence under Section 23, the Certifying Authority must: |
Apply for renewal before the expiry of the licence and meet regulatory requirements |
|
If a Certifying Authority does not apply for the renewal of its licence under Section 23 before the expiration, the Controller may: |
Suspend the licence until further review |
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What is the purpose of renewing a licence under Section 23 of the IT Act, 2000? |
To ensure that Certifying Authorities continue to meet the prescribed security and operational standards |
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Under Section 23, which must a Certifying Authority submit for the renewal of their licence? |
Updated operational and security procedures that comply with regulations |
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In case of renewal under Section 23, if the Certifying Authority does not meet the required standards, the Controller may: |
Reject the renewal application |
|
Section 23 allows the Controller to: |
Modify the terms and conditions of the licence during renewal |
|
Under Section 23, if a Certifying Authority's licence is renewed, they must: |
Ensure their operations continue in compliance with the IT Act and the Controller's regulations |
|
What will happen if the renewal application is incomplete or incorrect under Section 23? |
The Controller will request further information or corrections before proceeding with renewal |
|
Under Section 24 of the IT Act, 2000, who is responsible for granting or rejecting the licence for issuing electronic signature certificates? |
The Controller of Certifying Authorities |
|
According to Section 24 of the IT Act, 2000, the Controller must grant or reject the licence within: |
90 days of receiving the application |
|
Under Section 24, the Controller may reject the application for a licence to issue electronic signature certificates if: |
The applicant fails to submit the required security measures, The applicant does not meet the eligibility criteria, The applicant’s operations do not align with the provisions of the Act. |
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What must the Controller do before rejecting an application for a licence under Section 24 of the IT Act, 2000? |
Provide the applicant with an opportunity to address the issues leading to the rejection |
|
Under Section 24, when an application for a licence is rejected, the Controller must: |
Provide a detailed explanation for the rejection to the applicant |
|
According to Section 24 of the IT Act, 2000, the Controller’s decision to grant a licence depends on: |
Compliance with the prescribed security measures and other legal requirements |
|
What happens if the Controller does not make a decision within the time prescribed under Section 24? |
The licence is automatically granted |
|
If the Controller grants the licence, what happens next according to Section 24 of the IT Act? |
The applicant receives a formal licence to issue electronic signature certificates |
|
Section 24 of the IT Act, 2000, provides the Controller with the authority to: |
Grant or reject applications for licences for issuing electronic signature certificates |
|
Under Section 24, what should the Controller ensure when granting the licence? |
The applicant has met the eligibility criteria and complies with security regulations |
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Section 24 of the IT Act, 2000, states that the Controller may reject the application if: |
The applicant does not provide the required documents or information, The applicant’s facilities do not meet the required standards, The applicant has violated the provisions of the IT Act previously. |
|
How can a Certifying Authority reinstate a suspended licence under Section 25 of the IT Act? |
By complying with the terms and conditions set by the Controller for reinstatement |
|
What happens if a Certifying Authority’s licence is suspended and it fails to comply with the terms of suspension under Section 25? |
The Controller may revoke the licence permanently |
|
Section 25 of the IT Act requires that the Controller provide which to the Certifying Authority when suspending its licence? |
A notice explaining the reasons for suspension |
|
Under Section 25, if the suspension is lifted, the Certifying Authority is: |
Permitted to resume issuing digital certificates under the original conditions |
|
In the event of a suspension, the Controller must: |
Provide the Certifying Authority a chance to resolve the violations |
|
Which is NOT a reason for the suspension of a Certifying Authority’s licence under Section 25? |
Failure to generate enough revenue |
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Under Section 26 of the IT Act, 2000, when a Certifying Authority’s licence is suspended or revoked, who must be notified? |
The Certifying Authority |
|
What is the primary purpose of the notice of suspension or revocation under Section 26 of the IT Act, 2000? |
To provide the Certifying Authority an opportunity to rectify the situation |
|
According to Section 26, the notice of suspension or revocation must be sent to the Certifying Authority: |
Immediately after the suspension or revocation decision |
|
What must the notice of suspension or revocation include, as per Section 26 of the IT Act? |
The reason for the suspension or revocation |
|
Under Section 27 of the IT Act, 2000, who has the authority to delegate their powers? |
The Controller of Certifying Authorities |
|
Section 27 of the IT Act, 2000, allows the Controller of Certifying Authorities to delegate powers to: |
Any officer or authority authorized by the Controller |
|
Under Section 27, the Controller of Certifying Authorities can delegate their powers: |
To any officer or authority under their jurisdiction |
|
According to Section 27, the Controller can delegate powers related to which? |
Administrative functions under the IT Act |
|
In the event of delegating powers under Section 27, what is the responsibility of the Controller? |
To oversee and ensure that the delegation is properly executed |
|
Section 27 of the IT Act states that the Controller can delegate powers to: |
Any officer authorized under the Controller’s jurisdiction |
|
Under Section 27 of the IT Act, which powers can the Controller of Certifying Authorities delegate? |
Powers related to the implementation of security standards and regulations |
|
When the Controller delegates powers under Section 27 of the IT Act, the officer or authority to whom powers are delegated is: |
Bound to exercise the powers as directed by the Controller |
|
Section 27 of the IT Act empowers the Controller to delegate powers, but it does not permit: |
Delegating judicial powers regarding digital signatures |
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Under Section 27 of the IT Act, what must be ensured when delegating powers to another officer or authority? |
The powers are exercised in accordance with the law |
|
Section 27 specifies that the delegation of powers is: |
A discretionary authority exercised by the Controller as needed |
|
Can the Controller revoke a delegation of powers under Section 27 of the IT Act? |
Yes, the Controller can revoke the delegation at any time |
|
Under Section 29 of the IT Act, 2000, who has the authority to access data stored in a computer? |
Law enforcement agencies and officers with due authority |
|
Section 29 of the IT Act allows authorities to access computers and data: |
When authorized by the government or a legal authority |
|
What must authorities have to access data stored in computers as per Section 29 of the IT Act, 2000? |
A warrant or order from a competent authority |
|
Section 29 of the IT Act, 2000, primarily deals with: |
The process of accessing data and computers by authorized officers |
|
Under Section 29, when can law enforcement agencies access data from a computer system? |
When legally authorized to do so for investigation or security purposes |
|
What does Section 29 authorize law enforcement officers to do? |
Access computers and data with due legal authorization |
|
Which is required under Section 29 before accessing data stored in a computer? |
A warrant or legal authorization from a competent authority |
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Under Section 29 of the IT Act, 2000, access to a computer and its data by authorities can be granted for: |
The investigation of crimes, frauds, or cyber offenses |
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In what scenario would Section 29 of the IT Act, 2000, allow access to data stored on a computer? |
When a legal officer has a warrant and is investigating an offense |
|
What must authorities do before accessing data under Section 29 of the IT Act, 2000? |
Obtain appropriate legal authorization such as a warrant or order |
|
Section 30 of the IT Act, 2000, requires Certifying Authorities to follow certain procedures related to: |
Verification and authentication of electronic records |
|
According to Section 30, Certifying Authorities must establish procedures for: |
Verifying the identity of subscribers before issuing digital certificates |
|
Section 30 of the IT Act, 2000, mandates Certifying Authorities to ensure that: |
They follow security procedures that meet the standards set by the government |
|
Under Section 30, Certifying Authorities must ensure that all procedures related to digital certificates are: |
Developed according to the guidelines set by the Controller of Certifying Authorities |
|
Section 30 of the IT Act, 2000, specifies that Certifying Authorities must take adequate steps to: |
Prevent fraudulent activities and unauthorized use of digital certificates |
|
Certifying Authorities are required to implement procedures under Section 30 of the IT Act to ensure: |
That their operations follow security protocols prescribed by the Controller |
|
Under Section 30, the procedures followed by Certifying Authorities must include: |
Guidelines for ensuring the integrity of the subscriber’s information |
|
Section 30 of the IT Act, 2000, requires Certifying Authorities to maintain: |
A record of the digital certificates issued and the subscribers' details |
|
Which must Certifying Authorities ensure under Section 30 of the IT Act, 2000? |
The certificates are issued only after proper verification of the subscriber’s identity |
|
Section 30 of the IT Act requires Certifying Authorities to adopt procedures for: |
Deciding the cost of digital certificates, Protecting against fraud and misuse of digital certificates, Managing customer complaints related to digital certificates |
|
Under Section 31 of the IT Act, 2000, Certifying Authorities are required to ensure compliance with |
The provisions of the Information Technology Act, 2000 |
|
According to Section 31 of the IT Act, 2000, Certifying Authorities must comply with: |
The procedures and guidelines under the Information Technology Act |
|
Section 31 of the IT Act, 2000, obligates Certifying Authorities to: |
Ensure compliance with the IT Act’s rules and provisions for the issuance of digital signatures |
|
Certifying Authorities, as per Section 31, must: |
Ensure their operations are aligned with the rules of the Information Technology Act, 2000 |
|
Section 31 of the IT Act, 2000, mandates that Certifying Authorities must comply with: |
The security measures specified under the IT Act |
|
Which is the responsibility of Certifying Authorities under Section 31 of the IT Act, 2000? |
To ensure compliance with the provisions of the IT Act and related rules |
|
Under Section 31 of the IT Act, Certifying Authorities must: |
Issue certificates only after confirming the identity of the subscribers |
|
Section 31 of the IT Act, 2000, states that Certifying Authorities are required to ensure that: |
They follow the compliance procedures for issuing certificates as laid down by the law |
|
What is the role of Certifying Authorities under Section 31 regarding the IT Act, 2000? |
To ensure their operations and certificate issuance comply with the Act’s provisions |
|
Section 31 of the IT Act, 2000, requires Certifying Authorities to: |
Ensure compliance with the prescribed procedures for issuing digital certificates |
|
According to Section 31, what must Certifying Authorities do to ensure compliance? |
Regularly update their procedures to comply with the Act’s provisions |
|
Under Section 32 of the IT Act, 2000, which entity is required to display a license? |
Certifying Authorities |
|
Section 32 of the IT Act, 2000, mandates that Certifying Authorities must display their: |
Licenses issued under the Act |
|
According to Section 32 of the IT Act, 2000, the display of the licence should be: |
On the Certifying Authority's website and office |
|
The display of a Certifying Authority's licence as per Section 32 is required to ensure: |
Transparency and trustworthiness of the Certifying Authority |
|
Section 32 of the IT Act requires the licence to be displayed in: |
A manner accessible to the public |
|
What is the main purpose of displaying the licence according to Section 32 of the IT Act, 2000? |
To demonstrate that the Certifying Authority is authorized to issue digital certificates |
|
Section 32 of the IT Act, 2000, ensures that: |
The Certifying Authority is authorized and legally recognized |
|
Where should the Certifying Authority display its license as per Section 32 of the IT Act, 2000? |
In an easily accessible manner on its website |
|
Which is true according to Section 32 of the IT Act, 2000? |
Certifying Authorities must display their licences in a public manner |
|
According to Section 32, what is required for the display of the licence by Certifying Authorities? |
It must be easily visible to the public, particularly on the Certifying Authority’s official website |
|
Under Section 33 of the IT Act, 2000, which entity is responsible for surrendering the license? |
The Certifying Authority |
|
Section 33 of the IT Act, 2000, allows the Certifying Authority to surrender its licence to: |
The Controller of Certifying Authorities |
|
In case of surrender of the licence, Section 33 of the IT Act mandates that the Certifying Authority must: |
Return the licence to the Controller in the prescribed manner |
|
According to Section 33 of the IT Act, 2000, if a Certifying Authority wishes to surrender its licence, it must: |
Follow the procedure laid down by the Controller |
|
Under Section 33 of the IT Act, 2000, what is the consequence of surrendering a licence for the Certifying Authority? |
It ceases to be authorized to issue digital certificates |
|
Section 33 of the IT Act, 2000, applies when a Certifying Authority: |
Wishes to voluntarily surrender its licence |
|
According to Section 33 of the IT Act, 2000, what action is required from a Certifying Authority before surrendering its licence? |
A written notice to the Controller of Certifying Authorities in the prescribed manner |
|
Which is NOT true under Section 33 of the IT Act, 2000, regarding surrender of a licence? |
The Certifying Authority must continue to operate until a formal order is issued |
|
In case of surrender of licence under Section 33, what does the Certifying Authority need to do? |
Surrender its license in accordance with the procedures specified by the Controller |
|
What is the effect of surrendering a licence under Section 33 of the IT Act, 2000? |
The Certifying Authority is no longer authorized to issue digital certificates |
|
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|
CHAPTER VII |
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|
ELECTRONIC SIGNATURE CERTIFICATES |
|
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According to Section 35 of the IT Act, 2000, which entity is responsible for issuing an electronic signature certificate? |
The Certifying Authority |
|
Under Section 35 of the IT Act, 2000, a Certifying Authority must issue an electronic signature certificate to: |
The applicant who meets the prescribed requirements |
|
What does Section 35 of the IT Act, 2000, state about the issuance of electronic signature certificates? |
A Certifying Authority must issue certificates in a prescribed manner as per the law |
|
Under Section 35 of the IT Act, who determines the procedures for issuing electronic signature certificates? |
The Controller of Certifying Authorities |
|
What is the primary role of a Certifying Authority under Section 35 of the IT Act, 2000? |
To verify the identity of the applicant and issue a certificate |
|
Under Section 35 of the IT Act, 2000, an electronic signature certificate is issued by the Certifying Authority after: |
Verifying the identity and other information of the applicant |
|
According to Section 35 of the IT Act, 2000, which is true regarding the issuance of electronic signature certificates? |
The Certifying Authority must issue the certificate after ensuring that the applicant meets the necessary requirements |
|
What must a Certifying Authority verify before issuing an electronic signature certificate according to Section 35 of the IT Act, 2000? |
The identity and other required details of the applicant |
|
Under Section 35 of the IT Act, 2000, what is required for a Certifying Authority to issue an electronic signature certificate? |
An application form and a fee |
|
In Section 35 of the IT Act, 2000, the Certifying Authority is obligated to issue the electronic signature certificate: |
Upon confirming that the applicant has met the required procedures and conditions |
|
According to Section 35 of the IT Act, 2000, which can a Certifying Authority issue upon request from the applicant? |
An electronic signature certificate |
|
Section 35 of the IT Act, 2000, requires the Certifying Authority to issue the electronic signature certificate in accordance with: |
The guidelines prescribed by the Controller of Certifying Authorities |
|
Under Section 36 of the IT Act, 2000, what must the Certifying Authority represent when issuing a Digital Signature Certificate? |
That the information in the certificate is accurate to the best of their knowledge |
|
According to Section 36 of the IT Act, 2000, which representations is made by the Certifying Authority upon issuing a Digital Signature Certificate? |
The Certifying Authority certifies that the information provided by the subscriber is correct to the best of its knowledge |
|
What is a Certifying Authority required to ensure under Section 36 of the IT Act, 2000, when issuing a Digital Signature Certificate? |
The accuracy of the information in the certificate to the best of their knowledge |
|
Under Section 36 of the IT Act, 2000, what does a Certifying Authority represent in relation to a Digital Signature Certificate? |
The information provided in the certificate has been verified thoroughly |
|
Under Section 37 of the IT Act, 2000, the Digital Signature Certificate can be suspended in which situation? |
If the subscriber’s private key is compromised or if there’s a breach of security |
|
According to Section 37 of the IT Act, 2000, who has the authority to suspend a Digital Signature Certificate? |
The Certifying Authority |
|
Which is a valid reason for the suspension of a Digital Signature Certificate under Section 37 of the IT Act, 2000? |
Compromise of the private key or security breach |
|
In accordance with Section 37 of the IT Act, 2000, a Digital Signature Certificate may be suspended if: |
The subscriber is suspected of using the certificate fraudulently |
|
According to Section 37 of the IT Act, 2000, what is the action that must be taken when a Digital Signature Certificate is suspended? |
The certificate becomes invalid temporarily |
|
Under Section 37 of the IT Act, 2000, who is notified when a Digital Signature Certificate is suspended? |
The subscriber, Certifying Authority, and the Controller of Certifying Authorities |
|
Section 37 of the IT Act, 2000, allows for suspension of a Digital Signature Certificate in cases where: |
The private key is compromised or security is breached |
|
Under Section 37 of the IT Act, 2000, which is TRUE regarding the suspension of a Digital Signature Certificate? |
Suspension occurs when there is a significant risk of misuse or fraud |
|
According to Section 37 of the IT Act, 2000, when a Digital Signature Certificate is suspended, it: |
Is temporarily invalid until the issue is resolved |
|
Under Section 38 of the IT Act, 2000, which is a valid reason for the revocation of a Digital Signature Certificate? |
The subscriber has requested the revocation due to security concerns |
|
According to Section 38 of the IT Act, 2000, who is responsible for revoking a Digital Signature Certificate? |
The Certifying Authority |
|
Under Section 38 of the IT Act, 2000, a Digital Signature Certificate can be revoked when: |
The subscriber’s private key is compromised |
|
Which can cause the Certifying Authority to revoke a Digital Signature Certificate according to Section 38 of the IT Act, 2000? |
The private key has been compromised |
|
Under Section 38 of the IT Act, 2000, when can a Digital Signature Certificate be revoked? |
When a Certifying Authority determines the subscriber has engaged in fraudulent activity |
|
According to Section 38 of the IT Act, 2000, which actions must be taken when a Digital Signature Certificate is revoked? |
The Certifying Authority must notify the Controller of Certifying Authorities and the subscriber |
|
What is the first step the Certifying Authority must take when deciding to revoke a Digital Signature Certificate under Section 38 of the IT Act, 2000? |
Notify the subscriber about the decision |
|
Under Section 38 of the IT Act, 2000, who must the Certifying Authority notify when a Digital Signature Certificate is revoked? |
Both the subscriber and the Controller of Certifying Authorities |
|
Section 38 of the IT Act, 2000, specifies that a Digital Signature Certificate can be revoked if: |
The subscriber is found using the certificate for illegal activities |
|
Under Section 38 of the IT Act, 2000, the revocation of a Digital Signature Certificate is: |
Temporary and can be reinstated under certain conditions |
|
Section 38 of the IT Act, 2000, empowers the Certifying Authority to revoke a Digital Signature Certificate if: |
The subscriber fails to keep their private key secure |
|
What action must be taken by the Certifying Authority under Section 38 of the IT Act, 2000, when a Digital Signature Certificate is revoked due to security compromise? |
Ensure that the certificate is rendered invalid for all uses |
|
According to Section 39 of the IT Act, 2000, who must be notified when a Digital Signature Certificate is suspended or revoked? |
The subscriber and the Controller of Certifying Authorities |
|
Under Section 39 of the IT Act, 2000, a Certifying Authority is required to send a notice of suspension or revocation to which parties? |
Both the subscriber and the Controller of Certifying Authorities |
|
Section 39 of the IT Act, 2000, requires the Certifying Authority to provide a notice to the subscriber: |
Immediately after the decision to suspend or revoke the certificate |
|
According to Section 39 of the IT Act, 2000, when is the notice of suspension or revocation of a Digital Signature Certificate issued? |
Before or immediately after the suspension or revocation |
|
Under Section 39 of the IT Act, 2000, the notice of suspension or revocation should include: |
Details of the reason for the suspension or revocation |
|
Which is TRUE regarding the notice of suspension or revocation under Section 39 of the IT Act, 2000? |
It must be provided to the subscriber and the Certifying Authority without delay |
|
Section 39 of the IT Act, 2000, mandates that the notice of suspension or revocation of a Digital Signature Certificate must be: |
Sent by email or physical mail to the subscriber and the Controller |
|
According to Section 39 of the IT Act, 2000, in the case of suspension or revocation of a Digital Signature Certificate, the notice must specify: |
The reason for the suspension or revocation |
|
Section 39 of the IT Act, 2000, requires that the notice of suspension or revocation is sent: |
Immediately upon the decision by the Certifying Authority |
|
|
|
|
CHAPTER VIII |
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|
DUTIES OF SUBSCRIBERS |
|
|
Under Section 40 of the IT Act, 2000, what is the purpose of generating a key pair? |
To allow secure data transmission |
|
According to Section 40 of the IT Act, 2000, which is involved in the process of generating a key pair? |
Creation of a private key and a public key |
|
Section 40 of the IT Act, 2000, specifies that the key pair generated consists of: |
One private key and one public key |
|
Under Section 40 of the IT Act, 2000, who is responsible for generating the key pair in a digital signature system? |
The Certifying Authority |
|
What must be done after generating the key pair, according to Section 40 of the IT Act, 2000? |
The private key should be kept securely by the subscriber |
|
Under Section 40 of the IT Act, 2000, the private key generated as part of the key pair should be: |
Kept securely and not shared with unauthorized parties |
|
According to Section 40 of the IT Act, 2000, what is the relationship between the private key and the public key in a key pair? |
The public key is used for encryption, and the private key is used for decryption |
|
Under Section 40 of the IT Act, 2000, the key pair must be: |
Unique and must not be shared between subscribers |
|
Section 40 of the IT Act, 2000, mandates that the Certifying Authority is responsible for ensuring: |
The secure storage of the subscriber’s private key |
|
Under Section 40 of the IT Act, 2000, the key pair can be used to: |
Encrypt messages and verify digital signatures |
|
Which is a valid statement according to Section 40 of the IT Act, 2000, regarding the generation of key pairs? |
The private key should be kept secure and should not be shared with anyone |
|
Section 40 of the IT Act, 2000, implies that the key pair is essential for: |
Performing digital signatures for authentication and verification |
|
According to Section 40 of the IT Act, 2000, if a subscriber's private key is compromised, they must: |
Immediately request the Certifying Authority to generate a new key pair |
|
In Section 40 of the IT Act, 2000, what is the role of the public key in the key pair generation process? |
It is available to everyone for encrypting messages to the owner of the private key |
|
Under Section 40 of the IT Act, 2000, the private key generated with the key pair must: |
Be kept secure, as it allows the subscriber to digitally sign messages |
|
What is the primary function of the key pair generated under Section 40 of the IT Act, 2000? |
To enable secure communication and verify the identity of the subscriber |
|
Under Section 40 of the IT Act, 2000, the Certifying Authority must ensure that the key pair is: |
Protected against unauthorized access and compromise |
|
Section 40 of the IT Act, 2000, specifies that key pair generation must be: |
Part of the registration process for obtaining a Digital Signature Certificate |
|
According to Section 40 of the IT Act, 2000, the public key generated as part of the key pair is: |
Shared with the general public to enable others to encrypt messages |
|
Section 40 of the IT Act, 2000, is concerned with: |
Outlining the process for generating key pairs for digital signatures |
|
According to Section 40A of the IT Act, 2000, the subscriber of an electronic signature certificate is responsible for: |
Ensuring that the private key is kept secure and not disclosed to others |
|
Under Section 40A of the IT Act, 2000, the subscriber is obligated to: |
Inform the Certifying Authority if their private key is compromised |
|
According to Section 40A of the IT Act, 2000, which is a duty of the subscriber of an electronic signature certificate? |
To notify the Certifying Authority of any changes in information provided for the certificate |
|
Section 40A of the IT Act, 2000, specifies that the subscriber must: |
Ensure the accuracy of the information provided during the certificate request process |
|
Under Section 40A of the IT Act, 2000, if a subscriber’s private key is lost or compromised, they must: |
Immediately inform the Certifying Authority and request revocation of the certificate |
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What is the responsibility of the subscriber under Section 40A of the IT Act, 2000, regarding the use of their electronic signature certificate? |
The subscriber should ensure that the certificate is used only by authorized persons |
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Section 40A of the IT Act, 2000, mandates that the subscriber must: |
Ensure that the information in the certificate is not altered or misused |
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According to Section 40A of the IT Act, 2000, the subscriber must take reasonable steps to ensure that: |
The electronic signature certificate is only used by the subscriber and not shared with unauthorized parties |
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Section 40A of the IT Act, 2000, states that the subscriber has the duty to: |
Keep the Certifying Authority informed of any misuse or unauthorized use of the certificate |
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Under Section 40A of the IT Act, 2000, the subscriber is obligated to: |
Ensure that no one else uses the electronic signature certificate without their permission |
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According to Section 40A of the IT Act, 2000, the subscriber must: |
Keep their private key secure and prevent its misuse |
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Under Section 40A of the IT Act, 2000, if there is a change in the details provided during the application of the electronic signature certificate, the subscriber is required to: |
Immediately notify the Certifying Authority of the changes |
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What is one of the duties of the subscriber under Section 40A of the IT Act, 2000, when using an electronic signature certificate? |
The subscriber must immediately revoke the certificate if the private key is lost or compromised |
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Under Section 40A of the IT Act, 2000, the subscriber must ensure that: |
They do not allow unauthorized access to their private key |
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According to Section 40A of the IT Act, 2000, if a subscriber is aware of any misuse of their electronic signature certificate, they must: |
Inform the Certifying Authority without delay |
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Section 40A of the IT Act, 2000, requires the subscriber to: |
Ensure the certificate is used only in accordance with applicable laws and regulations |
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Under Section 40A of the IT Act, 2000, the subscriber must notify the Certifying Authority about the loss of the private key: |
Immediately after discovering the loss |
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Section 40A of the IT Act, 2000, specifies that the subscriber has the responsibility to ensure that: |
They promptly inform the Certifying Authority in case of any compromise or breach of security |
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Under Section 40A of the IT Act, 2000, the subscriber must ensure that the certificate is used in a manner that: |
Prevents unauthorized access and misuse of the private key |
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Section 40A of the IT Act, 2000, establishes that the subscriber is responsible for: |
Ensuring that the key pair is used securely and within the scope of the certificate |
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According to Section 41 of the IT Act, 2000, a Digital Signature Certificate is considered acceptable when: |
It is issued by the Certifying Authority and complies with the rules |
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Section 41 of the IT Act, 2000, states that a Digital Signature Certificate issued by a Certifying Authority shall be accepted: |
If it complies with the prescribed regulations under the Act |
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Under Section 41 of the IT Act, 2000, which is a condition for the acceptance of a Digital Signature Certificate? |
The certificate must be issued by a Certifying Authority that is recognized by the Controller |
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Section 41 of the IT Act, 2000, grants legal recognition to a Digital Signature Certificate issued by a Certifying Authority, provided that: |
It is not expired or revoked |
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Under Section 41 of the IT Act, 2000, if a Digital Signature Certificate is issued in accordance with the regulations, it must be: |
Accepted by any person, subject to certain conditions |
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Which statements is correct under Section 41 of the IT Act, 2000, regarding the acceptance of Digital Signature Certificates? |
Digital Signature Certificates issued by a Certifying Authority are legally valid and must be accepted if they comply with the rules |
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Section 41 of the IT Act, 2000, makes it mandatory to accept a Digital Signature Certificate if it is: |
Issued by a Certifying Authority that complies with the law |
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According to Section 41 of the IT Act, 2000, the acceptance of a Digital Signature Certificate is contingent upon the certificate being: |
Valid and unrevoked |
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Under Section 41 of the IT Act, 2000, if a Digital Signature Certificate is used to authenticate a document, it must be: |
Issued by a Certifying Authority and legally accepted |
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According to Section 41 of the IT Act, 2000, a Digital Signature Certificate must be accepted as valid for all legal and commercial purposes when: |
It is issued by a Certifying Authority that complies with the IT Act, 2000 |
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Section 41 of the IT Act, 2000, ensures that Digital Signature Certificates are accepted as a legally valid form of: |
Signature for verification of documents |
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Under Section 41 of the IT Act, 2000, what happens if a Digital Signature Certificate does not comply with the prescribed regulations? |
It cannot be accepted and may be revoked or invalidated |
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According to Section 41 of the IT Act, 2000, the acceptance of a Digital Signature Certificate is subject to compliance with the requirements specified by: |
The Controller of Certifying Authorities and the regulations under the Act |
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Section 41 of the IT Act, 2000, requires that the Certifying Authority issues a Digital Signature Certificate that complies with the: |
Regulations and standards prescribed under the IT Act, 2000 |
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Under Section 41 of the IT Act, 2000, if a Digital Signature Certificate is found to be invalid, the Certifying Authority may: |
Revoke or suspend the certificate |
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Section 41 of the IT Act, 2000, applies to: |
Any Digital Signature Certificate issued by a Certifying Authority that complies with the Act |
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Under Section 41 of the IT Act, 2000, the Certifying Authority's role in the acceptance of a Digital Signature Certificate is: |
To ensure the certificate complies with the law and regulations |
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CHAPTER IX |
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PENALTIES, COMPENSATION AND ADJUDICATION |
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Under Section 43 of the IT Act, 2000, if a person damages a computer system or network without authorization, they are liable for: |
Penalty of up to ₹5,00,000 |
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Under Section 43 of the IT Act, 2000, which actions would result in a penalty? |
Hacking a computer system, Accessing a computer system without authorization, Destroying data on a computer system |
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Section 43 of the IT Act, 2000, covers damage or loss caused by unauthorized actions involving: |
Computer systems, networks, or databases |
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If a person causes damage to a computer, computer system, or network by introducing a virus, the penalty can be imposed under: |
Section 43 of the IT Act, 2000 |
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Section 43 of the IT Act, 2000, allows for a penalty for the unauthorized disclosure of personal data, which includes: |
Any unauthorized disclosure of personal data in a computer system or network |
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According to Section 43 of the IT Act, 2000, if someone damages the integrity or confidentiality of data stored in a computer system, the penalty is: |
₹1,00,000 to ₹5,00,000 |
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Under Section 43 of the IT Act, 2000, the penalty for unauthorized access to a computer system can be imposed if: |
The person has intentionally misused the authorized access |
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Section 43 of the IT Act, 2000, allows for a penalty for damaging a computer system through: |
Unauthorized access or data theft, Physical destruction of computer hardware, Unauthorized transfer of data |
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The penalty under Section 43 of the IT Act, 2000, is imposed for activities such as: |
Attacks that result in the destruction of data or data theft |
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Section 43 of the IT Act, 2000, specifies the penalty for introducing a computer virus or malware into a system. This penalty is: |
A fine up to ₹5,00,000 |
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Under Section 43 of the IT Act, 2000, the compensation for damage caused to a computer system can be: |
Paid to the affected individual or organization |
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According to Section 43 of the IT Act, 2000, which actions can result in a penalty for unauthorized access to a computer system? |
Accessing data without proper authorization, Destroying data through malicious intent, Installing a virus or malware in a system |
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Section 43 of the IT Act, 2000, imposes a penalty for accessing a computer system or network with the intention to: |
Cause harm or inconvenience to the owner or user |
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The penalty for causing damage to computer systems or data under Section 43 of the IT Act, 2000, is: |
A fine up to ₹5,00,000 and/or compensation to the victim |
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Under Section 43A of the IT Act, 2000, a body corporate is required to implement reasonable security practices to protect: |
Personal data of individuals |
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Section 43A of the IT Act, 2000, mandates that the body corporate is liable to pay compensation if: |
It fails to protect personal data from unauthorized access or disclosure, It loses personal data of individuals due to negligence, It fails to inform the data subject about data breaches |
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According to Section 43A of the IT Act, 2000, if a body corporate fails to protect personal data, they are liable to compensate the affected individual for: |
Both financial loss and loss of privacy |
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The liability for failure to protect personal data under Section 43A of the IT Act, 2000, applies to: |
Private organizations and bodies corporate |
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Under Section 43A of the IT Act, 2000, a body corporate must implement reasonable security practices to protect: |
Personal data and sensitive personal data |
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Section 43A of the IT Act, 2000, mandates compensation for the failure of a body corporate to protect data in case of: |
Unauthorized access or hacking of data, Data leakage or unauthorized disclosure of data, Accidental loss or damage of personal data |
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The compensation under Section 43A of the IT Act, 2000, is intended to cover: |
Financial loss, reputation damage, and privacy loss to the data subject |
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According to Section 43A of the IT Act, 2000, the security practices for protecting data must be: |
In line with international standards of cybersecurity |
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If a body corporate fails to protect sensitive personal data and it is stolen or accessed by unauthorized parties, Section 43A of the IT Act, 2000, makes the body corporate liable for: |
Compensation to the affected individuals |
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According to Section 43A of the IT Act, 2000, the compensation payable by a body corporate is due to the failure to protect: |
Personal and sensitive personal data of individuals |
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Under Section 43A of the IT Act, 2000, the body corporate is required to pay compensation if it is proven that: |
The body corporate has ignored cybersecurity guidelines, Data protection measures were inadequate or not implemented, There was a breach of confidentiality due to lack of secure access controls |
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According to Section 43A of the IT Act, 2000, the compensation for failure to protect data is determined by: |
The affected data subject or the court |
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Section 43A of the IT Act, 2000, requires a body corporate to implement measures that ensure the protection of personal data from: |
Unauthorized access, theft, or loss |
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Section 44 of the IT Act, 2000, applies to which entities? |
Individuals or organizations required to furnish information under the Act |
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Under Section 44 of the IT Act, 2000, failure to furnish information, return, or report within the prescribed time can result in a penalty for: |
Failure to comply with requests from the Controller |
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According to Section 44 of the IT Act, 2000, a penalty can be imposed on a person or entity if they fail to furnish the requested information within: |
30 days |
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The penalty for failure to furnish information, return, or report as per Section 44 of the IT Act, 2000, is imposed by the: |
Controller of Certifying Authorities |
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Section 44 of the IT Act, 2000, stipulates that the fine for failure to furnish information, return, or report can go up to: |
₹50,000 |
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If a person or entity fails to comply with the requirement of furnishing information as per Section 44 of the IT Act, 2000, the penalty is: |
Only a fine |
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Section 44 of the IT Act, 2000, empowers the authorities to impose a penalty for failure to comply with the provisions related to: |
Furnishing information, returns, or reports to the authorities as required under the Act |
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Which actions will NOT result in a penalty under Section 44 of the IT Act, 2000? |
Failing to secure personal data |
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In the case of failure to furnish information, return, or report under Section 44 of the IT Act, 2000, the penalty is: |
Only a fine not exceeding ₹50,000 |
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Section 44 of the IT Act, 2000, mandates that the penalty is for non-compliance in the submission of: |
Information or reports required by the Controller of Certifying Authorities under the Act |
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Under Section 46 of the IT Act, 2000, the authority empowered to adjudicate on matters relating to the provisions of the Act is the: |
Adjudicating Officer |
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According to Section 46 of the IT Act, 2000, the adjudicating officer is authorized to: |
Impose fines, Grant compensation to affected individuals, Order the suspension of services |
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Section 46 of the IT Act, 2000, deals with the power of an officer to: |
Adjudicate matters and impose penalties under the Act |
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Under Section 46 of the IT Act, 2000, the adjudicating officer has the authority to impose penalties for: |
Unauthorized access to computers and networks, Failure to comply with the requirements related to electronic signatures, Failure to comply with regulations on cybersecurity measures |
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Under Section 46 of the IT Act, 2000, an adjudicating officer has the power to: |
Conduct hearings, Issue orders or directions, Levy penalties for non-compliance |
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In Section 46 of the IT Act, 2000, who appoints the adjudicating officer? |
The Central Government |
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Section 46 of the IT Act, 2000, empowers the adjudicating officer to hear and adjudicate matters related to: |
Data breaches and unauthorized access to computer systems, Disputes related to digital signatures and certificates, Non-compliance with reporting requirements |
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According to Section 46 of the IT Act, 2000, the adjudicating officer can levy a fine if an entity: |
Fails to implement cybersecurity protocols, Violates provisions regarding electronic records, Fails to submit information when required |
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The adjudicating officer, as per Section 46 of the IT Act, 2000, can impose a fine or penalty in cases of: |
Non-compliance with data protection requirements, Non-submission of reports and returns, Unauthorized access to sensitive information |
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Under Section 46 of the IT Act, 2000, the adjudicating officer is required to follow procedures outlined in the: |
The IT Act, 2000 |
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Section 46 of the IT Act, 2000, allows the adjudicating officer to impose penalties for: |
Failure to maintain data protection standards |
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In the event of non-compliance with the provisions of the IT Act, 2000, the adjudicating officer can: |
Order penalties and fines for the offense |
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Section 46 of the IT Act, 2000, grants the adjudicating officer the power to: |
Order compensation to the affected parties |
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CHAPTER X |
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THE APPELLATE TRIBUNAL |
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Under Section 48 of the IT Act, 2000, the authority established to hear appeals against decisions made by the adjudicating officer is the: |
Cyber Appellate Tribunal |
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The Appellate Tribunal, as per Section 48 of the IT Act, 2000, is empowered to: |
Review penalties imposed by the adjudicating officer, Examine appeals related to violations of digital signature laws, Oversee appeals related to cybercrimes |
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Section 48 of the IT Act, 2000, applies to appeals made against orders issued by the: |
Adjudicating Officer |
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The Appellate Tribunal established under Section 48 of the IT Act, 2000, hears appeals in which cases? |
Decisions involving the issuance of digital certificates, Penalties imposed for failure to comply with the IT Act, Matters related to cybercrimes and digital data breaches |
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The Appellate Tribunal under Section 48 of the IT Act, 2000, has the authority to: |
Set aside the decision made by the adjudicating officer, Remand the case back to the adjudicating officer for further investigation, Modify the penalty or order as deemed fit |
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Under Section 48 of the IT Act, 2000, the Appellate Tribunal is required to function in accordance with the provisions of the: |
IT Act, 2000 |
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Which is the correct function of the Appellate Tribunal as per Section 48 of the IT Act, 2000? |
To hear appeals against decisions made by the adjudicating officer |
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The Appellate Tribunal, as per Section 48 of the IT Act, 2000, must consist of at least one judicial member and one technical member. What is the qualification for the judicial member? |
A judge of the High Court |
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Under Section 48 of the IT Act, 2000, the Appellate Tribunal has the authority to: |
Dismiss an appeal for lack of merit, Rehear a case in full, Issue interim orders in favor of the appellant |
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According to Section 48 of the IT Act, 2000, an individual may appeal to the Appellate Tribunal if they are aggrieved by: |
A decision or order of the adjudicating officer |
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Under Section 48 of the IT Act, 2000, the Appellate Tribunal may impose a penalty if the appeal is: |
Frivolous or made without sufficient grounds, Not filed within the prescribed time limit, Found to be without merit after proper review |
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Section 48 of the IT Act, 2000, provides for the formation of the Appellate Tribunal to ensure that: |
There is a mechanism for reviewing appeals against the adjudicating officer's orders |
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In case the Appellate Tribunal, as per Section 48 of the IT Act, 2000, passes an order, that order can be challenged in: |
The High Court |
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Which does the Appellate Tribunal have the power to review, as per Section 48 of the IT Act, 2000? |
Appeals against penalties and orders of the adjudicating officer |
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Under Section 57 of the IT Act, 2000, an appeal can be made to the Appellate Tribunal against an order passed by: |
The Adjudicating Officer |
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Section 57 of the IT Act, 2000, grants the right to appeal to the Appellate Tribunal in cases where the individual is aggrieved by: |
An order passed by the Adjudicating Officer |
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Under Section 57 of the IT Act, 2000, the Appellate Tribunal has the power to: |
Set aside the decision of the adjudicating officer, Confirm the penalty or order passed by the adjudicating officer, Modify the penalty or impose a different penalty |
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According to Section 57 of the IT Act, 2000, who can file an appeal to the Appellate Tribunal? |
Any person or party aggrieved by the adjudicating officer's order |
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The Appellate Tribunal, under Section 57 of the IT Act, 2000, is empowered to: |
Examine the legality and propriety of the adjudicating officer's order, Pass an order of stay on the adjudicating officer's decision, Provide compensation for damages as a result of non-compliance |
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In cases of non-compliance or violation under the IT Act, an aggrieved person may file an appeal to the Appellate Tribunal under Section 57 of the IT Act, 2000. What will be the main focus of the appeal? |
To review the penalty imposed by the adjudicating officer |
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Which can be the grounds for filing an appeal under Section 57 of the IT Act, 2000? |
If the adjudicating officer's decision is contrary to law, If the adjudicating officer's decision is arbitrary or unreasonable, If there is a substantial error in the decision |
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The Appellate Tribunal, under Section 57 of the IT Act, 2000, has the authority to: |
Issue directions to the adjudicating officer for further investigation, Modify the penalty imposed by the adjudicating officer, Set aside the order and order fresh adjudication |
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Section 57 of the IT Act, 2000, gives the Appellate Tribunal the power to hear appeals against which |
Orders passed by the adjudicating officer in relation to the violation of the IT Act |
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Under Section 57 of the IT Act, 2000, the Appellate Tribunal may: |
Stay the operation of the adjudicating officer’s order during the appeal process, Accept new evidence not presented before the adjudicating officer, Pass an order that has the same weight as a decision by the adjudicating officer |
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According to Section 57 of the IT Act, 2000, which is NOT a function of the Appellate Tribunal? |
To pass final judgments on matters of cybercrime |
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Under Section 57 of the IT Act, 2000, an appeal can be filed by an aggrieved party in relation to: |
Unauthorized disclosure of personal information, Non-compliance with the security requirements of the IT Act, Violations involving the failure to register digital signatures |
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The Appellate Tribunal, under Section 57 of the IT Act, 2000, is empowered to: |
Dismiss the appeal if it does not comply with statutory requirements, Confirm, modify, or overturn the order passed by the adjudicating officer, Order additional penalties based on the case severity |
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Under Section 57 of the IT Act, 2000, the Appellate Tribunal has the authority to: |
Refer the case back to the adjudicating officer for review, Pass interim orders while an appeal is pending, Take up cybercrime cases directly if the appeal is related to a cybercrime incident |
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Under Section 57 of the IT Act, 2000, which can be a reason for filing an appeal to the Appellate Tribunal? |
Unfair penalty imposed by the adjudicating officer, Violation of the IT Act not appropriately addressed, Failure to comply with security procedures |
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Section 57 of the IT Act, 2000, deals with appeals to the Appellate Tribunal in cases involving: |
Penalties for non-compliance with IT Act provisions, Disputes over digital signature registration, Data protection and security breaches |
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According to Section 58 of the IT Act, 2000, the Appellate Tribunal must follow the procedure prescribed by: |
The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 |
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Under Section 58 of the IT Act, 2000, the Appellate Tribunal has the power to: |
Take evidence on oath, summon witnesses, Examine documents and evidence |
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In accordance with Section 58 of the IT Act, 2000, the Appellate Tribunal can: |
Review the legality of the adjudicating officer’s order, Pass orders for the production of documents, set aside or modify the adjudicating officer’s decision |
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Section 58 of the IT Act, 2000, empowers the Appellate Tribunal to: |
Enforce its orders through judicial proceedings, approve decisions made by the adjudicating officer, Grant temporary relief to the appellant |
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According to Section 58 of the IT Act, 2000, the Appellate Tribunal may summon and examine: |
The adjudicating officer, Any witness or expert in the case, The person who has been penalized |
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Under Section 58 of the IT Act, 2000, the Appellate Tribunal has the authority to: |
Issue interim orders during the appeal process, Take action on non-compliance of its orders, Call for any additional information or documents |
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Section 58 of the IT Act, 2000, specifies that the Appellate Tribunal must consist of: |
At least one judicial member, At least one technical member, A combination of both judicial and technical members |
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Under Section 58 of the IT Act, 2000, the Appellate Tribunal can: |
Take assistance from experts in cyber law, Seek the opinion of the legal expert on cybercrime cases, Review the order passed by the adjudicating officer |
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Section 58 of the IT Act, 2000, gives the Appellate Tribunal the power to: |
Cancel the penalty imposed by the adjudicating officer, Modify the sentence or penalty imposed by the adjudicating officer, Direct a new investigation into the matter |
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Section 58 of the IT Act, 2000, grants the Appellate Tribunal the power to: |
Confirm or set aside the order passed by the adjudicating officer, Modify the penalties imposed by the adjudicating officer, Direct a new investigation |
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Under Section 58 of the IT Act, 2000, the Appellate Tribunal has the power to: |
Pass interim orders, Pass permanent orders to implement decisions, Review evidence and make independent judgments |
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According to Section 58 of the IT Act, 2000, the Appellate Tribunal has the authority to: |
Direct the production of evidence or documents from parties, Overturn orders based on new evidence, Pass an order to enforce compliance |
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Under Section 58 of the IT Act, 2000, the Appellate Tribunal can call for records from the: |
Adjudicating Officer |
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According to Section 58 of the IT Act, 2000, the Appellate Tribunal’s powers to hear appeals and pass orders are: |
Exclusive to the Appellate Tribunal and not subject to review |
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Under Section 59 of the Information Technology Act, 2000, a person has the right to: |
Be represented by an advocate in any appeal, Appoint any person as their legal representative, Represent themselves in an adjudicating process |
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Section 59 of the IT Act, 2000, ensures that individuals have the right to: |
Be heard in person or through a representative, Be represented by a legal professional during proceedings, Appoint any person to represent them in the Appellate Tribunal |
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Under Section 59 of the Information Technology Act, 2000, legal representation can be made by: |
An advocate or legal practitioner |
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Section 59 of the IT Act, 2000, applies to all cases before: |
The Adjudicating Officer, The Appellate Tribunal, The Cyber Appellate Tribunal |
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Under Section 59 of the IT Act, 2000, an individual or entity has the right to legal representation during: |
Adjudication of cases related to violations of the IT Act |
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Section 59 of the IT Act, 2000, grants the right to legal representation in cases where the individual is: |
Appealing an order from the Adjudicating Officer |
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According to Section 59 of the IT Act, 2000, the appointed legal representative in proceedings can be: |
A certified advocate, A person with technical knowledge of the case, Any individual authorized by the aggrieved party |
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Under Section 59 of the IT Act, 2000, what is the primary function of the legal representation during proceedings? |
To defend the aggrieved party’s interests, To submit additional evidence, To advise the individual on legal rights and procedures |
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Section 59 of the IT Act, 2000, grants the right to legal representation to individuals who are: |
Being penalized for data protection violations, Appealing decisions related to digital signature violations, Contesting orders or penalties imposed under the IT Act |
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According to Section 59 of the IT Act, 2000, who can represent an individual in an adjudication or appeal process? |
A person authorized by the individual |
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Section 59 of the IT Act, 2000, allows an individual to be represented by: |
A person authorized by the individual to represent them in proceedings |
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In terms of Section 59 of the IT Act, 2000, if an individual does not wish to be represented by an advocate, they can: |
Appear in person during the proceedings |
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Under Section 59 of the IT Act, 2000, the right to legal representation applies to individuals involved in: |
Cybercrime cases, Penalty imposition cases, Any proceedings under the IT Act |
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Under Section 59 of the IT Act, 2000, a legal representative can: |
Act on behalf of the aggrieved party, Present arguments before the adjudicating officer or tribunal, Submit documents and evidence on behalf of the party |
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Under Section 59 of the IT Act, 2000, the appointed legal representative may: |
Present oral arguments on behalf of the party, Prepare written submissions for the party, Assist in gathering supporting evidence |
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Section 59 of the IT Act, 2000, provides individuals with the right to legal representation during: |
Challenges to penalties imposed by the adjudicating officer |
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According to Section 59 of the IT Act, 2000, a party to the proceedings can be represented by: |
An advocate, Any authorized representative, Any person chosen by the individual |
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Under Section 59 of the IT Act, 2000, which is true regarding the right to legal representation? |
A person can represent themselves if they do not wish to appoint a legal representative |
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Section 59 of the IT Act, 2000, ensures that the individual has the right to legal representation at any stage of the proceedings, including: |
Pre-hearing consultation, Submitting the appeal, Post-hearing submissions |
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Section 60 of the Information Technology Act, 2000 deals with the limitation for: |
Instituting a legal proceeding or complaint |
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Under Section 60 of the Information Technology Act, 2000, a limitation period can be extended if: |
The applicant provides a valid reason |
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The limitation period specified under Section 60 of the IT Act is applicable to: |
Suits or legal proceedings under the IT Act |
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According to Section 60 of the Information Technology Act, 2000, the limitation period is calculated from the date of: |
Knowledge of the offence, Date of commission of the offence, Cause of action |
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Under Section 60 of the IT Act, 2000, which is true regarding the limitation period for a complaint? |
The limitation period starts from the date the person knows of the offence |
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Section 60 of the IT Act, 2000 provides that in case of continuing offences, the limitation period will: |
Be calculated from the last date the offence occurred |
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As per Section 60 of the IT Act, 2000, the limitation period can be extended in the case of: |
Fraudulent transactions, Damage caused to computer systems |
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According to Section 60 of the IT Act, 2000, if an individual misses the limitation period for filing a suit or appeal, the court or tribunal may: |
Accept the case if good reason is provided for delay |
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According to Section 60 of the IT Act, 2000, a limitation period can be extended if: |
The appellant can show valid reasons for the delay |
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Under Section 61 of the IT Act, 2000, which is true regarding the jurisdiction of civil courts? |
Civil courts are excluded from cases covered under the IT Act |
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Section 61 of the Information Technology Act, 2000 specifies that civil courts will not have jurisdiction in which cases? |
Digital signature violations, Appeal against a penalty imposed under the IT Act, Cases related to offenses under the IT Act |
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According to Section 61 of the IT Act, 2000, civil courts are not empowered to entertain or resolve disputes related to: |
Cybercrimes, Data privacy violations, Electronic contracts |
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Under Section 61 of the Information Technology Act, 2000, in matters involving the violation of the Act, the jurisdiction lies with: |
The Adjudicating Officer or the Appellate Tribunal |
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As per Section 61 of the IT Act, 2000, the jurisdiction of civil courts is excluded in the case of: |
Actions taken under the IT Act by the Adjudicating Officer, Registration of electronic signatures, Any dispute regarding cybercrimes and data breaches |
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Section 61 of the IT Act, 2000, excludes civil courts from jurisdiction over disputes arising out of: |
Transactions involving digital records, Non-compliance with the Act’s provisions, Actions taken by the Controller of Certifying Authorities |
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According to Section 61 of the Information Technology Act, 2000, if a matter falls under the scope of the IT Act, it cannot be addressed in: |
Civil courts |
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Under Section 61 of the IT Act, 2000, if a dispute is related to electronic signatures, it will be adjudicated by: |
The Appellate Tribunal |
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According to Section 61 of the Information Technology Act, 2000, the civil court’s jurisdiction is excluded over matters involving: |
Digital contracts, Cybercrimes like hacking and data theft, Penalties for non-compliance with the Act |
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Section 61 of the IT Act, 2000, states that civil courts do not have jurisdiction over matters concerning: |
Any violation under the Information Technology Act |
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Under Section 61 of the IT Act, 2000, the jurisdiction to handle cyber-related disputes lies with: |
The Adjudicating Officer, The Appellate Tribunal |
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According to Section 61 of the IT Act, 2000, the jurisdiction of civil courts is not available for matters such as: |
Criminal offenses under the IT Act |
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Under Section 61 of the IT Act, 2000, civil courts will not hear cases regarding: |
Digital signature certificates, Protection of electronic data, Violations of the IT Act provisions by the government |
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Which is excluded from the jurisdiction of civil courts according to Section 61 of the IT Act, 2000? |
A dispute related to cybersecurity, A case concerning a violation of digital contract terms, A claim for compensation for damage caused by hacking |
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Section 62 of the Information Technology Act, 2000 provides for an appeal to the High Court against which? |
Orders passed by the Appellate Tribunal |
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According to Section 62 of the IT Act, 2000, an appeal against the decision of the Appellate Tribunal must be filed in: |
The High Court |
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Under Section 62 of the Information Technology Act, 2000, the time frame for filing an appeal to the High Court is: |
60 days from the date of the order |
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Which is TRUE regarding an appeal to the High Court under Section 62 of the IT Act, 2000? |
The appeal must be made based on a substantial question of law |
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As per Section 62 of the IT Act, 2000, the High Court may admit an appeal against the decision of the Appellate Tribunal if: |
It involves a substantial question of law |
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According to Section 62 of the IT Act, 2000, the High Court's decision on an appeal from the Appellate Tribunal is: |
Final and binding |
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Under Section 62 of the Information Technology Act, 2000, the High Court’s power in the appeal is limited to: |
Deciding on substantial questions of law |
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In Section 62 of the IT Act, 2000, it is mentioned that an appeal to the High Court can be filed by: |
Any person aggrieved by the order of the Appellate Tribunal |
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Under Section 62 of the IT Act, 2000, the High Court has the power to: |
Set aside or modify the order of the Appellate Tribunal |
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According to Section 62 of the IT Act, 2000, the High Court has the authority to: |
Review only the legal aspects |
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Under Section 62 of the IT Act, 2000, if the appeal is filed before the High Court, it must be filed in: |
The High Court having jurisdiction |
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The High Court, in an appeal under Section 62 of the IT Act, 2000, can: |
Set aside the order of the Appellate Tribunal if it finds a legal error |
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Under Section 62 of the Information Technology Act, 2000, which is a condition for the appeal to the High Court? |
The appeal must be on a substantial question of law |
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According to Section 62 of the Information Technology Act, 2000, when filing an appeal to the High Court, the appellant is required to: |
Explain why the Appellate Tribunal's decision is wrong |
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The High Court’s decision on an appeal filed under Section 62 of the IT Act, 2000, is: |
Final and binding on all parties |
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As per Section 62 of the IT Act, 2000, if the High Court dismisses the appeal, the decision of the Appellate Tribunal will: |
Stand confirmed and be final |
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According to Section 62 of the IT Act, 2000, who is authorized to file an appeal to the High Court? |
Any person aggrieved by the decision of the Appellate Tribunal |
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Under Section 62 of the IT Act, 2000, the High Court is only concerned with: |
Legal questions arising from the Appellate Tribunal’s decision |
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Section 63 of the Information Technology Act, 2000 deals with: |
Compounding of contraventions |
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According to Section 63 of the IT Act, 2000, a contravention can be compounded by: |
The Adjudicating Officer |
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The process of compounding under Section 63 of the IT Act, 2000 allows the contravention to be: |
Settled by mutual consent without prosecution |
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Under Section 63 of the Information Technology Act, 2000, the term 'compounding' refers to: |
A settlement or fine for violating the provisions of the IT Act |
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According to Section 63 of the IT Act, 2000, who has the authority to compound a contravention under this Act? |
The Adjudicating Officer |
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The power to compound a contravention under Section 63 of the IT Act, 2000, is vested with: |
The Adjudicating Officer |
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Under Section 63 of the IT Act, 2000, the Adjudicating Officer may compound a contravention in exchange for: |
Payment of a fine |
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Which is a requirement for compounding under Section 63 of the IT Act, 2000? |
Both parties must agree to the settlement |
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What happens after a contravention is compounded under Section 63 of the IT Act, 2000? |
Prosecution of the contravention is dropped |
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Under Section 63 of the IT Act, 2000, what is the maximum penalty for a contravention that can be imposed if it is not compounded? |
The penalty specified under the section of the Act that governs the contravention |
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Section 64 of the Information Technology Act, 2000 deals with the: |
Recovery of penalty or compensation |
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Section 64 of the IT Act, 2000 allows the penalty or compensation to be recovered by: |
Using the provisions of the Civil Procedure Code |
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If a person does not pay the penalty or compensation under Section 64, it can be recovered through: |
The process of attachment and sale of property |
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According to Section 64 of the IT Act, 2000, the recovery of penalty or compensation is done under the same procedure as: |
The recovery of a civil debt |
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Section 64 of the IT Act, 2000, enables the government to recover penalties or compensation from a person by: |
Using the Civil Procedure Code for recovery |
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If a defaulter fails to pay the penalty or compensation under Section 64, they may be: |
Subjected to the Civil Procedure Code recovery process |
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Section 64 of the IT Act, 2000, applies to penalties or compensation imposed by whom? |
The Adjudicating Officer |
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Under Section 64 of the IT Act, 2000, the civil recovery process for penalties or compensation is initiated by: |
The Adjudicating Officer who imposed the penalty |
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Section 64 of the IT Act, 2000, empowers the Adjudicating Officer to recover penalties or compensation from a defaulter by: |
Seizing assets and properties through legal procedure |
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Under Section 64 of the IT Act, 2000, if the penalty or compensation is not paid by the violator, the next step is to: |
Recover it through attachment and sale of the violator's property |
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CHAPTER XI |
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OFFENCES |
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Section 65 of the Information Technology Act, 2000 deals with the offense of: |
Tampering with computer source documents |
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According to Section 65 of the IT Act, 2000, a person is said to have tampered with computer source documents if they: |
Alter, destroy, or conceal any computer source code |
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Under Section 65 of the IT Act, 2000, the term "computer source document" refers to: |
The software program written in code |
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Section 65 of the Information Technology Act, 2000 makes it an offense to tamper with: |
Computer source code or program |
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Section 65 of the IT Act, 2000 criminalizes which type of alteration to computer source code? |
Unauthorized changes or concealment of code |
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The penalty for tampering with computer source documents under Section 65 of the IT Act, 2000, includes: |
Imprisonment for up to 3 years or a fine or both |
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Section 66 of the Information Technology Act, 2000 deals with: |
Computer-related offenses |
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Under Section 66 of the IT Act, 2000, if a person intentionally or knowingly commits an offense related to computers, they are liable for: |
Imprisonment or fine or both |
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Section 66 of the IT Act, 2000, covers which type of computer-related offense? |
Unauthorized access to a computer system or network |
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Which is NOT classified as a computer-related offense under Section 66 of the IT Act, 2000? |
Deleting the browsing history of a computer |
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Under Section 66 of the IT Act, 2000, hacking is defined as: |
Unauthorized access to or use of a computer system |
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What is the maximum imprisonment under Section 66 of the IT Act, 2000, for a computer-related offense? |
3 years |
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A person convicted under Section 66 of the IT Act, 2000, can be fined up to: |
₹5 lakh |
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Section 66 of the IT Act, 2000, provides a penalty for offenses such as: |
Hacking and data theft |
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Which is a punishable offense under Section 66 of the IT Act, 2000? |
Accessing another person’s email without permission |
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Section 66 of the IT Act, 2000, includes the offense of: |
Sending malicious code or viruses |
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Which actions could lead to prosecution under Section 66 of the IT Act, 2000? |
Unauthorized access to a computer system |
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Which is true about Section 66 of the IT Act, 2000? |
It applies to individuals who commit offenses related to computer systems, such as hacking and unauthorized access |
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Under Section 66 of the IT Act, 2000, a fine is imposed for offenses like: |
Unauthorized access or destruction of computer data |
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Section 66A of the Information Technology Act, 2000 punishes the sending of offensive messages through: |
Electronic communication service, etc. |
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According to Section 66A of the IT Act, 2000, sending offensive or menacing messages through communication services can result in: |
Imprisonment for up to 3 years and/or fine |
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Which would be punishable under Section 66A of the IT Act, 2000? |
Sending a threatening email to an individual, Posting an offensive comment on a blog, Sending a fake job offer via text message |
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Under Section 66A of the IT Act, 2000, sending offensive messages with the intent to cause harm, nuisance, or insult can lead to: |
Imprisonment for up to 3 years and/or a fine |
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Under Section 66A of the IT Act, 2000, which type of messages is punishable? |
Messages that are offensive or threatening |
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Section 66A of the IT Act, 2000 applies to offensive messages sent through: |
Email, SMS, or social media |
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Section 66A of the IT Act, 2000 punishes sending offensive messages with the purpose of: |
Harassment, Annoyance, Insulting someone |
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Section 66A of the IT Act, 2000 does NOT apply to: |
Messages sent for commercial advertising |
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Which actions is NOT covered under Section 66A of the IT Act, 2000? |
Sending commercial promotional messages |
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What is the key requirement for the offense to fall under Section 66A of the IT Act, 2000? |
The message must be offensive |
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Section 66A of the IT Act, 2000 applies to sending offensive messages with intent to: |
Threaten, Annoy, Insult |
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Under Section 66A, an offense is committed when the sender: |
Sends a threatening or offensive message with malicious intent |
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Section 66A of the IT Act, 2000, allows punishment for sending offensive messages with the intent to: |
Annoy, inconvenience, or insult |
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Section 66B of the Information Technology Act, 2000 deals with the punishment for: |
Dishonestly receiving stolen computer resources or communication devices |
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Under Section 66B of the IT Act, 2000, the punishment for dishonestly receiving stolen computer resources or communication devices includes: |
Imprisonment for up to 3 years and/or fine |
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Section 66B of the IT Act, 2000, applies when a person dishonestly receives: |
Stolen computer resources or communication devices |
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According to Section 66B of the IT Act, 2000, receiving stolen computer resources or communication devices dishonestly is punishable by: |
Imprisonment for up to 3 years or a fine or both |
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The main requirement for an offense under Section 66B of the IT Act, 2000, is that the individual must receive: |
Stolen computer resources or communication devices |
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Section 66B of the IT Act, 2000, covers which situation? |
Dishonestly receiving stolen computer hardware, software, or communication devices |
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What is the maximum term of imprisonment for the offense defined under Section 66B of the IT Act, 2000? |
3 years |
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Under Section 66B of the IT Act, 2000, receiving stolen computer resources or communication devices dishonestly results in: |
Imprisonment for up to 3 years or a fine or both |
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Section 66B of the IT Act, 2000, applies to individuals who: |
Receive stolen computer resources or communication devices knowingly or unknowingly |
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Dishonestly receiving stolen computer resources or communication devices can be considered an offense under Section 66B of the IT Act, 2000 if: |
The person is aware that the resources are stolen, The person uses the stolen device for personal benefit, The stolen item is resold |
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Section 66C of the Information Technology Act, 2000 deals with the punishment for: |
Identity theft |
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According to Section 66C of the IT Act, 2000, identity theft is defined as the act of: |
Using someone's personal information without their consent |
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Under Section 66C of the IT Act, 2000, the punishment for committing identity theft includes: |
Imprisonment for up to 3 years and/or a fine |
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What is the maximum imprisonment prescribed under Section 66C for identity theft under the IT Act, 2000? |
3 years |
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Section 66C of the IT Act, 2000 is concerned with the punishment for the unlawful use of another person’s: |
Identity information |
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What is the fine imposed under Section 66C of the IT Act, 2000 for identity theft? |
It may include a fine or both fine and imprisonment |
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According to Section 66C of the IT Act, 2000, identity theft includes using another person's identity for: |
Financial fraud, Creating a false email account, Fraudulent transactions |
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The offense under Section 66C of the IT Act, 2000 involves using someone’s personal information without their consent to: |
Open bank accounts, Commit fraud, Gain financial benefits |
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Section 66C of the IT Act, 2000 can apply when someone uses another person's information to: |
Commit any form of identity fraud |
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Section 66D of the Information Technology Act, 2000, deals with the punishment for: |
Cheating by personation using computer resources |
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Under Section 66D of the IT Act, 2000, the act of cheating by personation involves: |
Using someone else's identity to deceive or mislead others |
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Section 66D of the IT Act, 2000, specifically applies when the cheating by personation is done using: |
Computer resources |
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What is the punishment under Section 66D of the IT Act, 2000, for cheating by personation using computer resources? |
Imprisonment for up to 3 years and a fine |
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Cheating by personation using computer resources, as per Section 66D of the IT Act, 2000, can result in: |
Imprisonment for up to 3 years or fine, or both |
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In Section 66D of the IT Act, 2000, "personation" refers to: |
Pretending to be someone else to deceive or cheat |
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According to Section 66D of the IT Act, 2000, if a person commits cheating by personation using computer resources, they can be: |
Imprisoned for up to 3 years, or fined, or both |
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Section 66D of the IT Act, 2000, is applicable when someone uses computer resources to: |
Deceive others by pretending to be another person |
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Under Section 66D of the IT Act, 2000, which is an example of cheating by personation? |
Hacking into someone's email account and sending emails pretending to be them |
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Section 66D applies if a person dishonestly: |
Deceives someone by pretending to be another person through computer resources |
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Which actions can be punishable under Section 66D of the IT Act, 2000? |
Sending fraudulent emails pretending to be from a bank, Using a fake identity to open an online account |
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According to Section 66D of the IT Act, 2000, the act of personation through computer resources is considered as: |
A criminal offense |
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The offense under Section 66D of the IT Act, 2000, is punishable if the person has: |
Gained financial benefits through personation, Intentionally caused harm to someone else, Used computer resources to mislead others |
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Section 66D of the IT Act, 2000, applies when someone pretends to be: |
A person or entity to gain financial or other benefits |
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The punishment for the offense defined under Section 66D can include: |
Both imprisonment and fine |
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In Section 66D of the IT Act, 2000, "cheating by personation" is when: |
Someone impersonates another person for malicious purposes |
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Under Section 66D of the IT Act, 2000, which is a key element for the offense of cheating by personation? |
The person must have gained a financial benefit or caused loss to others |
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The main purpose of Section 66D of the IT Act, 2000, is to: |
Penalize the use of computer resources for impersonation and deception |
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Section 66D of the IT Act, 2000 applies to cases where the offender uses computer resources to: |
Commit fraud by pretending to be someone else |
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Section 66E of the Information Technology Act, 2000, deals with the punishment for: |
Violation of privacy |
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Under Section 66E of the IT Act, 2000, violation of privacy refers to: |
Sharing someone's personal images or videos without consent |
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Section 66E of the IT Act, 2000, applies when someone captures, publishes, or transmits the image or video of another person without their consent in situations where: |
The person has a reasonable expectation of privacy |
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What is the punishment under Section 66E of the IT Act, 2000, for the violation of privacy? |
Imprisonment for up to 1 year and/or a fine |
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According to Section 66E of the IT Act, 2000, the punishment for violation of privacy includes: |
Imprisonment for up to 1 year or a fine of up to ₹1 lakh, or both |
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Section 66E of the IT Act, 2000, is primarily designed to protect a person’s: |
Privacy |
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Under Section 66E of the IT Act, 2000, violation of privacy occurs when a person: |
Uses another person's private information for commercial purposes, Reveals personal information of someone without consent, Captures and shares an image or video of another person without their consent |
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Section 66E of the IT Act, 2000 applies to cases where: |
Someone publishes or transmits an image or video of another person without their consent |
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Under Section 66E of the IT Act, 2000, the violation of privacy includes: |
Capturing the private images or videos of a person without their knowledge, Publishing private photos or videos of a person without their consent, Transmitting such images or videos for wrongful purposes |
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According to Section 66E of the IT Act, 2000, the person whose privacy is violated must have: |
An expectation of privacy |
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Section 66F of the Information Technology Act, 2000, deals with the punishment for: |
Cyber terrorism |
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Under Section 66F of the IT Act, 2000, cyber terrorism refers to: |
Using computer resources to cause fear or harm to individuals or the country |
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Section 66F of the IT Act, 2000, punishes acts that threaten the sovereignty, integrity, and security of: |
The country |
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Under Section 66F of the IT Act, 2000, an individual is punished for cyber terrorism if they: |
Use computer systems to cause damage to national security |
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What is the punishment for cyber terrorism under Section 66F of the IT Act, 2000? |
Imprisonment for life and a fine |
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Section 66F of the IT Act, 2000, applies when the act of cyber terrorism causes: |
Damage to the sovereignty and integrity of India |
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Cyber terrorism under Section 66F of the IT Act, 2000, includes acts that: |
Damage computer systems, Disrupt or destroy the operation of computer systems or networks, Harm the security and integrity of the nation |
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According to Section 66F of the IT Act, 2000, which is a clear example of cyber terrorism? |
Using a virus to disable a national defense system |
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Under Section 66F of the IT Act, 2000, an individual can be punished if they use computer resources to: |
Endanger national security by creating chaos or panic |
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In Section 66F of the IT Act, 2000, cyber terrorism is classified as: |
A criminal offense |
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Section 67 of the Information Technology Act, 2000, deals with the punishment for: |
Publishing or transmitting obscene material in electronic form |
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Under Section 67 of the IT Act, 2000, which is considered an offense? |
Publishing obscene material on social media platforms, Sharing offensive or sexually explicit content through email, Transmitting obscene material via instant messaging |
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The punishment under Section 67 of the IT Act, 2000, for publishing or transmitting obscene material in electronic form is: |
Imprisonment for up to 2 years and a fine |
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The maximum punishment under Section 67 of the IT Act, 2000, for publishing or transmitting obscene material electronically can include: |
Imprisonment for 5 years and a fine |
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Under Section 67 of the IT Act, 2000, "obscene material" includes: |
Child pornography, Explicit sexual content, Material likely to corrupt the morals of any person |
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Which actions would be punishable under Section 67 of the IT Act, 2000? |
Posting an adult video on a website, Sharing a nude image without consent, Distributing explicit content through a messaging app |
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The penalty for transmitting or publishing obscene material under Section 67 of the IT Act, 2000, can be: |
Imprisonment for up to 2 years and a fine |
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Section 67 of the IT Act, 2000, aims to prevent the distribution of which types of content? |
Obscene material such as pornographic content |
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According to Section 67 of the IT Act, 2000, if a person publishes obscene material electronically for the first time, the punishment may include: |
Imprisonment for up to 2 years |
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If a person repeats the offense of publishing or transmitting obscene material, the punishment under Section 67 of the IT Act, 2000, increases to: |
Imprisonment for 5 years and a fine |
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Section 67 of the IT Act, 2000, applies to obscene material that is transmitted: |
Over digital platforms or online services |
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Which would NOT be classified as "obscene material" under Section 67 of the IT Act, 2000? |
A movie with non-sexual adult themes |
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What is the main objective of Section 67 of the IT Act, 2000? |
To prevent the circulation of harmful or obscene content |
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If a person is found guilty of publishing obscene material electronically under Section 67 of the IT Act, 2000, which is NOT a potential consequence? |
A public apology |
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Section 67 of the IT Act, 2000, is primarily concerned with: |
Preventing the publication or transmission of obscene material online |
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Section 67A of the IT Act, 2000, applies to the transmission or publication of material in: |
Electronic form |
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Under Section 67A of the IT Act, 2000, sexually explicit material is defined as: |
Material that depicts sexual acts or behaviors, Material intended to promote or depict sexual activity in a vulgar manner, Material that is offensive and causes harm to the public moral order |
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What is the primary purpose of Section 67A of the IT Act, 2000? |
To prevent the transmission of sexually explicit content in electronic form |
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Section 67A of the IT Act, 2000, was enacted to address the publication or transmission of material that contains sexually explicit acts that are: |
Intended to harm individuals or communities, Created without consent, Likely to harm public decency or morality |
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According to Section 67A of the IT Act, 2000, a person found guilty of transmitting sexually explicit content can face: |
Imprisonment for 3 to 5 years, with or without a fine |
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Under Section 67A of the IT Act, 2000, the offense is: |
A cognizable offense |
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Which types of content is punishable under Section 67A of the IT Act, 2000? |
Pornographic images shared without consent, Explicit videos uploaded to websites, Text messages containing sexually explicit language |
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Section 67A of the IT Act, 2000, applies to all forms of electronic transmission including: |
Email, Social media, Websites |
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The penalty for the first-time offense under Section 67A of the IT Act, 2000, can include: |
Imprisonment for up to 3 years and/or a fine |
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In which case can an individual be exempted from punishment under Section 67A of the IT Act, 2000? |
If the person has a defense proving that the content was not intended to harm or offend |
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Under Section 67A of the IT Act, 2000, which materials could potentially be classified as sexually explicit content? |
Videos depicting sexual acts, Pictures containing nudity intended to stimulate sexual desire, Audio content with explicit sexual language |
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Section 67B of the Information Technology Act, 2000, deals with the punishment for: |
Publishing or transmitting material depicting children in sexually explicit acts |
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According to Section 67B of the IT Act, 2000, the punishment for publishing or transmitting material depicting children in sexually explicit acts includes: |
Imprisonment for 7 years and a fine |
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What is the minimum imprisonment term under Section 67B of the IT Act, 2000, for publishing or transmitting material depicting children in sexually explicit acts? |
5 years |
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Which is punishable under Section 67B of the IT Act, 2000? |
Publishing or transmitting material depicting children in sexually explicit acts |
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Section 67B of the IT Act, 2000, specifically targets the publication or transmission of material that depicts: |
Children in sexually explicit acts |
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The punishment for the first offense under Section 67B of the IT Act, 2000, for transmitting material depicting children in sexually explicit acts is: |
Imprisonment for 5 to 7 years and/or a fine |
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The offense under Section 67B of the IT Act, 2000, is: |
A cognizable offense |
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Section 67B of the IT Act, 2000, applies to the publication or transmission of material that: |
Depicts children engaged in sexually explicit activities |
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What is the maximum punishment under Section 67B of the IT Act, 2000, for transmitting material depicting children in sexually explicit acts? |
7 years imprisonment and/or fine |
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Section 67C of the Information Technology Act, 2000, requires intermediaries to preserve and retain information for: |
As prescribed by the Government |
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Under Section 67C of the IT Act, 2000, intermediaries must retain information to assist authorities in cases of: |
Cybercrimes and illegal activities |
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The period for which intermediaries are required to preserve information under Section 67C of the IT Act, 2000, depends on: |
Government regulations and instructions |
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Section 67C of the IT Act, 2000, applies to: |
All intermediaries handling electronic records |
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Which is an obligation of intermediaries under Section 67C of the IT Act, 2000? |
They must preserve and retain data for a prescribed period |
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What type of information do intermediaries need to preserve under Section 67C of the IT Act, 2000? |
Any electronic information related to their services |
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The government can require intermediaries under Section 67C of the IT Act to preserve information for a period of: |
As specified by the government or law enforcement |
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According to Section 67C of the IT Act, 2000, intermediaries are required to preserve information that is: |
Related to illegal activities and offenses |
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Under Section 67C of the IT Act, 2000, intermediaries include: |
Online service providers, Social media platforms, Internet service providers |
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Under Section 67C, intermediaries must preserve information that could assist in the investigation of: |
Cybercrimes |
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If an intermediary fails to comply with the preservation and retention requirements under Section 67C of the IT Act, 2000, they could face: |
A fine or imprisonment as prescribed by law |
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Which is true under Section 67C of the IT Act, 2000? |
Intermediaries must retain data as per government guidelines for a certain period |
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Section 67C of the IT Act, 2000, mandates the retention of information by intermediaries to ensure compliance with: |
Government regulations |
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Section 68 of the Information Technology Act, 2000, grants power to the Controller to: |
Issue directions to regulate electronic records |
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The Controller, under Section 68 of the IT Act, 2000, has the authority to give directions in which context: |
To ensure compliance with security practices |
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Which entities can receive directions from the Controller under Section 68 of the IT Act, 2000? |
Certifying Authorities, Intermediaries providing online services, Service providers of electronic records |
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The Controller, under Section 68, may give directions to ensure the protection of: |
Information security and compliance |
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Under Section 68 of the IT Act, 2000, the directions given by the Controller are meant to: |
Enhance the compliance of electronic records and digital signatures |
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Section 68 of the IT Act empowers the Controller to issue directions related to: |
Security procedures for handling electronic records |
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Directions under Section 68 of the IT Act, 2000, are applicable to: |
All intermediaries, service providers, and certifying authorities |
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What is the primary aim of the Controller’s directions under Section 68 of the IT Act, 2000? |
To ensure compliance with security standards for electronic records |
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The Controller can issue directions under Section 68 of the IT Act to enforce: |
The implementation of security practices for electronic records |
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Under Section 69 of the Information Technology Act, 2000, the government has the power to issue directions for the interception or monitoring of: |
Any information through computer resources |
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Which authority is empowered under Section 69 of the IT Act, 2000, to issue directions for interception or decryption of information? |
Central Government or any authorized agency |
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Section 69 of the IT Act, 2000, allows the government to intercept or monitor information only if: |
The interception is in the interest of national security or public order |
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According to Section 69 of the IT Act, 2000, the directions for interception, monitoring, or decryption can be given for which type of information? |
Any information transmitted through computers, computer systems, or networks |
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The primary purpose of Section 69 of the IT Act, 2000, is to allow the government to issue directions related to: |
National security, public order, or investigation of offenses |
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Who is authorized to approve the directions for interception or decryption under Section 69 of the IT Act, 2000? |
A designated officer in the Ministry of Home Affairs |
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Section 69 of the IT Act, 2000, permits interception or monitoring of information by government authorities if it is: |
Carried out in the interest of national security, sovereignty, or law enforcement |
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Interception or monitoring of information under Section 69 of the IT Act, 2000, requires approval from: |
The Home Secretary or designated officers in the Ministry of Home Affairs |
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Section 69 of the IT Act, 2000, empowers the government to intercept or monitor information to safeguard: |
National defense and public security |
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Under Section 69 of the IT Act, 2000, monitoring and interception can take place only for the purpose of: |
National security, sovereignty, and the maintenance of public order |
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As per Section 69 of the IT Act, 2000, interception and monitoring of information are considered necessary for: |
Investigating offenses related to national security and sovereignty |
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Under Section 69 of the IT Act, 2000, the government has the authority to: |
Intercept and monitor any type of data transmitted through any computer resource for law enforcement |
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Section 69A of the Information Technology Act, 2000, empowers the government to issue directions to block public access to any information that is: |
Related to national security, public order, or sovereignty of India |
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Under Section 69A of the IT Act, 2000, the government has the authority to block access to information on: |
Any computer resource |
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According to Section 69A of the Information Technology Act, 2000, the blocking of public access to information can only be done by: |
The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology or authorized officers |
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Section 69A allows the government to block information related to: |
National defense, foreign relations, and public order |
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Under Section 69A of the IT Act, 2000, who can issue the directions to block public access to information? |
The Central Government or designated officers |
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The blocking of public access to information under Section 69A can occur when the information is: |
Harmful to national security or sovereignty |
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Which is NOT a valid reason for issuing a blocking order under Section 69A of the IT Act? |
Information that is critical of the government |
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As per Section 69A of the IT Act, 2000, the blocking order can be issued to: |
Websites, web pages, or information on any computer resource that poses a threat to national security |
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Section 69A of the IT Act, 2000, mandates that if the government blocks access to any information, the reason for blocking must be: |
Publicly disclosed |
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Which is TRUE regarding the directions for blocking information under Section 69A? |
Blocking orders must be reviewed by a judicial authority within 30 days |
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Under Section 69A of the IT Act, 2000, the directions for blocking access to information must be issued by the: |
Ministry of Home Affairs or other designated authority |
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In the context of Section 69A of the IT Act, 2000, the government’s power to block access to information is meant to: |
Protect national security and prevent the spread of harmful or offensive material |
|
Section 69B of the Information Technology Act, 2000, grants the government the power to: |
Authorize monitoring and collection of traffic data for the purpose of cybersecurity |
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Under Section 69B of the IT Act, who can authorize the monitoring and collection of traffic data or information through computer resources for the purpose of cybersecurity? |
The Central Government or an authorized officer |
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The purpose of monitoring and collecting traffic data under Section 69B of the IT Act is to ensure: |
National security and prevention of cyber threats |
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Section 69B of the IT Act, 2000, relates to which activities? |
Authorizing the monitoring of traffic data for cybersecurity |
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The power to monitor and collect traffic data for cybersecurity purposes under Section 69B can be exercised by: |
Authorized officers of the government designated for cybersecurity |
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According to Section 69B, the monitoring and collection of traffic data is authorized for the purpose of: |
Protecting against cyber threats and ensuring cybersecurity |
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Under Section 69B, the government can authorize the monitoring of traffic data from: |
Any computer resource, including the internet and communication networks |
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Who is responsible for ensuring that traffic data monitoring under Section 69B is done ethically and in compliance with the law? |
The Central Government or authorized officers |
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Under Section 69B of the IT Act, the authorized officers are empowered to monitor traffic data for the purpose of: |
Ensuring network security and combating cybercrime |
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Which actions is explicitly authorized under Section 69B? |
Collecting information related to cyber threats and security breaches |
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Section 69B of the IT Act provides the government the power to: |
Collect traffic data for ensuring cybersecurity |
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In the context of Section 69B, the term 'traffic data' generally refers to: |
Information relating to online activities and communications metadata |
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Under Section 69B, the government's role in monitoring traffic data is primarily aimed at: |
Safeguarding against cybercrimes and maintaining national security |
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Which offences can be compounded under Section 77A of the Information Technology Act, 2000? |
Offences punishable with imprisonment for a term not exceeding three years |
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Under Section 77A, a court may not compound an offence if: |
The accused has a previous conviction leading to enhanced punishment, The offence affects the socio-economic conditions of the country,The offence has been committed against a child below the age of 18 years or a woman |
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According to Section 77A, who may file an application for compounding an offence? |
The accused |
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Which sections of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, apply to the compounding process under Section 77A? |
Sections 265B and 265C |
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What is the maximum imprisonment term for an offence to be compoundable under Section 77A? |
3 years |
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Can an offence under Section 66 of the Information Technology Act, 2000, be compounded under Section 77A? |
No, it is non-compoundable |
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Which is a condition for compounding an offence under Section 77A? |
The offence must be punishable with imprisonment for a term not exceeding three years |
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Under Section 77A, can an offence affecting the socio-economic conditions of the country be compounded? |
No, it cannot be compounded |
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An offence under the IT Act punishable with up to 3 years imprisonment will be treated as: |
Bailable and cognizable |
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Section 77B was inserted in the IT Act through which amendment? |
IT (Amendment) Act, 2008 |
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What is the main objective of introducing Section 77B in the Information Technology Act, 2000? |
To clarify which offences are bailable |
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Which is a non-bailable offence under the IT Act as per Section 77B? |
Section 66F – Cyber terrorism |
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What is the effect of Section 77B on judicial interpretation regarding bailability? |
It provides guidance for uniform classification |
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Can an offence punishable with fine and imprisonment up to three years under the IT Act be bailable under Section 77B? |
Yes |
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What type of offence is considered bailable according to Section 77B? |
Those punishable with imprisonment for three years or less |
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Does Section 77B make a distinction between first-time offenders and repeat offenders? |
No |
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Which statements is correct regarding Section 77B? |
Offences with three years or less imprisonment are bailable |
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What is the status of bail for offences under Section 66C (Identity theft)? |
Bailable if punishment does not exceed three years |
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Under Section 78 of the Information Technology Act, 2000, who is authorized to investigate offences under this Act? |
Police officer not below the rank of Inspector |
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What is the minimum rank of a police officer required to investigate offences under the Information Technology Act, 2000, as per Section 78? |
Inspector |
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Does Section 78 of the Information Technology Act, 2000, override the provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973? |
Yes, it overrides the Code of Criminal Procedure |
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Which statements is true regarding Section 78 of the Information Technology Act, 2000? |
It mandates that only officers of the rank of Inspector and above can investigate offences under this Act |
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Under Section 78, if a police officer below the rank of Inspector receives information about an offence under the Information Technology Act, 2000, what is their responsibility? |
They must inform a police officer not below the rank of Inspector to investigate |
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CHAPTER XII |
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INTERMEDIARIES NOT TO BE LIABLE IN CERTAIN CASES |
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In the case of a non-cognizable offence under the Information Technology Act, 2000, what should a police officer below the rank of Inspector do upon receiving information? |
Enter the substance of the information in a book to be kept by the officer in charge of the police station |
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What powers does a police officer below the rank of Inspector have when investigating a non-cognizable offence under the Information Technology Act, 2000? |
Limited powers, excluding the power to arrest without warrant |
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Which is a non-cognizable offence under the Information Technology Act, 2000? |
Sending offensive messages (Section 66A) |
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CHAPTER XIII |
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MISCELLANEOUS |
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Under Section 80 of the Information Technology Act, 2000, who is authorized to enter, search, and arrest without a warrant? |
Police officer not below the rank of Inspector |
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What is the minimum rank of a police officer required to exercise powers under Section 80 of the Information Technology Act, 2000? |
Inspector |
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Which is considered a "public place" under Section 80 of the Information Technology Act, 2000? |
Public conveyance |
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Under Section 80, which places is included in the definition of "public place"? |
Public conveyance |
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What is the primary condition for a police officer to exercise powers under Section 80 of the Information Technology Act, 2000? |
The officer must be reasonably suspicious of an offence under the Act |
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Which is a requirement for an officer exercising powers under Section 80? |
They must be reasonably suspicious of an offence under the Act |
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Under Section 80, what must an officer do if they arrest a person other than a police officer? |
Take the person before a magistrate or officer-in-charge of a police station without unnecessary delay |
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What does the term "public place" include under Section 80 of the Information Technology Act, 2000? |
Any place intended for use by, or accessible to, the public |
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Which is NOT included in the definition of "public place" under Section 80? |
Private residence |
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Under Section 80, what is the status of the provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (CrPC)? |
They apply, subject to the provisions of Section 80 |
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Under Section 84B of the Information Technology Act, 2000, who is liable for punishment if they abet an offence under this Act? |
Both the abettor and the person committing the offence |
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Section 84B specifies that the punishment for abetment is: |
Equal to the punishment prescribed for the primary offence |
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Who is considered to have abetted an offence under the Information Technology Act, 2000, as per Section 84B? |
Any person who aids or encourages the commission of an offence under the Act |
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In case of abetment, which applies as per Section 84B? |
The abettor shall receive the same punishment as the person committing the offence |
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What is the relationship between the primary offence and abetment under Section 84B? |
The abettor faces the same punishment as the primary offender |
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Section 84B of the Information Technology Act, 2000, deals with which offence? |
Punishment for abetting an offence under the Act |
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Which offences can be subject to abetment under Section 84B of the Information Technology Act, 2000? |
Sending offensive messages through communication service, etc., Publishing obscene material online, Hacking a computer system |
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Which can be considered as abetment under Section 84B? |
Encouraging someone to hack a computer system, Giving instructions to someone on how to defraud others online, Assisting someone in committing an online fraud |
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The punishment for abetment of an offence under the IT Act is considered: |
Equal to the punishment for the primary offence |
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According to Section 84B, the person abetting an offence will be subject to the same legal process as: |
The person who actually committed the offence |
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What does Section 84B specifically apply to? |
Those who assist, encourage, or help in committing the offence |
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Section 84B emphasizes that abetment of an offence under the IT Act results in: |
Equal punishment to that of the primary offender |
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If a person is found guilty of abetting an offence under the Information Technology Act, what must the court consider? |
The severity of the abetment, The punishment for the primary offence, The role of the abettor in the crime |
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Under Section 84C of the Information Technology Act, 2000, what happens if a person attempts to commit an offence under this Act? |
They will be punished as if they committed the offence |
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Which is true about the punishment for an attempt to commit an offence under the IT Act, according to Section 84C? |
The punishment is exactly the same as for the primary offence |
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Section 84C of the Information Technology Act, 2000, applies to: |
Attempts to commit any offence under the IT Act |
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In the case of an attempted offence under the Information Technology Act, the punishment will be: |
The same as the punishment for the complete offence |
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Section 84C addresses the punishment for which situation? |
Attempting to commit an offence under the IT Act |
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If a person is caught attempting to hack into a computer system under Section 84C, what will the court do? |
Punish the person as if the hacking was successfully completed |
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What is the key point about the punishment for attempting to commit an offence under the Information Technology Act, 2000, as outlined in Section 84C? |
The punishment is the same as the punishment for the completed offence |
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Which offences can be subject to punishment under Section 84C of the IT Act if attempted? |
Hacking, Identity theft, Publishing obscene material |
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If an individual tries to fraudulently access a protected computer system, under Section 84C of the IT Act, they would be punished: |
As if they successfully accessed the system |
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What does Section 84C of the Information Technology Act, 2000, specifically relate to in terms of cybercrimes? |
It establishes penalties for attempts to commit any offence under the Act |
